CONSTABLE (GD) MODEL SOLVED PAPER
General Intelligence & Reasoning
1. Nandini stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km (B) 8 km (C) 16 km (D) 10 km
2. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma (B) Kajal (C) Ankita (D) None of these
3. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK : ?
(A) NUTL (B) NTTJ (C) NTTL (D) LTRS
4. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown (B) Room (C) Pen (D) Chair
5. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 25
6. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 :15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30 (B) 6 : 00 (C) 6 : 15 (D) 4 : 20
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24 (B) 57 (C) 58 (D) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be:
(A) 8, 9, 8 (B) 9, 8, 8 (C) 10, 1, 6 (D) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626 (B) 112144 (C) 447355 (D) 869756
10. Introducing a man, a woman says, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Uncle (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle
11. Air is to atmosphere as water is to
(A) biosphere (B) stratosphere (C) ecosphere (D) hydrosphere
12. Choose the number from the given answers to replace the question mark?
240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 480 (B) 240 (C) 180 (D) 420
13. Foot is to hand as leg is to
(A) Elbow (B) Toe (C) Finger (D) Arm
14. Daughter is to father as niece is to
(A) Nephew (B) Cousin (C) Uncle (D) Mother
15. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27
16. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) March (B) January (C) July (D) June
18. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest ?
(A) M (B) R ( C) M or R (D) Q
19. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Varma said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Varma related to the lady?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother
20. Surendra introduces "Raju as the son of the only brother of his father's wife". How is Raju related to Surendra?
(A) Cousin (B) Son (C) Uncle (D) Brother
21. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fist in a certain language, what is the colour of the sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink
22. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576 (B) 895 (C) 783 (D) 394
23. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 2
24. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 27
25. Complete the series ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
General Knowledge and General Awareness
26. Which government income is included in revenue budget ?
(A) Tax-revenue (B) Non-tax-revenue (C) Both of above (D) None of the above
27. The tomb of Babur is at
(A) Kabul (B) Lahore (C) Multan (D) Larkhana
28. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
(A) Greeks (B) Shakas (C) Persians (D) Kushans
29. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis (B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same (D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
30. Devaluation of currency leads to
(A) expansion of export trade (B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution (D) All of the above
31. Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as
(A) Dry deciduous (B) Dry evergreen (C) Tropical moist deciduous (D) Tropical moist evergreen
32. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of
(A) Commercial bills (B) Foreign exchange (C) Gold (D) Government bonds
33. Which one of the following pairs of seas does the Suez Canal connect?
(A) Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean (B) Mediterranean Sea- Black Sea
(C) Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea (D) Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean
34. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
(A) the speaker (B) the president (C) chairman of Rajyasabha (D) none of these
35. Odissi is the dance style of:
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Andra Pradesh (C) Haryana (D) Orissa
36. Who invented the telephone:
(A) Newton (B) J.L.Baird (C) Alexander Graham Bell (D) Thomas Edison
37. In S.H.G. (Self Help Group) most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
(A) Members (B) Government (C) Bank (D) NGO
38. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
(A) Poland (B) Denmark (C) Finland (D) Norway
39. The Kiel Canal links the ?
(A) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (B) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Sea and Baltic Sea (D) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
40. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at
(A) Jaipur (B) New Delhi (C) Nagpur (D) Hyderabad
41. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by
(A) Total population of the country (B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country (D) Volume of capital used
42. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ?
(A) 1972 (B) 1973 (C) 1974 (D) 1975
43. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Rajaraja Chola (B) Mahendra Varman (C) Narsimha Varman (D) Narsimha Chola
44. Which of the following is not a bone in thehuman body?
(A) Sternum (B) Humerus (C) Pericardium (D) Tibia
45. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(A) two (B) three (C) five (D) eight
46. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with
(A) Basket Ball (B) Football(C) Cricket (D) Hockey
47. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka(C) Meghalaya (D) Tamilnadu
48. Government is going to merge Annapurna Scheme with
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme(B) National Old Age Pension Scheme(C) National Food for Work Programme(D) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
49. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952 (B) 1940(C) 1942 (D) 1999
50. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 percent (B) 3 to 4 percent(C) 4 to 5 percent (D) 5 to 6 percent
Elementary Mathematics
51. A group of boys contributed as many rupees each for their trip as they were in number. The total collection came to Rs. 841. How many boys were there in the group?
(A) 21 (B) 29(C) 31 (D) 41
52. If 'x' men can do a piece of work in 8 days and x+4 men can do the same work in 6 days. Then x is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 6(C) 12 (D) 24
53. In a triangle, two sides of 12 cm and 5 cm are at right angles. If the triangle is revolved along the 12cm side, the curved surface of the cone so formed will be
(A) 156 cm2 (B) 78 cm2(C) 65 cm2 (D) 130 cm2
54. Two men together start a journey in the same direction. They travel 9 and 15 kilometer/ day respectively daily. After traveling for 6 days the man traveling 9 km/day doubles his speed and both of them finish the distance, in the same time. Find the number of days taken by them to reach the destination.
(A) 36 (B) 21(C) 18 (D) 12
55. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 265 marks and is declared fail by 55 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(A) 800 (B) 750 (C) 650 (D) 850
56. A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar
enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(A) Rs. 16 per kg (B) Rs. 8 per kg(C) Rs. 4 per kg (D) Rs. 2 per kg
57. 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(A) 700 (B) 650(C) 600 (D) 550
58. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is:
(A) 11 (B) 13(C) 17 (D) 9
59. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is
(A) 24/5 % (B) 4 %(C) 3 % (D) 10/3 %
60. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is:
(A) 9% (B) 10%(C) 18% (D) 900/ 109 %
61. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 % (B) 5%(C) 1/12 % (D) 5/24 %
62. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is:
(A) 50 (B) 100(C) 150 (D) 200
63. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210C to 380C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50C (B) 270C(C) 300C (D) 320C
64. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 156. what is the value of thrice the larget even number ? (A) 124 (B) 128 (C) 126 (D) 134
65. Train fare between nagpar and Nasik for one child. I f adul’s train fare is Rs.102 how much amount will be paid by 3 adults and 4 children together for travelling the same distance ?
(A) Rs:432 (B) Rs:532 (C) Rs:612 (D) Rs:440
66. 1148 28 1408 32 = ?
(A) 1800 (B) 1804(C) 1814 (D) 1822
67. (A) 51 (B) 59(C) 53 (D) 49
68. 3.2% of 500 2.4% of ? = 288
(A) 650 (B) 700(C) 600 (D) 750
69. In a mixture of 60 liters the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1: 2, then the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
(A) 20 (B) 30(C) 40 (D) 60
70. of of of 490 = ?
(A) 115 (B) 105(C) 108 (D) 116
71. 13.5 16.4 7.2 = ?
(A) 1554.38 (B) 1526.28(C) 1594.08 (D) 1582.18
72. 25% of 424 – ?% of 454 = 37.9
(A) 26 (B) 19(C) 21 (D) 15
73. A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is ?
(A) 15 (B) 12(C) 10 (D) 20
74. Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?
(A) Rs. 300 (B) Rs. 350(C) Rs. 375 (D) Rs. 475
75. A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
(A) Rs. 950 (B) Rs. 980(C) Rs. 1010 (D) Rs. 1040
English
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer.
76. In an effort (A) / to make peace (B) / Priya spoke separately (C) / to both the person. (D)
77. They had a narrow escape (A) / when skating as (B) / roaring avalanche (C) / just missed them. (D)
78. The movie star should not have (A) / allowed the press (B) / at the scene had he (C) / known about the fuss. (D)
Directions : Choose the most appropriate word from the given options to fill up the blank in the sentence.
79. When he reached the doctors house he ....... out already.
(A) Went (B) gone(C) has gone (D) had gone
80. The Government agreed to pay compensation ......... damaged crops, land and catle.
(A) to (B) through(C) for (D) of
Directions : Choose the Antyonym of the following :
81. EXONERATE
(A) Moderate (B) Accuse(C) Watchful (D) Acquire
82. REPLETE
(A) Disentangle (B) Improper(C) Devoid (D) Renovate
Directions : Choose the Synonym of the following :
83. SPORADIC
(A) Epidemic (B) Whirling(C) Occasional (D) Stagnant
84. SOPORIFIC
(A) Flattering (B) Sickening(C) Exciting (D) Sleep-producing
Directions : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.
85. (A) hurried (B) hundered (2)(C) hindrance (D) hatred
86. (A) dance (B) damsal (4)(C) dismal (D) dismisal
87. (A) honour (B) honourable (3)(C) honourary (D) honorarium
Directions : In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
While it may suit adult students very well it is very doubtful whether correspondence education would be qdequate for undergraduates of the usual college age group of sixteen to twenty. Young people in their teems need the discipline and the supervision of a regular college course with all that it involves in the observance of an integrated schedule of work and play the personal association with teachers, and the psychological stimulus provided by competition with other students. There are obvious exceptions of course, such as the physically handicapped, who cannot get full value from a normal college education, but on the whole this distinction between young students and mature scholars is valid enough. It is therefore evident that the correspondence system of education. with provide access to higher. studies to people who would otherwise be danced it, but it will do little to ease the pressure on existing colleges.
88. Correspondence courses are most suitable for :
(A) teenagers(B) villagers(C) Those who are between sixteen and twenty(D) none of the above
89. Correspondence courses are designed in such a way as to :
(A) enforce better discipline in schools and colleges.(B) Stimulate the students for competition.
(C) gain a personal association with teachers through correspondence.
(D) enable those who could not as adults attend colleges to obtain education if they so desire.
90. The difference between the young students and mature scholars is :
(A) that the former are more disciplined than the latter.
(B) that the latter need lesser personal attention than the former.
(C) that the former are more competitive than the latter.
(D) that the latter are psychologically better equipped than the former.
91. A regular college course for youngsters is desirable because :
(A) they cannot carry on with their studies independently.
(B) that ensures a neatly arranged programme of academic work that is proper for their age.
(C) they always need the assistance of teachers to study properly.
(D) otherwise, they will be physically and mentally handicapped.
92. The correspondence system of education is expected to :
(A) reduce the quantum of rush to the colleges existing at present.
(B) bring about no change in the pattern of admissions to colleges.
(C) creat more opportunities for the weaker sections to obtain higher education
(D) increase the number of educated unemployed in the country.
Directions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It called for help from the jackal to get out of the well. But the jackal ran away smiling and with the pride of having …(93)… the poor goat. On the way he met a cat. Most sarcastically he told the cat, “Oh ! You lot is really pitiable. For food you have to …(94)… on left-overs. You have to go to the backside of houses, hotels or garbage dumps for your food. I catch fouls, kill and eat them.” When he was …(95)… like this some hunting dogs came that way. The cat was clever. It jumped up on a tree. But the jackal had …(97)… to go. Even though it tried to run, the hunting dogs …(97)… it and killed it. All his slyness, could not save him, from his doom.
93. (A) won (B) gained(C) ditch (D) cheated
94. (A) depend (B) hunt(C) wait (D) bent
95. (A) whispering (B) moaning(C) boasting (D) crying
96. (A) everywhere (B) nowhere(C) not (D) place
97. (A) avoided (B) catch(C) powered (D) overpowered
Directions: From the four words, identify the one which can be substituted for the senteces in questions.
98. Life history of a person written by another
(A) Autobiography (B) Biography(C) Bibliography (D) Memoir
99. A post without remuneration
(A) Voluntary (B) Sinecure(C) Honorary (D) Involuntary
100.One who cannot die
(A) Stable (B) Immortal(C) Perpetual (D) Perennial
ANSWERS:
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C
15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. C 55. A 56. C 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. C 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. C 83. C 84. D 85. B 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. D 90. B
ENGLISH
(Exam Held on: 05-06-2011)
Directions: In Questions 1 to 5, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
1. Tame (N)
(A) wild(B) savage(C) domesticated(D) silent
2. Mercy(A) merit(B) sympathy(C) loss(D) pain
3. Obscene
(A) beautiful(B) unhealthy(C) unwanted(D) indecent
4. Effect
(A) result(B) warning(C) chance(D) purpose
5. Speculate
(A) think(B) guess(C) argue(D) speak
Directions: In Questions 6 to 10, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark in the Answer Sheet.
6. Tentative
(A) definite(B) insufficient(C) plentiful(D) active
7. Compulsory
(A) easy(B) optional(C) unnecessary(D) mandatory
8. Adamant
(A) satisfied(B) comfortable(C) yielding(D) luxurious
9. Honest
(A) infect(B) cleanse(C) corrupt(D) pollute
10. Oral
(A) written(B) correct(C) mental(D) verbal
Directions: In the following passage (11 to 15), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternative given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
There _ 11__ in the city of Ujjain a poor tailor _ 12__ Ramphal. As he was very poor, he __13__ to live and work in one little with his wife and __14__ three small children. The children fought _ 15__ each other and made so much noise.
11. (A) lived(B) stayed(C) inhabited(D) existed
12. (A) famous(B) named(C) known(D) titled
13. (A) wished(B) liked(C) had(D) wanted
14. (A) few(B) a few(C) their(D) some
15. (A) to(B) upon(C) for(D) wit
Directions: In Question 16 to 20, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by a blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
16. The telephone kept ________ ringing, but no one attended.
(A) off(B) on(C) up(D) up with
17. She is sad, because her father turned _______ her request.
(A) in(B) off(C) out(D) down
18. You should not confide _______ a stranger.
(A) in(B) to(C) with(D) by
19. Poets have compared this word _______ a stage.
(A) with(B) to(C) by(D) on
20. I prevailed _______ him to contest the election.
(A) on(B) off(C) over(D) of
Directions: In Questions 21 to 25, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding (D) in the Answer Sheet.
21. Pacific Ocean is (A)/ the deepest ocean(B) / in the world.(C)/ NO error.(D)
22. You will com(A) / to my sister’s wedding tomorrow,(B) / isn’t it?(C)/ No error(D)
23. I am(A) / your’s(B) / affectionate son.(C)/ No error.(D)
24. Beside Hindi, (A)/ she knew (B)/ Bengali well.(C)/ No error(D)
25. He walks(A)/ as if the earth (B)/ belonged to him.(C)/ No error.(D)
ANSWERS:
1.(C) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(A) 5.(B) 6.(A) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(A) 11.(A) 12.(B) 13.(C) 14.(C) 15.(D)
16.(B) 17.(D) 18.(B) 19.(A) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(A) 25.(D)
1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal(B) Phew Dorajee(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi(D) Yoko Ono
2. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology(B) Chemistry(C) Fluid Mechanics(D) Astrophysics
3. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit(B) V. K. Krishna Menon(C) Jawaharlal Nehru(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
4. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force(B) Rapid Action Force(C) Reverse Action Force(D) Repeat Action Force
5. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga(B) Brahmputra(C) Bhagirathi(D) Yamuna
6. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar(B) Sri Lanka(C) Pakistan(D) Tajikistan
7. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
8. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008
(A) Saumika Mishra(B) Santosh Sen(C) Amit Kumar(D) Pappu
9. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.(B) Canada(C) U.S.S.R.(D) Ireland
10. The three medals that IndiAns won in the Beijing Olympics were in
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
11 There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
(A) Chief Justice of India(B) Chief Justice of a High Court(C) Governor(D) Vice President
12. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer(B) Jodhpur(C) Bikaner(D) Barmer
13. Garba is a dance form of
(A) Gujarat(B) Rajasthan(C) Orissa(D) Assam
14. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh(B) Ajit Pal Singh(C) Joginder Singh(D) Milkha Singh
15. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(A) Bankrupt persons(B) Aliens(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease(D) Political sufferers
16. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
17. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha(D) Five years
18. Consent of the people meAns consent of
(A) A few people(B) All people(C) Majority of the people(D) Leader of the people
19. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha(B) Gram Panchayat(C) Gram Cooperative Society(D) Nyaya Panchayat
20. Match the following—Union Territory with Jurisdiction (High Court)
(A) Puducherry (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands(C) Lakshadweep(D) Daman and Diu
1. Kerala2. Bombay3. Madras4. Calcutta
(A) 3 4 1 2(B) 1 3 4 2(C) 1 2 3 4(D) 1 4 3 2
21. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4(C) 1, 2 and 3(D) 1 and 4
22. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper(B) Lead(C) Mercury(D) Zinc
23. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as
(A) Neutrophilia(B) Nephrosis(C) Necrosis(D) Neoplasia
24. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.(B) Staphylococcus(C) Bacillus(D) Salmonella typhi
25 Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by
(A) Proteins(B) Fats(C) Minerals(D) Vitamins
26. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as
(A) Sedimentation (B) Filtration(C) Flocculation(D) Water softening
27. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by
(A) Koch(B) HAnsen(C) Fleming(D) Harvey
28. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare2. M. C. Sharma3. Gajendra Singh4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2(B) 1, 2 and 4(C) 1, 2 and 3(D) All the above
29. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(A) Promote heavy industries in India(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine(D) Enable IndiAns to move freely within the country
30. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh(B) R. G. Bhandarkar(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade(D) B. G. Tilak
31. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand(B) Meghalaya(C) Mizoram(D) Jharkhand
32. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal(B) Bihar(C) Orissa(D) Uttar Pradesh
33. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Persons—Events
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3(B) 2 only(C) 1 only(D) 2 and 4
34. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra(B) Kabul(C) Lahore(D) Delhi
35. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is consideredas
(A) Absolute Poverty(B) Relative Poverty(C) Urban Poverty(D) Rural Poverty
36. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector2. Private Sector3. Joint Sector4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4(B) 1, 2(C) 3, 4(D) 2, 4
37. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, accordingto 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra(B) Bihar(C) Uttar Pradesh(D) West Bengal
38. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by
(A) Adam Smith(B) Marshall(C) P. A. Samuelson(D) J. S. Mill Ans : (C)
39. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves
(A) Upward to the right(B) Downward to the right(C) Horizontally(D) VerticallyAns : (A)
40. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar(D) Shri D. SubbaraoAns : (D)
41. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have
(A) Same meaning(B) Different meaning(C) Opposite meaning(D) None of the aboveAns : (B)
42. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is
(A) Saturn(B) Uranus(C) Neptune(D) PlutoAns : (D)
43. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is
(A) Terrestrial telescope(B) Astronomical telescope(C) Compound microscope(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)
44. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in
(A) Inductance(B) Current(C) Resistance(D) CapacitanceAns : (B)
45. It is difficult to cook rice
(A) At the top of a mountain(B) At the sea level(C) Under a mine(D) Same anywhereAns : (A)
46. X-rays were discovered by
(A) Becquerel(B) Roentgen(C) Marie Curie(D) Van LueAns : (B)
47. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in
(A) Mumbai(B) Bengaluru(C) Hyderabad(D) PuneAns : (D)
48. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are
(A) Hormones(B) Nucleic acids(C) Pheromones(D) SteroidsAns : (C)
50. An emulsifier is an agent which
(A) Stabilises an emulsion(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion(D) Homogenises an emulsionAns : (A)
1. A trader bears a loss of 25% by selling 40 needles .for a rupee. How many needles should he sell for a rupee in order to earn a profit of 20%?
(a) 23(b) 20(c) 25(d) 27Ans. (c)
2. A train crosses a 300 m long platform in 20 seconds and a telegraph pole in 10 seconds. The length of the train is—
(a) 100 m(b) 200 m(c) 300 m(d) 400 mAns. (c)
3. Find the cost of paving a rectangular courtyard 30 meters long and 20 meters wide with tiles 12 cm long and 10 cm wide at Rs. 60 per thousand tiles.
(a) Rs. 3000(b) Rs. 4000(c) Rs. 3500(d) Rs. 5000Ans. (a)
4. If the radius of a circle be doubled, its area will be -
(a) four times(b) doubled(c) tripled(d) sameAns. (a)
5. The volume of a wall, 5 times as high as it is broad and 8 times as long as it is high, is 18225 cu.m. Find the breadth of the wall.
(a) 32.5 m(b) 5 m(c) 4.5 m(d) 3.5 mAns. (c)
6. The earth’s surface is covered either by land or by water. The proportion covered by land of that 3/5 covered by water. What fraction of the entire surface of earth is land?
(a) 1/2(b) 3/8(c) 1/3(d) 2/5Ans. (b)
7. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days. B and C can do it in 120 days and A and C can do it in 90 days. In how many days can A alone do it?
(a) 80 days(b) 100 days(c) 150 days(d) 120 daysAns. (d)
8. An electric pump can fill a tank in 3 hours: Because of a leak in the tank, it took 3 ½ hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in -
(a) 21 hours(b) 6 ½ hours(c) 10 ½ hours(d) 12 hoursAns. (a)
9. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 10% pr annum is Rs.15 and paisa 50. The sum is—
(a) Rs. 5000(b) Rs. 550(c) Rs. 500(d) Rs.11500Ans. (c)
10. The first wrong number is 1, second wrong number is 3 and the third wrong number is 5 and so on. What is the 200th number?
(a) 199(b) 299(c) 399(d) 499Ans. (c)
11. A bottle contains 12 ounce’s of a medicine. Doctor advised the patient to take 2 ounces of medicine every half an hour. If the patient starts taking medicine at 7 am, how long will the medicine last?
(a) 9.30 am(b) 12.30 pm(c) 10.00 am(d) 1.00 pmAns. (a)
12. Find the appropriate answer:
1f 56 x 72 = 79, 32 x 4 = 81, 9 x 12 = 34, 25 x 30 = 56 then, 49 x 42 =?
77(c) 76(b) 52(d) 67Ans. (c)
13. When the length of a right angled quadrilateral is increased by 2 units and its breadth is decreased by 2 Units, its area decreases by 28 square units. Similarly, if length is decreased by 1 unit and bread-th is increased by 2 Units, its area increases by 33 sq. units. What will be the area of the right angled quadrilateral?
(a) 352 sq. units(b) 253 sq. units(c) 223 sq units(a) 225 sq. unitsAns. (b)
14. A sells a watch to B at a gain of 20% and B sells it to C at a loss of 10%. If C pays Rs. 216, what does it cost to A?
(a) Rs. 200(b) Rs. 216(c) Rs. 100(d) Rs. 250Ans. (a)
15. What will be the value of 3.5 x 3.5 + 2 x 6.5 x 3.5 + 6.5 x 6.5?
(a) 10(b) 100(c) 200(d) 1000Ans. (b)
16. The sum of a two digit number and the number formed by, interchanging its digits is 110. Then find the number if difference of its digits is 4.
(a) 38(b) 73(c) 48(d) 84Ans. (b)
17. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When the cistern had no leak, it was filled in 9 hours. It now takes an hour longer. If the cistern is full of water how long would it take in leaking itself empty?
(a) 30 hours(b) 90 hours(c) 45 hours(d) 60 hoursAns. (b)
18. There were two candidates in an election. One of -the candidates got 43% of total votes and was defeated by a margin of 420 votes, How many votes were cast in the election?
(a) 860(b) 840(c) 1300(d) 3000Ans. (d)
19. A boat can row 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Also it can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstreamin 13 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 5 km/hour(b) 7 km/hour(c) 8 km/hour(d) 10 km/hourAns. (c)
20. A bookseller sells a book at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 4% less and sold it for 60 paisa more, he would have gained 18 ¾ %. What does it cost to the bookseller?
(a) Rs.1l(b) Rs. 4(c) Rs. 10(d) Rs. 15Ans. (d)
21. My present age is thrice the present age of my son. After five years, my age will be two and half times the age of my son. What is my present age?
(a) 36 yrs(b) 39 yrs(c) 42 yrs(d) 45 yrsAns. (d)
22. If 1. 2:3.9: 2:? then what will be the value of (?) ?
(a) 5.6(b) 6.5(c) 1.8(d) 4.5Ans. (b)
23. A fraction becomes 4/5 when 1 is added to both the numerator and the denominator and it becomes 1/2 when 5 is subtracted from both the numerator and the denominator. What is the fraction?
(a) 2/3(b) 7/9(c) 8/9(d) 4/3Ans. (b)
24. 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, how long will 8 men and 16 women take to reap it?
(a) 14 days(b) 9 days(c) 10 days(d) 12 daysAns. (b)
25. In an examination, 60% of students were successful. The number of unsuccessful students was 400. How many students appeared in the examination?
(a) 400(b) 460(c). 340(d) 1000Ans. (d)
General Knowledge
1. Who was the first Governor-General of free India?
(A) C. Rajgopalachari(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru(C) Lord Mountbatten(D) Sardar PatelAns. (A)
2. In which year new currency ‘Euro’ was introduced?
(A) 1996(C) 1998(B) W99(D) 1997Ans. (B)
5. Who among the following Tomar rulers is credited with founding of city of Delhi?
(A) Anangapal(B) Vajrata(C) Rudrane(D) DevrajaAns. (A)
6. Tri-colour was adopted as the ‘National Flag’ in—
(A) Haripur Congress(B) Lahore Congress(C) Belgaum Congress(D) Allahabad CongressAns. (B)
7. Mahavira was born in kshatriya clan by the name of—
(A) Shakya(B) Janatrika(C) Mallas(D) LichhaviAns. (B)
8. Who is regarded as the founder of the scientific socialism?
(A) Rousseau(B) Engels(C) Karl Marx(D) LeninAns. (C)
9. The first World War broke out in the year?
(A) 1914(B) 1915(C) 1918(D) 1920Ans. (A)
10. During whose reign Chengiz Khan reached the bank of river Indus?
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak(B) Iltutmish(C) Chandragupta Maurya(D) BindusaraAns. (B)
11. What is the name of German Currency?
(A) Yen(B) Peso(C) Dollar(D) EuroAns. (D)
12. Total World population is about—
(A) 8 billion(B) 5 billion(C) 6 billion(D) 7 billionAns. (C)
13. Which is the largest desert in the World?
(A) Sahara desert(B) Thar desert(C) Gobi desert(D) Great Sand desertAns. (A)
14. Name the sea whose boundaries touch three continents?
(A) Mediterranean Sea(B) Red Sea(C) Caspian Sea(D) Caribbean SeaAns. (A)
15. The largest producer of coffee in the World is—
(A) Brazil(B) Srilanka(C) India(D) MyanmarAns. (A)
16. The state which has developed wind energy—
(A) Gujarat(B) Karnataka(C) Kerala(D) Andhra PradeshAns. (A)
17. Lion is conserved at—
(A) Kaziranga Sanctuary(B) Gir Sanctuary(C) Corbett National Park(D) Manas SanctuaryAns. (B)
18. Which state is bound by Bangladesh on three sides?
(A) Mizoram(B) Meghalaya(C) West Bengal(D) TripuraAns. (D)
19. Which state is associated with both tea and coffee as its main crops ?
(A) Karnataka(B) Assam(C) Kerala(D) MaharashtraAns. (A)
20. India is the largest producer of—
(A) Mica(B) Coal(C) Tin(D) LeadAns. (A)
21. India’s share in the world tourism market is—
(A) Less than 1%(B) between 1% and 2%(C) more than 2% but less than 3%(D) slightly more than 3%Ans. (A)
22. To achieve economic self reliance was the main objective of the following five year plans?
(A) First Plan(B) Second Plan(C) Third Plan(D) Fourth PlanAns. (D)
23. Reserve Bank of India—
(A) Provides direct finance to agriculture(B) Provides finance to primary cooperative societies
(C) Provides finance to state cooperative banks(D) Does not provide finance to agricultureAns. (C)
24. What is the percentage of the total work force employed in agriculture sector in India?
(A) About 50%(B) About 56%(C) About 60%(D) About 64%Ans. (D)
25. The normal temperature of human body is—
(A) 40.5°C(B) 36.9°C(C) 98.4°C(D) 82.4°CAns. (B)
Directions—(Q. 1—5): The words given below are followed by four words or phrases out which only one is a Synonym. Choose the correct word.
1. ACRID—
(A) Sour(B) Bitterly pungent(C) Sweetish(D) HardAns. (B)
2. Temporal—
(A) Priestly(B) Scholarly(C) Secular(D) SleepyAns. (C)
3. Tawdry—
(A) Orderly(B) Showy(C) Reclaimed(D) Proper
Ans. (B)
4. Surfeit—
(A) Excess(B) Drop(C) Estimate(D) Claim
Ans. (A)
5. Reprisal—
(A) Retaliation(B) Assessment(C) Loss(D) Re-evaluation
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 6—10): In each of the sentences below there is a blank to be filled in
with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are given for each question. Choose the correct alternative.
6. Because the enemy had a reputation for engaging in sneak attacks, we were……… on
the alert.
(A) inevitably(B) frequently(C) constantly(D) evident1y
Ans. (C)
7. It was…………… to everyone that the speaker told the truth.
(A) enigmatic(B) veracious(C) startling (D) patent
Ans. (C)
8. To prevent a repetition of this dreadful occurrence, we must discover the………. element in the food that was served.
(A) unknown(B) toxic(C) benign(D) heinous
Ans. (B)
9. His theories were so………… that few could see what he was trying to establish.
(A) logical(B) crudite(C) nebulous(D) scholarly
Ans. (D)
10. Your………. attitude will alienate any supporters you may have won to your cause.
(A) fascinating(B) humanitarian(C) logical(D) truculent
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 11—15): Choose the word with wrong spellings from each set of four words.
11. (A) Stubborn(B) Pleasant(C) Succassful(D) Difference
Ans. (B)
12. (A) Entertainment(B) Cynicism(C) Deviation(D) Posession
Ans. (D)
13. (A) Legitimete(B) Emigrant(C) Inevitable(D) Inflammable
Ans. (A)
14. (A) Refugee(B) Fugitive(C) Unmaried(D) Prevented
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Begining(B) Superior(C) Dawn(D) Hostile
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 16—23): Each of the following (bold) idioms/phrase is followed by
four meanings of which only one is correct. Pick out the correct meaning.
16. The melting Pot
(A) An earthen vessel(B) An Iron cauldron(C) A cooking utensil(D) Circumstances in which things are being greatly changed
Ans. (D)
17. To feather one’s own nest
(A) To rob others to make oneself rich(B) To work selfishly
(C) To make one’s position safe(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
18. To be ill at ease
(A) To lie in bed with illness(B) To backbite others
(C) To be disturbed in mind
(D) To fell sick as well as comfort
Ans. (C)
19. A wild goose chase
(A) A foolish and fruitless search(B) To tame a wild goose(C) To chase the thief(D) To trap a goose
Ans. (A)
20. A house on fire
(A) Like enemies(B) Always quarreled(C) Hated each other(D) Very well
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 21—25): Fill in the blank spaces by picking out the Preposition from the
choices given below each sentence.
21. He was kind enough to accede……….. his request.
(A) with(B) in(C) to(D) over
Ans. (C)
22. She persisted……… doing the job despite its being uninteresting to her.
(A) on(B) with(C) at(D) in
Ans. (D)
23. These days everybody complains……… corruption in the public life.
(A) about(B) of(C) on(D) against
Ans. (B)
24. In the world of today material values take precedence…….. spiritual values.
(A) at(B) on(C) over(D) above
Ans. (C)
25. I complimented him………… his bright success in the examination.
(A) at(B) on(C) about(D) far
Ans. (B)
1. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Deep-Shikha?
(a) Gora(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(c) Mahadevi Verma(d Ram Naresh Tripathi
Ans. (c)
2. The author of the book “Meri Eqyavan Kavitayen” is—
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee(b) Abul Kalam(c) Dharamveer Bharti(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (a)
3. The Capital of Mizoram is—
(a) Imphal(b) Shillong(c) Kohima(d) Aizawl
Ans. (d)
4. The Book ‘Harry Potter and Goblet of Fire’ is been written by—
(a) Robert Ludlum(b) J.K. Rowling(c) Sidney Sheldon(d) Spencer Johnson
Ans. (b)
5. Which among the fo1lowing is the 28th State of India?
(a) Jharkhand(b) Uttaranchal(c) Chattisgarh(d) Gorkhaland
Ans. (a)
6. Population explosion in a country means —
(a) High birth rate and high death rate(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and high death rate(d) Low birth rate and low death rate
Ans. (b)
7. How the poverty line is calculated?
(a) Their house(b) Nature of employment(c) Calorie consumption(d) Standard of education
Ans. (c)
8. Elasticity of demand is a nature
(a) to increase and decrease on the change of price
(b) to increase the price(c) to decrease the price(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
9. Capital is—
(a) to earn property(b) it is kept in boxes and locker(c) it is earthed(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
10. For a study of the long-term growth of the economy we use—
(a) personal income(b) disposable income(c) money GNP(d) real GNP
Ans. (d)
11. Who is said to be the father of nuclear research in India?
(a) Raja Ramanna(b) U.R. Rao(c) Homi J. Bhabha(d) C.V.Raman
Ans. (c)
12. The- science dealing with the study of phenomena at very- low temperature is known as—
(a) cryogenics(b) frozenics(c) cytogenics(d) Refrigenics
Ans. (a)
13. Constituent Assembly was presided by—
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(b) Dr. Ambedkar(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru(d) Dr. K.M Munshi
Ans. (a)
14. Which two words were added in the Preamble of the Indian constitution by the 42nd Amendment?
(a) Secular and Democratic(b) Secular and Socialist(c) Secular and Republic(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. By which Article of Indian Constitution a citizen can go to the Supreme Court for his Fundamental Rights?
(a) Article-31(b) Article—29(c) Article-32(d) Article-10
Ans. (c)
16. By which constitutional Amendment voter’s age was lowered down to 18 years from 21 years?
(a) 48th(b) 57th(c) 61st(d) 63rd
Ans. (c)
17. Which among the following is now not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right of Equality(b) Right of Property(c) Right to Religion(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
18. In which Five-Year–Plan the poverty line was defined?
(a) Seventh Five-Year-Plan.(b) Sixth Five-Year-Plan(c) Eighth Five-Year-Plan(d) Fifth Five-Year-Plan
Ans. (d)
19. The Eighth Five Year Plan was started on—
(a) 1991(b) 1990(c) 1992(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
20. When the planning Commission was started?
(a) June, 1949(b) October, 1951(c) March, 1950(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. One rupee note in India has the signature of—
(a) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India(b) Finance Secretary
(c) Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India(d) Note of these
Ans. (b)
22. Vikram Era was started in—
(a) 19 B.C.(b) 58 B.C.(c) 78 A.D.(d) 73 A.D.
Ans. (b)
24Who has been referred to as the conscience keeper of Gandhiji?
(a) C. Rajgopalachari(b) R. Tagore(c) V. Patel(d) G.K. Gokhale
Ans. (a)
26. Who was the First Governor General of Independent. India?
(a) Lord Mountbatten(b) C. Rajgopalachari(c) J. L. Nehru(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)
27. Tigris river flows through ‘which of the following countries?
(a) Israel(b) Iran(c) Italy(d) Iraq
Ans. (d)
28. BBC is a
(a) broadcasting corporation(b) news agency(c) banking company(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
29. Kroner is the currency of
(a) Sweden(b) Switzerland(c) England(d) Portugal
Ans. (a)
30. Surinam is the new name of—
(a) Dutch Guyana(b) Cameroon(c) Indonesia(d) Papua Guinea
Ans. (a)
Directions (Q. 31-35): Read the passage given below carefully and answer these questions.
PASSAGE
Self poisoned in this fashion, civilization looks as though it might easily decline into a kind of premature senility. With a mind almost atrophied by lack of use, unable to entertain itself and grown so wearily uninterested in the readymade distractions offered from without that nothing but the grossest stimulants of an ever increasing violence and crudity can move it, the democracy of the future will sicken of a chronic and mortal boredom. It will go perhaps, the way the Romans went the Romans who came at last to lose, precise1y as we are doing now, the capacity to distract themselves; the Romans who like us, lived on readymade entertainment in which they had no participation. Their deadly ennui demanded ever more gladiators, more tight rope-walking elephants, more rare and far fetched animals to be slaughtered. Ours would demand no less, but owing to the existence of a few idealists, doesn’t get all it asks for. The most violent forms of entertainment can only be obtained illicitly, to satisfy a taste for slaughter and cruelty you must become a member of Klu Klux Klan: Let us not despair, however; the force of a boredom clamoring to be alleviated may yet prove too much for the idealists.
31. The main, idea of the passage is —
(a) Mind is degenerated(b) Democracy is spoiled because of boredom
(c) Entertainment are illegal(d) Civilizations may become imbecile because of ennui
Ans. (a)
32. Why will future democracy be diseased?
(a) Because of the lack of distractions(b) Because of the lack of entertainment
(c) Because of the degeneration of the mind(d) Because of idealists
Ans. (c)
33. What does the reference to Romans imply?
(a) Idealists are responsible for degeneration(b) Ennui result in decay
(c) Romans wanted entertainment like the modern man(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
34. What is the reference of the writer?
(a) Boredom will be alleviated(b) There will be more participation
(c) Civilization it seems will decay(d) None Of these
Ans. (c)
35. The example of the Romans—
(a) adds to the force of the arguments(b) makes the passage graphic in description
(c) extends the contention(d) serves as a parallel to the main idea
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 36-37): Fill in the blanks to complete the sentences.
36. He jumped as if the scorpion had………… him.
(a) threatened(b) stung(c) bitten(d) brushed
Ans. (b)
37. The doctor had to………… on him to cure him of the disease.
(a) screen(b) inject(c) operate(d) treat
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 38-39): Choose the portion of the sentence having error, if any
38. (a) Because he is learned /(b) so he is /(c) respected by all /(d) no error.
Ans. (b)
39. (a) Shankar is greater /(b) than /(c) any philosophers /(d) no error.
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 40—41): Pick out the nearest correct meaning or synonym of the words given below.
40. CAPTIVATE
(a) repel(b) subjugate(c) dangerous(d) fascinate
Ans. (d)
41. UNGUENT
(a) ointment(b) detergent(c) remnant(d) dish
Ans. (a)
Directions (Q. 42-43): In each sentence below, a group of words has been underlined. Below each four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given. Pick out the one which can substitute the underlined, group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
42. The centre has decided to take Enron’s arbitration notice head on and chances of out-of-court settlement have seem ruled out
(a) an out-of-court settlement seems ruled out
(b) an out-of-court settlement seems to have been ruled out
(c) an out-of-court settlement seem ruled out
(d) an out-of-court settlement seems to have ruled out
Ans. (c)
43. The finance ministry has initiated, talks with the low and power ministries on an arbitrator being appointed.
(a) for an arbitrator being appointed(b) on the appointment of an arbitrator
(c) to appoint an arbitratorso that an arbitrator be appointed
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 44-45): Choose the most suitable antonym of the given word.
44. ABOMINATE
(a) love(b) loathe(c) abhor(d) despise
Ans. (a)
45. JOCOSE
(a) humorous(b) regulated(c) brief(d) dull
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 46—50): Substitute single words for the following statements.
46. A sad song is a—
(a) ditty(b) dirge(c) knell(d) lay
Ans. (b)
47. A person who goes on horse back —
(a) epicurean(b) sinecure(c) equestrian(d) connoisseur
Ans. (c)
48. A person who is very fond of sensuous pleasures—
(a) philanderer(b) charlatan(c) philistine(d) epicure
Ans. (d)
49. Below the surface—
(a) subterranean(b) abortive(c) surreptitiou(d) venial
Ans. (a)
50. A person with full discretionary powers to act on behalf of a country—
(a) emissary(b) plenipotentiary(c) ambassador(d) envoy
Ans. (c)
General Knowledge Defence Research and Development Organisation DRDO
1. What is the height of the Kutub Minar?
(1) 188 feet(2) 288 feet(3) 388 feet(4) 488 feet
Ans:2
2. Who formed the Home rule League ?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai(2) Subhash Chandra Bose(3) Mahatma Gandhi(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans:4
3. In which movement Mahatma Gandhi was on fast in March 1919?
(1) Jalianwala Bagh massacre(2) Chauri-chaura massacre
(3) Against Rowlatt Act(4) Non-cooperation Movement
Ans:3
4. Who gave the slogan Dilli Chalo?
(1) Bhagat Singh(2) Jawaharlal Nehru(3) Subhash Chandra Bose(4) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans:3
5. ‘Vitamin’ does not help in.
(1) Formation of enzymes in tissues(2) Metabolism(3) Protection from diseases.(4) Digestion
Ans:1
6. Which of the following is not a contaminated water borne disease?
(1) Typhoid(2) Jaundice(3)Cholera(4) Filariasis
Ans:4
7. The valuable element for the human being which is not found in solar system is:
(1) Oxygen(2) Water(3) Nitrogen(4) Sodium chloride
Ans:4
8. Which of the following take part in the election of the President?
(1) Members of the Lok Sabha and the .Rajya Sabha
(2) Members of the Lok Sabba
(3) Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(4) Members of the -Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha.
Ans:3
9. What is cooking gas?
(1) Methane and Butane.(2) Ethane and Propane.(3) Propane and Butane.(4) Propane and Methan.
Ans:-3
11. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birth right is related to:
(1) Mahatma Gandhi .(2) Bal GangadharTilak.(3) Lala lajpat Rai.(4) Rabindra nath Tagore.
Ans:-2
12. Which of the following is not an alloy?
(1) Iron(2) Brass(3) Constantan (4)Bronze
Ans:-1
13. A car driver sees the object behind by the help of
(1) Plane mirror.(2)Convex mirror(3) Cylindrical mirror.(4) None of these
Ans:-2
14. The Elephanta waterfall is situated in.
(1) Manipur(2)Assam3) Meghalaya(4) Mizoram
Ans:-3
15. Saffron is produced in
(1) Meghalaya(2) Mizoram(3) Jammu and Kashmir.(4) Arunachal pradesh
Ans:-3
16. The lunar eclipse is caused when
(1) The earth comes between the sun and the moon.
(2) The sun comes between the moon and the earth
(3) The moon comes between the sun and the earth
(4) None of these
Ans:-1
17. When a paper card is drawn from below the glass of water, water
remains at rest. It is due to
(l).Third law of motion.(2) Inertia(3) Friction(4) None of these.
Ans:-2
18. The weight of a badminton cork is,
(1) 4.74to 5.51 gram(2) 4.74 to6.51gram(3)774 to8,51 gram(4) None of these
Ans:-1
19. When was Nagaland formed a state ?
(1)1973(2) 1983(3)1963.(4 )1961
Ans:-3
20. Ozone protects us from
(1)x—rays(2) b rays(3) Ultra violet rays(4)y -rays
Ans:-3
21. Which of the following helps in burning?
(1)Nitrogen(2) Carbon dioxide(3) Carbon(4) Oxygen
Ans:-4
22. In which year the first electric train was started n India?
(1) 1925(2) 1928(3)1935(4)1965
Ans:-1
23. India’s land area is what per cent, of total land area of the world?
(1)2.42%(2)3.5%(3) 16.4%(4) 19.2%
Ans:-1
24. Hemoglobin contains
(1) Copper(2) Iron(3) Cobalt(4) Nickel
Ans:-2
25. What is Mriana Trench?
(1) The largest bay of. the world(2) A city, in USA.(3) The deepest point of the ocean
(4) None of these
Ans:-3
26. Match the following:
A. kaziranga National ParkB. Simlipal ParkC. Gir National ParkD. Corbett National Park
(1) Elephant(ii) Leopard(iii) One horned rhinocerbs.(iv) Lion .
(1)A -(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)(2)A_ (iii) B—(ii) C—(iv) D—(i)
(3)A- (ii) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(i)(4) A-(iv) .B-(iii) C-(i) D-(ii)
Ans:-2
27. The end of a long bone is connected to another bone by
(1) Ligament(2) Tendon(3) Cartilage(4) Muscle
Ans:-1
28. Mahatma Gandhi made the experiment with Satyagraha firstly at
(1) Bardoli(2) Champaran(3) Dandi(4) South Africa
Ans:-2
29. Iron is found most in.
(1)Banana(2) Green vegetables(3) Milk(4) Apple
Ans:-2
30. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?’
Project State
(1) Hirakud Orissa(2) Jaldhaka West Bengal(3) Tehri Dam Uttar Pradesh(4) Vyas Punjab
Ans:-2
31. Milk of Magnesia is :
(1) MgO(2) Mg(OH)2(3)Cu20(4) Hg Br
Ans:-2
32. Which of the following vitamins is stored in liver?
(1) Vitamin A(2) Vitamin C(3) Vitamin D(4) Vitamin K
Ans:-3
33. Electric mercury contains
(1) Mercury at low pressure(2) Mercury at high pressure(3) Neon and mercury(4) None of these
Ans:-3
34. The angle formed between the hands of a watch at 2 : 30 is:
(1)115°(2) 105°(3) 110°(4)120°
Ans:-2
35. Hydrophyte is called
(1) Plant without water(2) Plant without soil .(3) Plant without carbon di oxide.(4) None of these
Ans:-2
36. National Design Institute is situated at
(l) New Delhi(2) Bangalore(3) Ahamedabad(4)Hyderabad
Ans:-1
37. Match the following:
A.. Himsagar ExpressB. Rajdhani ExpressC. Shatabdi ExpressD. Bullet Express
(I) Fastest speed 140 kmph(ii) Air conditioned and high speed
(iii) Magnetic train(iv) Largest distance covererd
(1) A-(i) B—(ii) C—(iii)D{iv)(2)A (iv) B-(ii) C (i) D(iii)
(3)A (iv)B-(iii)C (i) D (ii)(4) A-(i) B-(iii) C(ii) D-(iv)
Ans:-2
38. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(1) President(2) Members of Parliament(3) Citizens of India(4) Parliament
Ans:-1
39. The highest waterfall of India ‘Jog’ is situated ‘in the state:
(1) Uttar Pradesh(2) West Bengal(S) Karnataka(4) Maharashtra
Ans:-3
40. ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas’ is celebrated on
(1)January 1(2) December31(3) November25{4) January 9
Ans:-4
41. Which of the following is a star?
(1) Moon(2) Earth(3) Sun(4) Venus
Ans:-3
42. The original (old)name of Congo Democratic Republic was
(1) Ghana(2) Rhodesia(3) Tanzania(4) Zaire(5) Tongs
Ans:-4
43. Which of the following leaders was known as ‘Desh Bandhu’ before Independence?
(1) S. C. Bose(2) S. N Banerjee(3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy(4) Vipin Chandra Pal(5) None of these
Ans:-5
44. The first man built satellite sent In orbit was—
(1)Soyutz-I(2) Sputnik-I(3)Sahite—I(4)Aryabhatta(5) Illusin—l
Ans:-2
45. The Council of Ministers is responsible to —
(1) President(2) Lak Sabha(3)Rajya Sabha(4) Parliament(5) None of these
Ans:-2
46. Roop Kanwar is related to -
(1) Sati(2) Sports(3) Textiles Manufacture(4 Singing(5.) News Reading
Ans:-1
47. The country having the longest written constitution is —
(I) India(2) Canada(3) Japan(4) Australia(5) None. of these
Ans:-1
48. SaJag Raho’ (Be vigilant) is an Ideal slogan of —
(1) Red Cross(2) Green Peace(3) Scouts(4) National Cadet Corps(5) United Nations
Ans:-3
49. The deficiency of which vitamin causes flow of blood from gums?
(1) Vitamin A.(2)Vitamin B.(3) Vitamin C(4) Vitamin D(5) None of these
Ans:-3
50. Which sea lies between Jordan and Israel?
(1) Red Sea(2) Caspian Sea(3) Dead Sea(4) Black Sea(5) Mediterranean Sea
Ans:-3
Solved Gk for Armed Paper exams
1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?
(a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre(b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre
(c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre(d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre
Ans. (a)
2. Shobha Gurtu is a—
(a) Padmashree(b) Padmavibbushan(c) Padmabhushan(d) Phalke Award Winner
Ans. (a)
3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year—
(a) 1906(b) 1916(c) 1964(d) 1936
Ans. (d)
4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world?
(a) Leningrad(b) Liver pool(c) Sonepur(d) Kharagpur
Ans. (d)
5. ‘Nunamati’ is famous for—
(a) mines of raw iron(b) mines of coal(c) oil refinery(d) mines of mica
Ans. (c)
6. Energy is measured in the same unit as-—
(a) work(b) power(c) momentum(d) force
Ans. (a)
7 The largest gland in human body is—
(a) endocrine(b) Pancreas(c) liver(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. The universal donor is—
(a) O(b) A(c) B(d) AB
Ans. (a)
9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is—
(a) Raipur(b) Bilaspur(c) Raichur(d) Ranchi
Ans. (a)
10. Sphygmomanometer measures—
(a) blood pressure(b) ocean depth(c) magnetic field(d) electric current
Ans. (a)
11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(a) Judges of Supreme Court(b) Election Commissioner(c) Governor(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
12. The author of the book ‘Interpreter of Maladies’ is—
(a) Jhumpa Lahiri(b) Arundhati Roy(c) Vikram Seth(d) Geeta Mehta
Ans. (a)
13. Which among the following is a ‘Morning Raga’?
(a) Sohini(b) Bhairavi(c) Kalawati(d) Sarang
Ans. (b)
14. ‘Guernica’ is a famous painting of—
(a) Leonardo da Vinci(b) Michelangelo(c) Picasso(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
15. ‘Last Supper’ is a world famous painting of—
(a) Paul Gauguin(b) Leonardo da Vinci(c) Raphael(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
16. ‘Bhogali Bihu’ is a festival of—
(a) Assam(b) Orissa(c) Gujarat(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is—
(a) Car Nicobar(b) Port Blair(c) Katchtibu(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
18. What does the term Dactology mean?
(a) Study of finger prints for identification(b) Study of physically handicapped persons
(c) System of new words(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
19. Aizawl is the capital of—
(a) Lakshadweep(b) Nagaland(c) Mizoram(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
20. The term ‘Third World’ is related to—
(a) Asian countries(b) Oil producing countries(c) Developed countries(d) Developing countries
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus(b) Habeas Corpus(c) Quó’Warranto(d) Certiorari
Ans. (b)
22. The anode in a dry cell consists of—
(a) Copper(b) Zinc(c) Carbon(d) Graphite
Ans. (c)
23. In which country ‘Greenwich’ is situated?
(a) USA(b) UK(c) Holland(d) India
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?
(a) Convex(b) Concave(c) Spherical(d) Uniform. thickness
Ans. (a)
25. Sound waves are—
(a) longitudinal(b) transverse(c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse
(d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverse
Ans. (a)
IES General Ability Paper (Objective)
1. The planet called the twin of the earth is—
(a) Venus(b) Jupiter(c) Saturn(d) Pluto
Ans. (a)
2. 15 OHMS, 20 OHMS and 30 OHMS resistance is in parallel, then calculate the equivalent resistance—
(a) 65 OHMS(b) 61 OHMS(c) 9/60 OHMS(d) 60/9 OHMS
Ans. (d)
3. Calculate the number of protons, in the nucleus of hydrogen atom—
(a) zero(b) one(c) three(d) four
Ans. (b)
4. Full form of I.S.R.O. is—
(a) India Scientist Research Organization(b) Indian Space Research Organization
(c) International Space Research Organization(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. Dispersion of which colour of rainbow is maximum?
(a) Violet(b) Yellow(c) Red(d) Blue
Ans. (c)
6. In solar system which planet has maximum speed?
(a) Mars
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Ans. (b)
7. Haley-comets will be seen again in which year?
(a) 2062
(b) 2064
(c) 2060
(d) 2066
Ans. (a)
8. In which country maximum languages are spoken?
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) India
(d) France
Ans. (c)
9. Khasi and Garo tribes mainly live in
(a) Kerala
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Chota Nagpur
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
10. Which is the hardest substance?
(a) Platinum
(b) Diamond
(c) Gold
(d) Silver
Ans. (b)
11. Which country is known as ‘Land of Thousand Lakes’?
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Venice
(d) Turkey
Ans. (b)
12. Who. invented Television
(a) W. Ramsay
(b) Robert Mallet
(c) J.L. Baird
(d) Jonson
Ans. (c)
13. Where is maximum jute produced?
(a) Mahrashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Delta region of Bengal
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
14. ‘One Bar’ is equal to—
(a) 10-5 Pascal
(b) 10 7 Pascal
(c) 10 5 Pascal
(d) 10 4 Pascal
Ans. (c)
15. Size of ‘Nucleus’ is—
(a) 10 -10 meter
(b) l0 -9 meter
(c) 10 -5 meter
(d) 10 -15 meter
Ans. (d)
15. Heavy water is—
(a) Sea water (H2O + Salt)
(b) D2O
(c) H2O2
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
16. Formulae of ‘alkaline’ is—
(a) CnH2n
(b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH2n+1
(d) CnH2n-1
Ans. (b)
17. Value of-one million will be—
(a) 10 5
(b) 10 6
(c) 10 8
(d) 10 7
Ans. (a)
18. Value of one Avogadro million will be—
(a) 6.023 x 10 -23
(b) 6.023 x 10 6
(c) 6.023 x 10 8
(d) 6.023 x 10 19
Ans. (b)
19. 1 mole is equal to—
(a) 6 x 10 23
(b) 8 x 10 10
(c) 5 x 10 4
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
20. At the N.T.P in any gas volume of one mole is equal to—
(a) 63.5 liter
(b) 10 x 10-5 liter
(c) 22.4 liter
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
21………….. is known as the chief element of core of earth
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Silicon
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
22. What is the formulae of bleaching powder?
(a) CaOCl2
(b) CaOH
(c) Ca (OCl) Cl
(d) CaCl2
Ans. (c)
23. Lunar eclipse happens when—
(a) the sun comes between he moon and the earth
(b) the moon comes between the earth and the sun
(c) the earth comes between the moon and the sun
(d) the mars comes between the earth and the moon.
Ans. (c)
24. The lightning of thunder is seen before hearing its roaring because—
(a) thunder is more near than roaring.
(b) the light can pass through vacuum.
(c) speed of light is more than speed of sound.
(d) peed of sound is more than speed of the light.
Ans. (c)
25. In photosynthesis which gas is left by green plants?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water-vapour
(d) Carbon-dioxide
Ans. (a)
26. Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in, which direction?
(a) North-West direction
(b) North-South direction
(c) North-East direction
(d) South-West- direction
Ans. (b)
27. How far the axis of earth is bowed of its orbital surface?
(a) 23 ½ °
(b) 66 ½ °
(c) 180°
(d) It is not bowed
Ans. (a)
28. Difference to longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15°. What will be the difference in its local time?
(a) No difference
(b) 1 hour
(c) 2 hours
(d) 15 hours
Ans. (a)
29. Air makes pressure—
(a) only downward
(b) only upward
(c) in all direction
(d) it does not make pressure.
Ans. (a)
30. Which of the following is only a star?
(a) Moon
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Sun
Ans. (d)
31. Water that does not make foam quickly with soap is—
(a) soft water
(b) natural water
(c) mineral water
(d) hard water
Ans. (d)
32. Which artery chiefly carries blood from different parts of our body to heart?
(a) Nerves
(b) Arteries
(c) Cells
(d) All these
Ans. (a)
33. According to which Article in the Indian Constitution, Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status?
(a) 368
(b) 370
(c) 371
(d) 356
Ans. (b)
34. Dudhwa National Park is located in—
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (a)
35. Them Dam has been constructed on the river—
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Alaknanda
Ans. (c)
36. Diabetes is a disease affecting—
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Ans. (a)
37. Lightning’s conductor was discovered by—
(a) Graham Bell
(b) Lord Lister:
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Einstein
Ans. (c)
38. Width of Broad Gauge Track on Indian Railways is—
(a) 1000 mm
(b) 1676 mm
(c) 862 mm
(d) 1500mm
Ans. (b)
39. ‘Pongal’ is celebrated in the month of—
(a) March
(b) September
(c) October
(d) January
Ans. (d)
40. ‘Manometer’ is the instrument used to measure –
(a) air pressure
(b) Velocity of sound
(c) Humidity of atmosphere
(d) Speed of a vehicle
Ans. (a)
41. Indian Railways manufactures Wheels and Axles at—
(a) Chittaranjan
(b) Hussainpur (Punjab)
(c) Yelahanka (Bangalore)
(d) Perambur (Chennai)
Ans. (c)
42. In these national awards, with which award Amir Khan honored?
(a) Padma Vibhushan
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Shree
(d) Ashok Chakra
Ans. (c)
43. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
(a) B.N. Kripal
(b) V.N. Khare
(c) S.N. Phukan
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
44. High temperature and low pressure over the Indian subcontinent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian Ocean leading to the in-blowing of the—
(a) south-east monsoon
(b) south-west monsoon
(c) trade winds
(d) westerlies
Ans. (b)
45. During the Indian freedom movement the first great experiment in Satyagraha came in 1917 in—
(a) Bardoli
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Champaran
Ans. (d)
46. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Satyagraha Movement in 1919—
(a) as a protest against atrocities committed at Jallianwala Bagh
(b) as a protest against Rowlatt Act
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c)
47. The Dandi March was undertaken by Gandhi to—
(a) start Satyagraha
(b) break the salt law
(c) press the demand for Poorna Swaraj
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
48. Which part of a p1ant respires?
(a) Root
(b) Leaf
(c) Seed
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
49. Convulsions in infants is caused due to the deficiency of—
(a) idoine
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B-6
(d) vitamin C
Ans. (d)
50. How many seats have been allotted to Sikkim in the Lok Sabha?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (d)
1. The ratio of the areas of the in circle and circumcircle of an equilateral triangle is—
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:9
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:3
Ans. (b)
2. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price to the printed price of the book is—
(a) 99 : 125
(b) 55 : 69
(c) 50: 61
(d) 45 : 56
Ans. (d)
3. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are scholarship holders, the percentage of the school students who are not scholarship holders, is—
(a) 78
(b) 80
(c) 56
(d) 70
Ans. (a)
4. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together. If C alone can finish the work in 12 days, then together all will finish the work in—
(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (b)
5. Taps A and B can fill a bucket in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both are opened and A is closed after 3 minutes, how much further time would it take for B to fill the bucket?
(a) 8 mm. 5 sec
(b) 8 mm. 25 sec
(c) 7 mm. 45 sec
(d) 7 mm. 15 sec
Ans. (c)
6. A train -110 m long passes a man, running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that of the train in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is—
(a) 54 km/hr
(b) 72 km/hr
(c) 60 km/hr
(d) 66 km/hr
Ans. (c)
7. A boat takes 4 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to point A upstream. If the velocity of the stream is 2 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 4 kmph, whit is the distance between A and B?
(a) 8 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 6 km
Ans. (d)
8. A man covered a-distance of 2000 km in 18 hours partly by bus at 72 kmph and partly by train at 160 kmph. The distance covered by bus is—.
(a) 860 km
(b) 640 km
(c) 1280 km
(d) 720 km
Ans. (d)
9. The difference between simple interest and compound. Interest on Rs. 1200 for one year at 10% per annum, reckoned half yearly is—
(a) Rs. 8.80
(b) Rs. 3
(c) Nil
(d) Rs. 13.20
Ans. (b)
10. When simplified, the product
(2 – 1/2) (2 – 3/5) (2- 5/7)…….(2 -997/999) is equal to
(a) 5/999
(b) 1001/999
(c) 1001 /3
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
11. The 1eastperfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6,and 8 is—
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans. (d)
12. If cost of oil is increased by 25% then a house should decrease by what percent her consumption of oil so that it does not affect her expenditure in this commodity?
(a) By 20 %
(b) By 25 %
(c) By 16 %
(d) By 20 %
Ans. (d)
13. Ratio of Ram and Shyam’s income is 7:17 and ratio of Shyam and Sohan’s income is
7:17. If Ram’s income is Rs. 490 then what is the income of Sohan?
(a) 490
(b) 2890
(c) 2790
(d) 1190
Ans. (b)
14. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one rupee note, five rupee notes and ten rupee notes. The numbers of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans. (b)
15. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculate, 50% of the remaining are graduates and, remaining 180 are post- graduates. How many employees are graduates?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans. (d)
16. What must Be added to each term of the ratio 49:68 so that it become3:4?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
17. A, B and C enter into a partnership with a capital in which A’s contribution is Rs. 10,000. If out of a total profit of Rs. 1000, A gets Rs. 500 and B gets Rs. 300, then C’s capital is —
(a) Rs. 4000
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 6000
(d) Rs. 9000
Ans. (a)
18. The smallest whole number which is divisible by 3 and also by the next two greater prime numbers is—
(a) 15
(b) 21
(c) 60
(d) 105
Ans. (a)
19. Rs. 1980 are divided among A, B, C so that half of A’s part, one- third of B’s part and one-sixth of C’s part are equal. Then, B’s part is—
(a) Rs. 660
(b) Rs. 360
(c) Rs. 1080
(d) Rs. 540
Ans. (d)
20. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 47000 for a business. If A subscribes Rs. 7000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C then out of a total profit of Rs. 9400, B receives—
(a) Rs. 1737.90
(b) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 3000
(d) Rs. 4400
Ans. (c)
21. Karnataka Express leaves Bangalore at 5 p.m. and reaches Dharmavaram at 9 p.m. Kurla Express leaves Dharmavaram at 7 p.m. and reaches Bangalore at 10.30 p.m. What time do the trains cross one another?
(a) 8.26 p.m.
(b) 8 p.m.
(c) 7.36 p.m.
(d) 7.56 p.m.
Ans. (a)
22. If the height of the cone is doubled then its volume is increased by—
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (a)
23. The value of [log 3/5 +log 5/36 +log 12] is equa1 to —
(a) log 5
(b) log 3
(c) log 2
(d) log 0
Ans. (d)
24. Two years ago a man was 6 times as older as his son. In 18 years, he will be twice as
Older as his son. Their present ages are—
(a) 32 years, 7 years
(b) 34 years, 9 years
(c) 36 years, 11 years
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
25. If (x—2) is a factor of x2+3qx— 2q then the value of q is—
(a) 2
(b) —2
(c) 1
(d) —1
Ans. (d)
26. A dishonest dealer sells his goods at the cost price and still earns a profit of 25% by under weighing. What weight does he use for a kg?
(a) 750 gms
(b) 800 gms
(c) 825 gms
(d) 850 gms
Ans. (b)
27. A Railway Refreshment Room of a station has provisions for 20 weeks for catering to 750 passenger’s daily average.. If at the end of 4 weeks daily average of passengers is increased by 450, how long will remaining provision last?
(a) 10 weeks
(b) 15 weeks
(c) 11 weeks
(d) 16 weeks
Ans. (a)
28. If a train runs at 40 kmph, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes but if it runs at 50 kmph, it is late by 5 minutes only. The correct time for the train to complete its journey is—
(a) 13 min.
(b) 15 mm.
(c) 19 mm.
(d) 21 mm,
Ans. (d)
29. A merchant marks his goads at Rs. 300 and allows a discount of 25%. If he still gains 12.5% then the cost of article is—
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 240
(c) Rs. 200
(d) Rs. 260
Ans. (c)
30. If four examiners can examine a certain number of answer books in 8 days by working 5 hrs a day, for how many hours a day would 2 examiners have to work in order to examine twice the number of answer books in 28 days?
(a) 6. hours
(b) 7 ½ hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 9 hours
Ans. (a)
31. Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 4 kmph and 4.5 kmph respectively What time will they take to be 8.5. km apart, if they walk in the same direction—
(a) 12 hrs
(b) 14 hrs; 15 mi
(c) 17 hrs.
(d) 12 hrs. 55 mm.
Ans. (c)
32. If 8 tan x = 15, then value, of (sin x — cos x) is—
(a) 8/17
(b) 17/7
(c) 1/17
(d) 7/17
Ans. (d)
33. A man sold goods at a profit of 20%. If he buys it for 20% less and’ sells it for Rs. 5 less, then he gets 25% profit. Find the cost price of the goods.
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 25
(d) Rs. 40
Ans. (c)
34. What is the H.C.F. of a2b2 c6 b3 c8a4 and a8b6c2?
(a) a4b4c4
(b) a2b2c2
(c) a2b3c2
(d) a2b3c3
Ans. (b)
35. In the mixture of 20 kg milk and water, 15% is water. If 5 liters water is added to it, then what will be percentage of milk in the mixture?
(a) 10 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 15 %
(d) 32 %
Ans. (d)
36. If income of x is more than 20% of y’s income, then income of y is what per cent lesser than x’s income?
(a) 25 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 16 2/3 %
(d) 33 1/3 %
Ans. (c)
37. A man sold two horses for Rs. 6000 each, in this transaction he gets 10% profit in first horse and 10% loss in second horse. What does he get in the whole transaction?
(a) No profit no loss
(b) 1 % profit
(c) 1 % loss
(d) 0.1 % loss
Ans. (c)
38. 22x = 256, then what, is the value of x?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(b) 3
Ans. (a)
39. If addition of roots is, 11 and multiplication of roots are 30, and then calculate the quadratic equation?
(a) x 2—11 x—30 = 0
(b) x 2—11 x + 30 = 0
(c) x 2—30 x + 11 = 0
(d) x 2 + 11 x + 30 = 0
Ans. (b)
40. Find the difference in compound interest and simple interest of Rs. 400 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years.
(a) Re. 1
(b) Rs. 2
(c) Rs. 3
(d) Rs. 4
Ans. (a)
41. Equation 2x2 — 5x + 30 = 0, find the root?
(a) Root is teal and dissimilar
(b) Not real root
(c) Root is real and equal
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
42. If log 2 = 7, then the value of log 80—
(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 22
(d) 14
Ans. (c)
43. Find the distance between the dots (1,2) and (3,5) —
(a) 6
(b) 13
(c) 24
(d) 13
Ans. (d)
44. In the given equation 5x + 3y -19 = 0, then find the value of slope—
(a) +5/3
(b) – 5/3
(c) -3/5
(d) – 5/4
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following has the lowest value?
(a) 3/4
(b) 5/6
(c) 7/9
(d) 11/13
Ans. (a)
46. In what time at the rate of 5% per annum from simple interest any principal will be increased by 40 %?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 8 years
Ans. (d)
47. A train running at the speed of 60 kmph crosses a pole in 15 seconds.
The length of the train is—
(a) 120 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 250 m
(d) 200 m
Ans. (c)
48. The diameter of a circle is 8 cm. A quarter part of the circle is folded as a cone The height of. cone is—
(a) 6cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 2cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
49. 55% of a sum of money is Rs. 1.1. The sum of money is:
(a) Rs. 20
(b) Rs. 2
(c) Rs. 11
(d) Rs. 110
Ans. (b)
50. 33 ½ % of A= l.5 of B= 1/8 of C. Then A: B: C: is:
(a) 24:2:9
(b) 2:9:24
(c) 9:2:24
(d) 9:24:2
Ans. (c)
b goods guard previous exam papers
RRB Exam Previous Year model Question papers with Answers
Directions (1—8): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word In each case.
In the thirties and forties Geography was subject in schools. Children spent hours tracing maps and about strange places, peoples and customs. Harvard University its Geography department after World War I I. A string of leading universities in the United States 4 .the suit. Geography has been traced with the racist brush and no one wants to be .
David S Leander, Professor of History and Economics at Harvard University makes a forceful for Geography in his book “The Wealth and, Poverty of Nations”. Geography. h argues. tells the unpleasant truth that nature is unfair, unequal in Its! and that its unfairness are not easily 8. For, Leander there is nothing racist in a Geography that temperature of the air, the volume or timing of rainfall or the topography.
1. (1) resourceful (2) decent (3) boring (4) famous
Ans:-3
2. (1) knowledge (2) drawings (3) ignored (4) learned
Ans:-2
3. (1) established (2) nurtured (3) developed . (4) abolished
Ans:-1
4. (1) followed (2) cleared
(3) prepared (4) wore
Ans:-1
5. (1) learned. (2) Contaminated
(3) Neglected (4) prepared.
Ans:-3
6. (1) decision (2) impeachment
(3) lesson (4) plea
Ans:-4
7. (1) behaviour (2) favours
(3) Sources (4) deal
Ans:-3
8. (1) sensed (2) recycled (3) over-ruled (4) undress
Ans:-1
9. Which of the following has the jurisdiction to hear about Fundamental Rights ?
(1) Supreme Court (2) High court
(3) Subordinate Court
(4) None of these
Ans:-1
10. Solar eclipse, occurs when
(1) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.
(2) The Sun comes between the Earth and moon.
(3) The Earth comes between the Sun and moon,
(4) None of these.
Ans:-1
11. What was the main occupation of the early Aryans in Rig Vedic period?
(1 ) Sculpture
(2) Animal husbandry
(3) Agriculture (4) Trade
Ans:-2
12. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Goitre is caused due to deficiency. of— Vitamin D.
(2) Diabetes Is caused due to deficiency of — insulin
(3) Rickets is caused due to deficiency of – Vitamin A
(4) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of— Iodine
Ans:-3
13. Six coins of gold and silver of equal weights are melted and new coins are cast. The ratio of gold and silver in one of the coins is 2: 1, in another two coins 3 : 5 and 7:5 In the remaining corns. What will be the ratio between gold and silver respectively in the new coins?’
(1) l2:11 (2)1:1 (3) 19: 17 (4) 42 : 25
Ans:-3
14. Which of the following does not contain carbohydrate?
(1) Potato (2) Maize (3) Banana (4) Pea
Ans:-4
15, Where is Namdafa Wild life Sanctuary located which is full of flora, fauna and avian with surprising dangers?
(1) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans:-4
16. The largest river island in the world. Majuli is located, in which of the following districts of Assam?
(1) Jorht (2) Dibrugarh
(3) Dhemaji (4) Tinsukia
Ans:-1
17. A person cannot see an object placed at a distance’ of less than
25 cm. The person suffers from.
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Myopia
(3) Longsighted ness
(4) None of these
Ans:-3
18. In photosynthesis light
(1) Is converted into kinetic energy
(2) Is converted into chemical energy
(3) Does not react with CO2 add water directly
(4) Acts as a catalyst -.
Ans:-2
19. Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” during
(1) Non-Cooperation Movement
(2) Civil Disobedience Movement
(3) Quit India Movement
(4) Industrial Satyagraha
Ans:-3
20. A black body emits
(1) Radiations of all wavelengths.
(2) No radiation.
(3) Radiation of one wavelength.
(4) Radiation of long wavelength .
Ans:-2
21. The depth of seals measured in:
(1) Feet (2) fathom (3) nautical (4) mile
Ans:-2
22. Erie silk is produced by Philosemia Resina silk worm.The worm is cultured in the plant of:
(1) castor (2)oak
(3) papaya (4) silk cotton.
Ans:-1
23. Which of the following rights is a political right?
(1)the right to be elected
(2) The right to life
(3) The right to have education
(4) The right to form association
Ans:-1
24. Which of the following two places are connected by the road in India, which is constructed on the highest altitude in the world?
(1) Leh and Manali (2) Jammu and Srinagar (3) Sikkim and Darjeeling (4) Srinagar and Leh
Ans:-1
25. Which part of the camera is equivalent to the retina of human eye?
(1) Lens, (2) Film
(3) Aperture (4) Shutter
Ans:-2
26. The largest island of the Asian Continent is:
(1) Indonesia (2) Borneo
(3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar
Ans:-3
27. When one ascends in the atmosphere the air becomes—-gradually.
(1) Rarer (2) dense
(3) Hot (4) obvious’
Ans:-1
28. During respiration carbohydrate is disintegrated into:
(1) Glycogen
(2) Carbon dioxide and water
(3) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(4) Glucose
Ans:-1
29. When the door of refrigerator is opened in a closed room, then:
(1) Room turns to be cooler
(2) The temperature of room falls
(3) The temperature of room is not affected
(4) The room becomes hotter gradually
Ans:-4
30. Who is called the First Citizen of India?
(1) President of India
(2) Prime Minister of India
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Dr. BR Ambedkar
Ans:-1
31. Panini was a famous scholar of:
(1) Language and grammar
(2) Ayurveda
(3) Astronomy (4) Biology
Ans:-1
32. Which of the following is not a mineral?
(1) Slate (2) Limestone
(3) Coal (4) Calcite
Ans:-4
33.The state -of rising prices due to an enhancement in the quantity of money in circulation, termed as:
(1) Inflation
(2) Deflation -
(3) Demonetization
(4) Devaluation
Ans:-1
34. Name the minerals that are essential for hone and teeth formation in human:
(1) Calcium-and Phosphorus (2) Magnesium and Potassium
(3) Sodium and Iron (4) Iodine and Sulphur
Ans:-1
35. Ripe mangoes contains:
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E
Ans:-3
36. In which one of the following places, the boiling point of water is the highest?
(1) Dead Sea (2) Mt. Everest (3) Nile Delta (4) Sunder ban Delta
Ans:-2
37. The primary colours used in a colour TV are: -
(I) Green, Yellow, Violet
(2) Violet, Red, Orange
(3) Blue, Green, Red
(4) Blue, Green, Violet
Ans:-3
38. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
(1) Freedom to manage religious- affairs.
(2) Free and compulsory education up to primary stage.
(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories.
(4) freedom to propagate religion.
Ans:-2
39. The chief merit of a federal government is that It:
(1) Ensures a strong government at the centre
(2) Integrates national unity with regional autonomy
(3) Keeps a check on the multiparty Systems
(4) Is very less expensive
Ans:-2
40. The First Assamese to become the President of India was-:
(1) Satyeda Anowara Talmur.
(2) Gopinath Bordoloi .
(3) Fakaruddln Ali Ahmed.
(4) Syed Abdul Malik .
Ans:-3
41. Match List – I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List—I
a. Amjad Ali Khan
b.Ali Hussain
c.Hari Prasad Chaurasia
d. Alla Rakha
List—II
1. Flute
2. Sarod
3. Tabla
4. Shehnai
Codes
A b e d
(1)2 1 3 4
(2)4 2 1 3
(3)2 4 1 3
(4)1 2 3. 4
Ans:-3
42. A dentist’s mirror is a:
(1) Cylindrical mirror (2) plane mirror
(3) Convex mirror (4) concave mirror
Ans:-4
43. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?
(1) Assam (2) Karnataka (3) Andhra Pradesh(4) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans:-2
44. The Gandhara School of Sculpture was a blend of:
(1) Indian and Greek styles (2) Indian and Persian styles
(3) Purely Indian in origin (4) Indian and South East Asian style.
Ans:-1
45. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura?
(I) Hindi (2) Mizo (3) Khasi (4) Bengali
Ans:-4
46. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?
(1) Eight (2)Ten
(3) Twelve (4) Fourteen
Ans:-2
47. In which year was the Capital of Assam shifted to Dispur from Shillong ?
(1) 1974 (2)1978
(3) 1985 (4) 1960
Ans:-1
48. Identify the man-made element:
(1) Carbon (2) Gold
(3) Californium (4) Calcium
Ans:-3
49. A man- borrows Rs. 200 at 5% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs. 50. At the end of 4 years he owes:
(1) Rs. 27.59 (2) Rs. 28.10.
(3) Rs. 27.81 (4) Rs. 28.14.
Ans:-1
50. The three temples, the Shivadol, the Vishnudol and the Devldol are situated at which place of Assam?
(1) Silghat (2) Sibsagar (3)Sadiya (4)Sarthebari
Ans:-2
solved numerical ability test
MODEL QUESTIONS NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
Mathematics, Quantitative Aptitude and numerical ability objective questions
1. A man’s working hours a day were increased 20% and his wages per hour were increased by 15%. By how much per cent were his daily earning increased?
A. 38%
B. 35%
C. 5%
D. 40%
Ans. (A)
Directions (2-3): Refer to the information below and answer the questions that follow:
85 children went to an amusement park where they could ride on Roller- coaster, Giant wheel and Toy train. 20 of them took all the three rides and 55 of them took at least two of three rides. Each ride cost Rs. 10 and total receipt of the amusement park from children was Rs. 1,450.
2. How many children did not try any of these rides?
A. 5
B.10
C. 12
D. 15
Ans. (D)
3. How many children took exactly one ride?
A. 20
B. 18
C. l5
D. 10
Ans. (C)
4. One typewriter marked for sale at Rs. 480, dealer allows discount of 10% and yet makes profit of 8%. What should his gain be if no discount were allowed?
A. Rs. 80
B. Rs. 38.40
C. Rs. 20
D. Rs. 48
Ans. (A)
5. 25 men with 10 boys can do in 6 days as much work as 21 men with 30 boys can do in 5 days. How many boys must help 40 men to do the same work in 4 days?
A. 5 boys
B. 40 boys
C. 20 boys
D. 10 boys
Ans. (D)
6. A and B enter into partnership with capitals as 5:6. At the end 8 months A withdraws. If they receive profit in the ratio of 5:9, find how long B’s capital was used?
A. 4 months
B. 8 months
C. 12 months
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
7. A man invested Rs. 14,400 in the hundred rupees shares of a company at 20% premium. If the company declared 5% dividend at the end of the year how much does he get?
A. Rs.720
C. Rs. 500
B. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 650
Ans. (B)
8. A train started with 540 passengers. At the first station 1/ 9 of them got down and 24 got up. On its second station 1/8 of the passengers then existing got down and 9 got up. With how many passengers it reached the third station?
A. 500
B. 450
C. 540
D. 550
Ans. (B)
9. If the rate of dividend is 5%, find the income by purchasing 20 shares of Rs. 50 each at Rs. 50.
A. Rs. 60
B Rs. 50
C. Rs. 40
D. Rs. 30
Ans. (B)
10. The price of sugar is increased by 10%. By what percentage one must cut down his consumption of sugar, so that no extra amount has to be spent on it?
A 9 1/11 %
B. 11 1/9 %
C. 10 %
D. 12 %
Ans. (A)
10. (11.6 + 0.8) (13.5 ÷ 2) = ?
A. 98
B. 99
C. 100
D. None of these
Ans. (D)
11. If in any year, other than leap year, the 28th of February is a Monday, what will be the day on 2nd January?
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Sunday
D. Friday
Ans. (A)
12. The air consists of 79.2% of Nitrogen, 20.7% of Oxygen, 0.08% of other light gases and the remaining gas is Argon. Find out the volume of the air consisting one cubic meter of Argon.
A. 500 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 5 m3
D. 5000 m3
Ans. (D)
13. A cyclist rides 24 km at 16 kmph and further 36 km at 15 kmph. Find his average
speed for the journey.
A. 15.38 kmph
B. 16 kmph
C. 15.5 kmph
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
14. A sum of Rs. 1,550 was lent partly at 5% and partly at simple interest. The total interest received after 3 years was Rs. 300. The ratio of Money lent at 5% to 8% is:
A. 5:8
B. 8:5
C. 31:6
D. 16:15
Ans. (D)
15. A father left a will of Rs. 16,400 for his two sons aged 17 and 18 years. They must get equal amounts when they are 20 years. at 5% compound interest. Find the present share of the younger son.
A. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 8,200
B. Rs. 8,400
D. Rs. 10,000
Ans. (A)
16. What will be the value of 47/10,000?
(a) 0.00047
(c) 0.0470
(b) 0.0047
(d) 0,4700
Ans. (b)
17. In 15 years, a sum of money put on simple interest trebles itself, the rate of interest per annum would be—
(a) l6 2/5 %
(b) 13 1/3 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 50 %
Ans. (b)
18. The selling price of 12 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. The gain per cent is—
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
Ans. (a)
19. What will be the value of (9856 x 856 + 9856 x 144)?
(a) 985600
(b) 98560
(c) 956000
(d Non’ of these
Ans. (c)
20. The price of a commodity is first increased by 30% and then decreased by 30%. What will be the effect on its price?
(a) 9% decrease
(b) Data inadequate
(c) 9% increase
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. If 5 men and 8 women can do a piece of work in 5 days and 6 men and 3 women can also do the same work in 5 days then 2 men and 5 women will do this. work in—
(a) 2 3/11 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 11 days
(d) 15 days
Ans. (c)
22. A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B alone can do it in 10 days. B works at it for 5 days and then leaves. A alone can finish the remaining work in—
(a) 6 ½ days
(b) 7 ½ days
(c) 8 days
(d) 9 days
Ans. (b)
23. Find the HCF of (9x2 – 4) and (6x2 -5x-6)
(a) 3x+2
(b) 4x+5
(c) 2x+3
(d) 3x-2
Ans. (a)
24. The diameter of a circular wheel is 168 cm. How far will it travel in 100 revolutions?
(a) 52800 cm
(b) 264 cm
(c) 4620 cm
(d) 9800 cm
Ans. (a)
25. If 1/x+1/y=5, 1/x+1/y=6,1/y+1/z=7, then find the values of x, y and z respectively.
(a) 1/2, 1/3, -1/4
(b) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4
(c) -1/2, 1/3, 1/4
(d) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4
Ans. (d)
26. The present age of Sohanlal is four times the present age of his son. Four years hence, the sum of their age’s wil1 be 43. What is the present age of his son?
(a) 15 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 12 years
Ans. (c)
27. Find the product of the roots of the equation – 3 – 7x + 6x2 = 0
(a) -2
(b) ½
(c) 2
(d) – 1/2
Ans. (d)
28. 9×16+224-56+1/2 -1/4 =?
(a) 37 23/28
(b) 312 1/4
(c) 1473/4
(d) 1481/4
Ans. (b)
29. 0.05 x 0.05 x 0.05 — 0.04 x 0.04 x 0.04 =
0.05 x 0.05 ÷ 0.002 + 0.04 x 0.04
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.09
(d) 0.9
Ans. (a)
30. Out of the numbers given below, by which least number should 176 be multiplied so that it will be a perfect square?
(a) 8
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
31. How many days are there from 2nd January, 1995 to 15th March, 1995?
(a) 73
(b) 74
(c) 71
(d) 72
Ans. (a)
32. The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle are 15 cm and 8 cm. The radius of its circumcircle is—
(a) 4.75 cm
(b) 2.375 cm
(c) 8.5 cm
(d) 11.5 cm
Ans. (c)
33. The angles of a heptagon are in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6:7: 8. The smallest angle is—
(a) 30 °
(b) 22 ½ °
(c) 12°
(d) 24°
Ans. (a)
34. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at E such that AE= 2.4 cm, BE = 3.2 cm and CE = 1.6cm. The length of DE is—
(a) 4.8 cm
(b) 6.4tm
(c) 1.6 cm
(d) 3.2 cm
Ans. (a)
35. An edge of a cube measures 10 cm. If the largest possible cone is cut out of this cube, then the volume of the cone is—
(a) 261.9 cm3
(b) 262.7 cm3
(c) 260 cm3
(d) 260.9 cm3
Ans. (a)
36. Mac has £3 more than Ken, but then Ken wins on the horses and trebles his money, so that he has now £2 more than the Original amount of money that the two boys’ had between them. How much money did Mac and Ken have between them before Ken’s win?
(a) £13
(b) £15
(c) £9
(d) £11
Ans. (a)
37. Each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys in a class of 60 students. If the total contribution thus collected is Rs. 1600, how many boys are there in the class?
(a) 50
(b) Data inadequate
(c) 30
(d) 25
Ans. (b)
38. Kamal got married 6 years ago.
Today her age is 1/10 times her age at the time of marriage. Her son’s age is 1/10 times her age. Her son’s age is—
(a) 4 yrs
(b) 5 yrs
(c) 2 yrs
(d) 3 yrs
Ans. (d)
39. The current birth rate per thousand is 32, whereas corresponding death rate is 11 per thousand. The net growth rate in terms of population in per cent is given by—
(a) 21%
(b) 2:1% .
(c) 0.021%
(d) 0.0021%
Ans. (b)
40. If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log210 is—
(a) 3.3220
(b) 5
(c) 0.3322
(d) 3.2320
Ans. (a)
1. Metro Rail was launched in December 2002 in New Delhi between which two Stations?
(a) Shahadra – Tis Hazari
(b) I.S.B.T -Shahadra
(c) Centra1 Secretariat- I.S.B.T.
(d) Tis Hazari -Central Secretariat
Ans. (a)
2. Which is the Capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli?
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Daman
(d) Silvassa
Ans. (d)
3. Durand Line is the International Boundary between—
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) India and China
(d) U.S.A. and Mexico
Ans. (b)
4. Panchatantra was written by—
(a) Jaidev
(b) Ved Vyas
(c) Bhavbhuti
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (d)
5. The headquarter of North Western Railway zone is—
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jaipur
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
6. J&K leader , Sri Mufti Mohammad Sayeed belongs to which political party?
(a) People’s Democratic Party
(b) Congress
(c) Jammu Kashmir
(d) All Party Hurriyat Conference
Ans. (a)
7. Famous Indian Cartoonist, who died in December, 2002 was—
(a) R.K. Laxman
(b) Pran
(c) Abu Abraham
(d) Sudhir Dar
Ans. (a)
8. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is standing between F and C, A is standing between E and D, F is standing to the left of D. Who is standing between A and F.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Ans. (c)
9. P walks forward 10 m and then walks 10 m right. Again turning to the left and again he walks 5, 15 and 15m respectively.
At present time how far is he standing from his starting place?
(a) 20 m
(b) 23 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 5 m
Ans. (d)
10. Which name will come at last in telephone directory?
(a) Sita
(b) Sikand
(c) Sarveshwar
(d) Shyam
Ans. (a)
11. If in word ‘DISTURBANCE’ first letter is interchanged with last letter, second with tenth and others according to this rule are changed then in new word which 1ette will come after ‘T’?
(a) I
(b) S
(c) U
(d) N
Ans. (b)
12. In .a class of 49 students Ramesh’s rank is 18th. What is his rank from bottom?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 32
Ans. (d)
13. In the numbers from 100 to 1000 how, many times digit ‘1’ comes at tens place?
(a) 9
(b) 900
(c) 10
(d) 90
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 14—16): Six slabs of a cube is coloured as black, brown, red and white and blue that
1. Red is in front of black
2. Green is in between red and black
3. Blue is near to white
4. Brown is near to blue
5. Red is in bottom
Ans. (a)
14. .Which colour is, in front of brown?
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
15. Which colour is in front of green?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Brown
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
16. Which three colours of the following meet on the corner of cube?
(a) Red, Black, Green
(b) Black, White, Blue
(c) White, Green, Red
(d) Brown, White, Blue
Ans. (b)
17. Kailash indicating to an old ‘man told, “His son is my Son’s uncle.” How is Kailash related to that old man?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Son
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
18. If X is the brother of the son of” Y’s son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Nephew
(d) Grandson
Ans. (d)
19. If x means ÷ , means x, ÷ means + and + means —, then value of
(3—15÷l9) x 8+6?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) – 1
Ans. (c)
20. Arrange the fol1owing in a logical order.
(1) Col1eege
(2) Child
(3) Salary
(4) School
(5) Employment
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
21. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the same day next week is a festival. Today is. Sunday. What will be the day just after festival?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 22—26): Find the missing terms.(?) in the series.
22. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127
(a) 30
(c) 47
(b) 31
(d) 52
Ans. (b0
23. 0, ?, 8, 15, 24
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
24. 6, 12, 21,?, 48
(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 33
Ans. (d)
25. 7, 11, 13, 17,?, 23, 25
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 18
Ans. (a)
26. 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, 48?
(a) 58
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 66
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 27—31): Find the odd one:
27. Bear, kola-drink, Soda water, Milk
(a) Bear
(b) Kola-drink
(c) Soda, water
(d) Milk
Ans. (d)
28. Snake, Lizard, Whale fish, Crocodile
(a) Snake
(b) Lizard
(c) Whale
(d) Crocodile
Ans. (b)
29. Ranchi, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bangalore
(a) Ranchi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Nagpur
(d) Bangalore
Ans. (c)
30. 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686
(a) 2346
(b) 5686
(c) 4566
(d) 1236
Ans. (b)
31. Fingers, Palms, Wrist, Knee
(a) Fingers
(b) Palms
(c) Wrist
(d) Knee
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 32—36): Three words have been given in the following questions. First two words to the left : : is related in a way. Find that word from the given alternatives who in relation as same to the right of
32. Carpenter : Saw : Tailor ?
(a) Cloth
(b) Needle
(c) Sewing
(d) Measurement
Ans. (b)
33. Butter : Milk : Book ?
(a) Paper
(c) Printing
(b) Chapter
(d) Writer
Ans. (b)
34. Court : Justice : School :
(a) Teacher
(b) Headmaster
(c) Student
(d) Education
Ans. (d)
35. Laugh : Enjoyment : Weep: ?
(a) Baby
(b) Punishment
(c) Remorse
(d) Grief
Ans. (d)
36. Patrolling : Safety : Insurance:?
(a) Money
(b) Protection
(c) Policy
(d) Finance
Ans. (b)
37. Study the trend in columns and identify the missing (?) number
6 8 15
3 2 5
4 3 ?
8 12 9
(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 3
(d) 6
Ans. (c)
38. If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will he written in that language?
(a) 455978
(b) 544978
(c) 554978
(d) 733961
Ans. (a)
39. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
40. If in a language eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, then With what a child will write n that language?
(a) Eraser
(b) Box
(c) Pencil
(d Sharpener
Ans. (d)
41. If in language finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle, ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, then in that language, what an illiterate man will put to mark his signature?
(a) Thumb
(b Ankle
(c) Knee
(d) Toe
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 42—46): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1. Five friends P, Q, R, . S and T traveled to five different cities
Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
2. The person who traveled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
3. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
4. S traveled by boat whereas T traveled by train.
5. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
42. Which of the following combinations of persons and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) P-Bus
(b) Q-Aeroplane
(c) R-Car
(d T-Boat
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following destinations is correct for ‘S’?
(a) Chennai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following combination place and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) Delhi-Bus
(b) Calcutta-Aeroplane
(c) Hyderabad-Bus
(d) Bangalore-Car
Ans. (a)
45. The person travelling to Delhi went by which transport?
(a) Bus
(b) Train
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Car
Ans. (b)
46. Who travelled to Delhi?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (c)
47. A person travels by his bicycle a distance of 50 km. He travels with the speed of 12.5 km/hr. After every 12.5 km., he takes a rest for 20 minutes. How much time will he take to complete the distance?
(a) 4 hours 20 minutes
(b) 5 hours 20 minutes
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
Ans. (c)
48. A and B walks on a circular path whose circumference is 35 km. They started walking from same place in the same direction with a uniform speed of ‘A’ is 4 km. per hour and speed of ‘B’ is 5 km. per hour. After how much time will they meet again?
(a) 15 hours
(b) 21 hours
(c) 35 hours
(d) 42 hours
Ans. (c)
49. Radius of a wheel is 6.5 m. How many spin will it take to complete the distance of 11 km?
(a) 28000
(b) 7000
(c) 4000
(d) 5500
Ans. (b)
50. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km. per hour?
(a) 7.2
(b) 3.6
(c) 10
(d) 8.4
Ans. (a)
NDA Papers Free Download Sample Paper
1. Ashok started a business investing Rs.25, 000. After three months Vinod joined him with a capital of Rs.30, 000. If at the end of the year they make a profit of Rs. 19000, what will be Ashok’s share in it?
(a) Rs.5, 000
(b) Rs.10, 000
(c) Rs.9, 000
(d) Rs.8, 000
Ans. (b)
2. A boat takes 9 hours to travel a distance upstream and takes 3 hours to travel the same distance downstream. If the speed of the boat is 4 km per hour in still water, what is the velocity of the stream?
(a) 4 km/hour
(b) 3 km/hour
(c) 6 km/hour
(d) None .of these
Ans. (d)
3. Twelve men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (a)
4. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest earned on a. sum of money at the end of the second year at the rate of 4% per annum is Rs.16. What is the principal?
(a) Rs.l0, 000
(b) Rs.16, 000
(c) Rs.20, 000
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. The average monthly salary of 20 employees in an organization is Rs.1500. If the Manager’s salary is added the average monthly salary increases by Rs.l00. What is the Manager’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs.2000
(b) Rs.2400
(c) Rs.3600
(d) Rs.4800
Ans. (c)
6. In a library, 40% books are in English, 40% of the remaining books are in Hindi and the remaining books are in regional languages. If there are 4800 books in Hindi, what is the total number of books in the library.
(a) 12,000
(b) 24,000
(c) 28,000
(d) 20,000
Ans. (d)
7. A circular cylindrical iron’ piece of radius 14 cm and height 20 cm is moulded into a solid cone with the same radius of the base. What is the height of the cone?
(a) 36 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 60 cm
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
8. A person invests money in three different schemes for 6 years, 10 years and 12 years at 10%, 12% and 15% respectively. At the completion of the duration of each scheme, he gets the same amount. What is the ratio of his investments?
(a) 6:3:2
(b) 2:3:4
(c) 3:4:6
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
9. The rectangle has width a and length. If the width is decreased by 20% and the length is increased by 10%, then what is the new area?
(a) 0.88 ab
(b) 0.92 ab
(c) l. 1 ab
(d) 1.04ab
Ans. (a)
10. A shopkeeper gives 12% additional discount after giving an initial discount of 20% on the labelled price of a radio. If the sale price of the radio is Rs 704, what is the labelled price of the radio?
(a) Rs.844.80
(b) Rs.929.28
(c) Rs.1044.80
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
11. The cost of fencing around a. rectangular garden at Rs.5 per meter is Rs.2506.32. if the length of the garden is one and a half times its breadth, approximately, what will be the breadth of the garden?
(a) 100 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 250 m
Ans. (a)
12. The ratio of my spending to saving is 3: 4. By what percentage must my spending rise for the ratio to become 4 : 3?
(a) 25
(b) 35.55
(c) 26:66
(d) 33.33
Ans. (d)
13. The sum of the ages of A and B at present is 7 times the difference in their ages after 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 9 times the difference in their ages. The present age of the elder of the two therefore is—
(a) 10 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 35 years
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
14. A train takes 3 hours to run froth one station to another. If it reduces its speed by 12 km/hour, it takes 45 minutes more for the journey. The distance between the stations is—
(a) 220 km
(b) 210 km
(c) 180 km
(d) 160 km
Ans. (c)
15. One side of a right angled triangle is 126 cm. The difference between the hypotenuse and the other side is 42 cm. The length of the hypotenuse is—
(a) 168 cm
(c) 210 cm
(b) 189 cm
(d) 378 cm
Ans. (c)
16. The radius of a circle is increased by 100%. What will be the percentage increase in its area?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (d)
17. Metals are heated by—
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Radiation and Convection
Ans. (a)
18. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring humidity of air?
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Episometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Ans. (c)
19 The temperature at which water possesses maximum density is—
(a) 0°C
(b) 4°C
(c) — 4°C
(d) 0°F
Ans. (b)
20. If a horse starts suddenly, the rider may fall due to—
(a) moment of inertia
(b) law of conservation of mass
(c) inertia of rest
(d) third law of motion
Ans. (c)
21. A place of iron does not float on water because—
(a) the mass of water displaced is less than that of iron
(b) the mass of water displaced is more than that of iron
(c) the mass of water displaced is equal to that of iron
(d) it displaces no water
Ans. (a)
22. Which type of mirror is used by dentists to concentrate light on the tooth to be examined?
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Plane
(d) Planeoconvex
Ans. (b)
23. Brass is an alloy whereas air is a
(a) gas
(b) mixture
(c) compound
(d) solution
Ans. (b)
24. If a man weight 600 N on the earth, then his weight on the. moon will approximately be—
(a) 6000 N
(b) 60 N
(c) 1000 N
(d) l00 N
Ans. (d)
25. The apparent depth of a quantity of a liquid in a vessel is 15 cm. If it’s real depth is 20 cm, then the refractive index of the liquid
(a) 0.75
(c) 300
(b) 21.33
(d) 1.33
Ans. (d)
26. The inner back surface of the eye is called—
(a) Pupil
(b) Retina
(c) Choroid
(d) Cornea
Ans. (c)
27. At hills, water boils at a temperature of—
(a) Less than 100°C
(b) More than 100°C
(c) 100°C
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
28. Boyle’s Law is applicable at—
(a) Constant pressure
(b) Constant temperature
(c) Constant pressure and temperature
(d) Constant pressure but variable temperature
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following properties a fuse wire for normal electrical appliances should have?
(i) Thick wire
(ii) Thin wire
(iii) Low melting point alloy
(iv) High melting point alloy
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
30. Three bulbs with power ratings of 40W, 70W and 100W are connected in series to a 200 V mains. The energy consumption will be—
(a) highest for 100 W bulb
(b) highest for 60 W bulb
(c) highest for 40 W bulb
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
31. A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to—
(a) viscosity
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) small weight
(d) surface tension
Ans. (d)
32. Which of the following instruments converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
(a) Transformer
(b) Motor
(c) Electrometer
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
33. Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water from 30°C to 80°C is—
(a) 1 kilo — calories
(b) 30 kilo — a1ories
(c) 80 kilo — calories
(d) 50 kilo — calories
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Blood is acidic
(b) Bile juice is secreted by liver
(c) Gastric juice contains HCI
(d) Bile juice is alkaline
Ans. (a)
35. Fish breathes with the help of—
(a) lungs
(b) skin
(c) gills
(d) fins
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
(a) Small pox
(b) Dysentery
(c) Influenza
(d) Cholera
Ans. (d)
37. Which of the following is NOT a function of kidneys?
(a) Regulation of blood pressure
(b) Secretion of antibiotics
(c) Removal of urine
(d) Regulation of acidity of body fluids
Ans. (b)
38. An electron carries—
(a) a unit negative charge
(b) a unit positive charge
(c) two units of negative charge
(d) two units of positive charge
Ans. (b)
39. Corborandum is used as—
(a) a fertilizer
(b) a paint
(c) a medicine
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) An acid must contain at least one hydrogen atom
(b) Some acids contain more than 20 hydrogen atoms
(c) The number of replaceable hydrogen atoms of an acid is called its basicity
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
41. Why dry sand looks bright while
wet sand appears dark?
(a) It. is optical illusion
(b) It is due to reflection
(c) It is due to refraction
(d) It is due to transmission
Ans. (b)
42. Solar eclipse is formed when—
(a) The sun comes in between the earth and the moon
(b) The moon comes in between. the sun and the earth
(c) The earth comes in between the sun and the moon
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
43. The most harmful radiations for man are—
(a) alpha rays
(b) beta rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) ultraviolet rays
Ans. (d)
44. Which of the following planets has its orbit closest to that of earth?
(a) Saturn
(b) Mercury
(c) Jupiter
(d) Venus
Ans. (d)
45. Why does a cricket player catches the speeding ball by gradually pulling his arms back with the ball?
(a) The ball may come to rest
(b) The ball may continue to accelerate
(c) He may need to apply less force
(d) He may get time to apply more force
Ans. (d)
46. There are four gas jars containing O2, C02, H2 and N2 respectively.
Which of the following tests would identify the four gases?
(a) Inserting burning splinters into the jars
(b) inserting a piece of burning magnesium
(c) Passing the gas through lime water
(d) Dissolving the gas in water
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 47—50): Read the following information and answer these questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and U are employees in a factory. There are two engineers, one lawyer, one doctor, one salesman, and one accountant. P is the brother of U who is a salesman. R’s sister is a lawyer and married to Q who is a doctor. No lady is engineer. S is the lady accountant in that group. There are two ladies in the group and one of them is T.
47. Who is the lawyer?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) R
(d) Q
Ans. (b)
48. What is R’s profession?
(a) Lawyer
(b) Salesman
(c) Engineer
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (c)
49. Who is Q’s wife?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (c)
50. Who is T’s brother?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) U
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Solved verbal Reasoning Questions For LIC GIC oriental insurance job recruitment exams
Verbal reasoning tests of intelligence for insurance jobs
Reasoning model quiz for LIC vacancies
LIC JOBS EXAM PRACTICE TEST
Directions (1—5): What will be the next term- in each of the following number series?
1. 95, 90, 80 65?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 45
(d) 55
Ans. (c)
2. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25?
(a) 36
(b) 60
(c) 42
(d) 49
Ans. (a)
3. 4, 9, 20, 43?
(a) 133
(b) 90
(c) 96
(d) 86
Ans. (b)
4. 6, 7, 9, 13, 21?
(a) 25
(b) 32
(c) 29
(d) 37
Ans. (d)
5. AZ, CX, EV?
(a) HR
(b) GT
(c) GS
(d) BT
Ans. (b)
6. In a certain code language TRAINS is written as RTIASN.
How will PISTOL be written in that code language?
(a) IPTSLO
(b) IPSTLO
(c) SIPTOL
(d) SITLOP
Ans. (a)
7. In a certain code language FEED is written as 6554. How will BREAD be written in that code language?
(a) 284115
(b) 218514
(c) 339574
(d) 39524
Ans. (b)
8. In a certain code language RPQWF is written as STEAM and RGZQ is written as MORE. How will FQPZQ be written in that code 1anguage?
(a) TEAMS
(b) MEETS
(c) METRE
(d) METER
Ans. (c)
9. Select the quality common to the three given words—
Rockies: Appalachian: Andes
(a) peaks
(b) hills
(c) ranges
(d) slopes
Ans. (c)
10. Select the pair of numbers having a relation similar to the given pair—
8: 256
(a) 10: 500
(b) 5: 75
(c) 7: 343
(d) 9: 243
Ans. (d)
11. Select the odd man out—
(a) LMVOX
(b) FSYLD
(c) VYAKB
(d) MIGHZ
Ans. (b)
12. Select the odd one out—
(a) UPKFA
(b) OMIDB
(c) VTOJE
(d) USNID
Ans. (a)
13. Fill in the blanks— 2, 5, 9, (….), 20, 27
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 14
(d) 16
Ans. (c)
14. Find the wrong terms in the series.
1, 3, 7, 15, 27, 63, 127
(a) 27
(b) 63
(c) 7
(d) 15
Ans. (a)
15. If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can EHARATHI be coded?
(a) 96575368
(b) 96855368
(c) 37536689
(d) 57686535
Ans. (a)
16. If in a certain language, ok a peru’ means ‘fine cloth’, metal lisa means ‘clean water’ and ‘dona lisa peru’ means ‘fine clear weather’ which word in that language means ‘weather’?
(a) meta
(b) dona
(c) peru
(d) oka
Ans. (b)
17. Arun said, ‘This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mothers.
Who is Arun to the girl?
(a) Husband
(b) Father-in-law
(c) Father
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (b)
18. Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was ranked higher than Dinesh. Kamal’s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was ranked highest?
(a) Dinesh
(b) Kamal
(c) Sanjay
(d) Vikas
Ans. (c)
19. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically fol1o’ prom the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : : Conclusions
All apples are oranges. I. Some apples are papayas.
Some oranges are papayas. II. Some papayas are apples.
Give answer—
(a) if neither I nor II follows
(b) if both I and II follow
(c) if only conclusion I follows
(d) if only conclusion II follows
Ans. (a)
20. Choose the action that certifies the reality of the following statement—
This morning, when we went exactly towards the south on the left side, on top of a mountain, the sun shows like a golden ball.
(a) always
(b) sometimes
(c) never
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
21. Which among the following options is similar to the group AZ, EV, GT, DW?
(a) WZ
(b) UD
(c) HS
(d) BW
Ans. (c)
22. Complete the series— 2 A 9 B, 6, C, 13, D…..
(a) 12
(b) 19
(c) 10
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
23. If’ P+Q means P is father of Q, P x Q, means P is brother of Q, P – Q means, P is mother of Q then which of the following is true for C – A + B?
(a) C is mother of B
(b) B is father of A
(c) A is son of C
(d) B is son of A
Ans. (c)
24. In the word PROJECTION 3rd, 5th, 7th, and 10th letters together can make a meaningful word. Write the third 1etter of that word. If it is not possible to
make a meaningful word then give the answer as X and if it is possible to make more than one word then give the answer as M.
(a) T
(b) N
(c) M
(d) X
Ans. (c)
25. As ‘pushing’ is related to ‘carrying’ in the same way ‘throwing’ is related to—
(a) standing
(b) distance
(c) jumping
(d) gathering
Reasoning solved question paper for SSC jobs
1. Choose the number set similar to the number set (5, 6, and 22)
A. (4, 8, 2)
B. (3, 8, 26)
C. (8, 9, 34)
D. (7, 9, 48)
Ans. (C)
2. Choose the odd one out:
A. Goat
B. Dog
C. Hare
D. Cow
Ans. (B)
3. Choose the odd one out:
A. Chair
B. Table
C. Bench
D. Stool
Ans. (B)
4. Which of the following words can’t be formed by the letters of the word CARPENTER?
A. Car
B. Painter
C. Carpet
D. Repent
Ans. (B)
5. Find the missing term 17, 2, 34, 3, 102, 4, (….)
A. 204
B. 408
C. 256
D. 456
Ans. (B)
Directions (Qs. 6 to 8): Find the odd one out.
6. A. Geography
B. Physics
C. Chemistry
D. Zoology
Ans. (A)
7. A. Kuruksheträ
B. Haldighati
C. Sarnath
D. Panipat
Ans. (C)
8. A. March
B. December
C. July
D. September
Ans. (D)
Directions (Q. 9—11): In the given series which one number wrong. Find out that wrong number
9. 6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 37
(d) 40
Ans. (d)
10. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 24
(d) 384
Ans. (c)
11. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(a) 165
(b) 153
(c) 142
(d) 130
Ans. (a)
12. At quarter to three, the minute hand of a clock is in South-East direction. The hour hand will be in which direction?
(a) North – West
(b) South – East
(c) South – West
(d) North-East
Ans. (a)
13. If HINDU is coded as 61257, and MAN is 924, INDIRA will be coded as:
(a) 454626
(b) 594921
(c) 452787
(d) 884572
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 14—18): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on them
(i) Six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T and U are Psychologist, Manager, Advocate, Jeweler, Doctor and Engineer but not in the same order.
(ii) Doctor is the grand father of U, a Psychologist.
(iii) Manager S is married to P
(iv) R, who is a Jeweler, is married to Advocate
(v) Q is the mother of T and U
(vi) There are married couples in the family.
14. How is P related to T?
(a) Father
(b) Grandmother
(c) Wife
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (d)
15. Who are two couples in the family?
(a) PS and RQ
(b) PQ and RS
(c) PU and ST
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
16. What is the profession of P?
(a) Manager’
(b) Doctor
(c) Advocate
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
17. What is the profession of T?
(a) Manager
(b) Psychologist
(c) Engineer
(d) Doctor
Ans. (c)
18. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (d)
19. If DOME is coded as 2541, SHOP as 8956 and WORK as 3570, then SMOKE shall be coded as:
(a) 85401
(b) 83075
(c) 84051
(d) 84501
Ans. (d)
Directions (20-24): Study the following sequence of numbers and answer the questions based an it:
896739378399563969398
20. How many 9’s are there which are preceded by 3 but not immediately followed by 9 in the above set of numbers?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
Ans. (D)
21. Which digit has least frequency in the above set of numbers?
A.8
B.9
C.5
D.6
Ans. (C)
22. Which digit has the highest frequency leaving digit 9 in the above set of numbers?
A.8
B.7
C.5
D.3
Ans. (D)
23. There are pairs of adjoining figures which add upto 12. How many such pairs are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Ans. (D)
24. How many 3’s are there not proceeded by 9 but immediately followed by 9?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 5
Ans. (B)
Directions (25-28): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on them.
Some friends are sitting on a bench; Sunil is sitting next to Sunita and Sanjay is next to Bindu. Bindu is not sitting with Sumit. Sumit is on the left end of the bench and Sanjay is on second position from right hand side. Sunil is on the right side of Sunita and also to the right side of Sumit. Sunil and Sanjay are sitting together.
25. Sunil is sitting between:
A. Sunita and Bindu
B. Sumit and Bindu
C. Sunita and Sanjay
D. Sanjay and Sumit
Ans. (C)
26. Who is sitting in the center?
A. Sunil
B. Bindu
C. Sanjay
D. Sunita
Ans. (A)
27. Sanjay is sitting between:
A. Bindu and Sunita
B. Sunil and Sumit
C. Sumit and Bindu
D. Sunil and Bindu
Ans. (D)
28. Bindu is sitting on the:
A. extreme left side
B. extreme right side
C. second from left side
D. third from left side
Ans. (B)
29. If ‘MODERN’ and ‘ORTHO DOX’ are coded as’ YOUNGS’ and ‘OGBAOUOM’ ‘respectively, how will ‘REMOTE’ is coded in the same code?
A. GNOYBN
B. NOYM
C. GYNONB
D. GNYOBN
Ans. (D)
30. In a certain code language SOCIAL is written as TQFMFR.
How will Dock be written in that code language?
(a) EQFN
(b) EPDL
(c) FQFN
(d) EQFO
Ans. (d)
General Knowledge Solved Model Paper
Solved Paper Of General Awareness
GK – Solved Question Paper
Solved Paper – GK Series
1. ‘Gun metal’ is a mixture of metals—
(a) Cu, Sn and Zn
(b) Cu, Fe, and Mg
(c) Fe, Al and Mn
(d) Ar, Fe and Mg
Ans. (a)
2. ‘Candilla’ is unit of—
(a) Light flux
(b) Light effect
(c) Light bar
(d) Light intensity
Ans. (d)
3. What is the percentage of Nitrogen in atmosphere?
(a) 21 %
(b) 70 %
(c) 71 %
(d) 78 %
Ans. (d)
4. Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. If pressure is increased, to double, then what will be speed of sound?
(a) 332 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c) 166 m/s
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. If 1ength of simple pendulum is increased by 4% then its periodic time—
(a) increases by 8 %
(b) increases by 2 %
(c) increases by 4 %
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. Polarization in incident light proves that light waves are—
(a) interfering
(b) longitudinal
(c) transverse
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
7. Smoke which comes out from chimney has in it present minimum mass of ashes—
(a) through electrical absorption
(b) by passing smoke through chimney
(c) by passing smoke through water
(d) through chemical substances
Ans. (a)
8. ‘Lichen’ is a type of dual plant, which is an example of commensalism by two different groups of plants, in which the two groups of plants are—
(a) fungus and moss
(b) fungus and bacteria
(c) algae and fungus
(d) algae and moss
Ans. (c)
9. During photosynthesis oxygen is obtained from where?
(a) From CO2
(b) From H20
(c) From both
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
10. ‘Cinnamon’ is -gathered from which part of the tree?
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Bark
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following plants is ‘xerophyte’?
(a) Mustard
(b) Amarbel
(c) Kareel
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
12. Short sighted persons use the spectacle of —
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
13. What will be minimum length of the mirror to show total reflection of a 1.5 long person?
(a) 3 meter
(b) 5 meter
(c) 0.75 meter
(d) 4 meter
Ans. (c)
14. Vaccine of MMR is given for—
(a) small-pox, mumps, rabies
(b) measles, mumps, aids
(c) mumps, measles, rabies
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
15. Maximum Iron is found in which of the following?
(a) Banana
(b) Apple
(c) Milk
(d) Green leaf vegetables
Ans. (d)
16. In which of the following is Protein not found?
(a) Meat
(b) Milk
(c) Rice
(d) Pulse
Ans. (c)
17. If you have an M.Sc degree in Biotechnology, then what will you do?
(a) Heart transplantation
(b) Plastic surgery
(c) Produce potato-onion
(d) Will have knowledge based on computers
Ans. (c)
18. In isotope atoms—
(a) number of protons is equal
(b) number of neutrons is equal
(c) number of nucleons is equal
(d) all of these are true
Ans. (a)
19. To increase 25% velocity of kinetic energy what will be the effect on Kinetic energy?
(a) Increase by 56.25%
(b) Increase by 156.25%
(c) Decrease by 56.25%
(d) Decrease by 156.25%
Ans. (a)
20. What is ‘Telescope’?
(a) To see long distance object
(b) To see near distance object
(c) To measure depth of the water
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. If 10 bulbs of 100W burn 1 hour per day, then what will be the consumption of electric energy?
(a) I unit
(b) 100 kWh
(c) 10 unit
(d) 10 kWh
Ans. (a)
22. Which is the most ductile amongst Au, Ag, Cu and Fe?
(a) Au
(b) Ag
(c) Cu
(d) Pc
Ans. (a)
23. What crop is cultivated in mountain region of Nilgiri?
(a) Tea
(b) Rubber
(c) Coffee
(d) Cardamom
Ans. (c)
24. Hardness of water is due to presence of which of the following?
(a) Magnesium Bicarbonate
(b) Bleaching powder
(c) Sodium
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
25. Which is wrong about hard water?
(a) Doesn’t make foam
(b) Use maximum soap
(c) Magnesium Bicarbonate is present
(d) Iron Pyrites are present
Ans. (d)
26. Which organ is affected by “Diphtheria’ disease?
(a) Neck
(b) Eye
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas
Ans. (a)
27. When any bubble of air comes to surface of the lake, then—
(a) it widens like cloth
(b) it increases in size
(c) it decreases in size
(d) its size as same stay
Ans. (b)
28. Which of the words will come at the first place?
(a) Concentration
(b) Concentre
(c) Concentrative
(d) Concentrated
Ans. (d)
29. Who discovered ‘Positron’?
(a) Rutherford
(b) J. J. Thomson
(c) Chadwick
(d) Anderson
Ans. (d)
30. Atomic weight of heavy water is -
(a) 20
(c) 40
(b) 18
(d) 34
Ans. (a)
31. Insulin is found in—
(a) tuber of potato
(b) rhizome of ginger
(c) in the root of dahlia
(d) bulb of onion
Ans. (c)
32. Vitamin ‘C’ is—
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid
Ans. (b)
Objective GK General Knowledge Current Affairs
1. Where is Humayun tomb located?
(a) In Delhi
(b) In Agra
(c) In Kabul
(d) In Sikandara
Ans. (a)
2. Who among the following was given ‘Jari Kalam’?
(a) Mohammed Hussain
(b) Mukammal Khan
(c) Abdussmad
(d) Mir Syed Ali
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is not found in space?
(a) Pulsar
(b) Crystal Star
(c) Black Hole
(d) Quasar
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following is important for the growth, development and reformation of body tissues?
(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
5. Which crop has the largest interval between sowing and reaping it?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Maize
Ans. (c)
6. All living objects consume oxygen for their respiration. Oxygen is replenished by plants during—
(a) evening
(b) night
(c) morning
(d) day time
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following is not immunized by ‘triple antigen’?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Tetanus
(d) Whooping cough
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following vitamins is soluble in water?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin E
Ans. (c)
9. The chemical name of laughing gas is—
(a) nitrogen dioxide
(b) nitrogen oxide
(c) nitrogen pentaoxide
(d) nitrous oxide
Ans. (d)
10. Pulkeshin II, the Chalukya ruler, defeated Harsha Vardhana on the bank of river—
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Tapti
(c) Narmada
(d) Godavari
Ans. (c)
11. Guru Arjun Dev was the contemporary of—
(a) Babur
(b) Jehangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Akbar
Ans. (b)
12. Idols in Ajanta Caves depict
(a) Lord Shiva in different pose
(b) Lord Buddha and his life history
(c) Lord Mahavira
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
13. When a copper ball is heated its density—
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. Match the following—
A. Lemons 1. Alginic acid
B. Seaweeds 2. Acetic Acid
C. Grapes 3. Tartaric acid
D. Vinegar 4. Citric acid
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (b)
15. Goutamiputra Satkarni was the King of?
(a) Sunga
(b) Kushan
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) Satwahan
Ans. (d)
16. For going from Zaire to Netherlands which of the following climatic region’s series is correct?
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Tropical desert climate
(d) Western European climate
Ans. (a)
17. Goitre disease is related to –
(a) ear
(c) neck
(b) eye
(d) mouth
Ans. (c)
18. Lumen is unit of—
(a) light wall
(b) wavelength
(c) light flux
(d) none of. these
Ans. (c)
19. When train reaches the station, then it sounds different from its original sound frequency. Why?
(a) Reflection
(b) Doppler’s effect
(c) Refraction
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20 Which is called ‘Suicidal bag’?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosome
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Purity of Gamete rule was propounded by-
(a ) Darwin
(b) Mendel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Mendleleef
Ans. (b)
22. Which is called ‘blood bank’?
(á) Spleen
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
23. In the sunlight, which colour has maximum scattering?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) Violet
Ans. (d)
24. Meaning of Hypermetropia is—
(a) short-sightedness
(b) long-sightedness
(c) astigmatism
(d) pressbyopia
Ans. (b)
25. First Indian to go into space is—
(a) Yuri Gagrin
(b) Santosh Yadav
(c) Rakesh Sharma
(d) Kalpana Chawla
Ans. (c)
26. Washing Soda is—
(a) sodium bicarbonate
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) bleaching powder
Ans. (c)
27. Which liquid is used in manufacturing dynamite?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Olic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Malic acid
Ans. (a)
28. ‘Cerebrum’ is related to—
(a) liver
(b) heart
(c) brain
(d) vein
Ans. (c)
29. The atoms in which atomic number is equal but atomic mass is different is called—
(a) isobars
(b) isotones
(c) isotopes
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
30. Which is used in bleaching and manufacturing of food?
(a) Caramel
(b) Carnalite
(c) Brazing
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
31. Epidermic disease is related to —
(a) neck
(b) ear
(c) skin
(d) nose
Ans. (c)
32. Which is used in binary System?
(a) 0 and 9
(b) 0 and 1
(c) 1 and 9
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (b)
33. Mahabaleshwar is situated in-
(a) Gujarat
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Himachal. Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b)
34. Temple of Ayappa is situated in -
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
35. Meaning of ‘A red letter day’ is—
(a) red day
(b) an important day
(c) correspondence day
(d) black day
Ans. (b)
36. Which river was important in building Punjab?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Vyas
(c) Jhelam
(d) Indus
Ans. (d)
37. ‘Ophthalmic’ is related to—
(a) nose
(b) mouth
(c) tongue
(d) eye
Ans. (d)
38. Zinedin-Zidane is related to which country?
(a) Germany
(b) Brazil
(c) France
(d) Italy
Ans. (c)
39. ‘Dyslexia’ is related to—
(a) problem of reading odd letters
(b) heart
(c) a disease in children
(d) old person’s disease
Ans. (a)
40. Indian Standard Time line passes through which town?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Kolkata
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Allahabad
Ans. (d)
41. Where is headquarter of ‘Forest Research Centre’ situated?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Shimla
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Dehradun
Ans. (d)
42. Golconda is situated at -
(a) Bijapur
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Mysore
(d) Chennai
Ans. (b)
43. Open Museum of ‘Hampi’ is in which state?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
44. The International Court of Justice holds its session at its headquarters in—
(a) Lake Success
(b) Amsterdam
(c) Hague
(d) Paris
Ans. (c)
45. Where is ‘Bhabha Atomic Research Centre’ situated?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
46. What is the percentage of Indians dependent on agriculture in the present age?
(a) 90 %
(b) 70 %
(c) 65 %
(d) 80 %
Ans. (b)
47. India wants to achieve what per cent of Gross Domestic Product?
(a) 5%—6%
(b) 7% — 8%
(c) 13% 15%
(d) 9% — 10%
Ans. (b)
48. Which of these gases is used to fill the tyre of aeroplane?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Neon
Ans. (b)
49. Ratio of acids in ‘Aquaregia’ is —
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:1
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following is a water borne disease?
(a) Malaria
(b) T.B
(c) Plague
(d) Typhoid
Ans. (d)
Model Paper General Awareness STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
1. M. F. Hussain is a famous—
(a) painter
(b) singer
(c) musician
(d) politician
Ans. (a)
2. The battlefield of Plassey is Situated in——
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (b)
3. Who introduced ‘Permanent Settlement’ in Bengal?
(a) Lord Bentick
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Hastings
Ans. (c)
4. E C G is used for the diagnosis of ailment of the—
(a) brain
(b) kidneys
(c) heart
(d) lungs
Ans. (c)
5. The shortest bone in the human body is—
(a) vertebrate
(b) phalanges
(c) stapes
(d) metacarpals
Ans. (c)
6. Night blindness is caused by the lack of which vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin D
Ans. (a)
7. ‘National Police Academy is situated in—
(a) Bangalore
(b) Dehradun
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Delhi
Ans. (c)
8. The period of tenth five—year plan was
(a) 200l — 2006
(b) 2002 — 2007
(c) 2000 — 2005
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
9. The first Indian lady to be miss world ?
(a) Susmita Sen
(b) Aishwarya Rai
(c) Reita Faria
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
10. Koyana project is situated in—
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (b)
11. Red Blood formed in—
(a) spleen
(b) liver
(c) bone
(d) marrow
Ans. (d)
12. The normal temperature of human body is—
(a) 96.8° F
(b) 97.8° F
(c) 98.6°F
(d) 99.7°F
Ans. (c)
13. Hirakud Dam has been built on the river—
(a) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (d)
14. The paintings of Ajanta depicts….
(a) Ramayana
(b) Jatakas
(c) Mahabharata
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15.The longest irrigation canal in the world is?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Suez canal
(c) Sarhind Canal
(d) Panama Canal
Ans. (a)
16. Main part of national income of India is gained from
(a) Sales tax
(b) Income tax
(c) Agriculture
(d) Projunction tax
Ans. (a)
17. Which is India’s best natural port?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradeep
(c) Mangalore
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
18. Charminar is in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Gulbarga
(d) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution ensures freedom of press in India?
(a) Art. 356
(b) Art. 19
(c) Art. 327
(d) Art. 22
Ans. (b)
20. From which dynasty, Raja Bhoj was related?
(a) Parmar
(b) Tuluva
(c) Karkota
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. The Great Bath was found at—
(a) Harappa
(b) Ropar
(c) Mohenjodaro
(d) Lothal
Ans. (c)
22. The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statements : Arguments
Should India stop missile I. Yes. The U.S.A desires so.
developments? II. No. The nation must always remain up-to-date in its
defense preparedness.
Give answer—
(a) if neither I nor II is strong
(b) if both I and II are strong
(ç) if only argument I is strong
(d) if only argument II is strong
Ans. (d)
23. Observatory was not made by king of Jaipur Sawai Jai Singh at—
(a) Delhi
(b) Ujjain
(c) Kolkata
(d) Jaipur
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is an Anti-tank Missile?
(a) Prithvi
(b) Trishul
(c) Nag
(d) Agni
Ans. (c)
25. Almati Dam is being constructed on which river and state?
(a) Krishna — Karnataka
(b) Godavari — Mahrasli4ra
(c) Yamuna — Uttar Pradesh
(d) Cauvery — Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
26. Present Vice President of India, belongs to which state?
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(a) Kerala
Ans. (c)
27. Acupuncture is—
(a) servicing of tubes and tyres
(b) a treatment method with needle
(c) a crop culture
(d) a disease of heart
Ans. (b)
28. The abbreviation UND? stands for—
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) United Nations Democratic Press
(c) Union of North Developing Province
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
29. An economy in which the public sector exists side by side with the private sector is called—
(a) socialism
(b) capitalism
(c) mixed economy
(a) planned economy
Ans. (c)
30. Iron Pillar situated near Qutub Minar was constructed by—
(a) Chandra Gupta II
(b) Harsha
(c) Ram Gupta
(d) Samudra Gupta.
Ans. (a)
31. Human’s ear can comfortably bear decibel of sound
(a) 118
(b) 125
(c) 120
(d) 130
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following in cleans environment with its maximum polluter?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c)t Rain
(a) Air
Ans. (c)
33. Mess of an atom is expressed in—
(a) ki1ogram
(b) gram
(c) a.m.u.
(a) Carat
Ans. (c)
34. The average density of the earth in gm/cc is—
(a) 4.3
(c) 2.1
(b) 5.5
(a) 3.2
Ans. (b)
35. Which among the following is the main constituent of L.P.G. gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Butane
(d) Propane
Ans. (c)
36. Seismography is related to—
(a) earthquake
(b) humidity
(c) speed of wind
(d) temperature
Ans. (a)
37. Which of the following metals can be easily drawn into the wire?
(a) Tin
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Ans. (b)
38. Which of the following is called strategic metal?’
(a) Si1icon
(b) Titanium
(c) Germanium
(d) Uranium .
Ans. (d)
39. What kind of energy is stored in a dry cell?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Electrical
(c) Chemical
(d) Heat
Ans. (c)
40. Petroleum is found in—
(a) igneous rocks
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
41. Which element is essential for the functioning of thyroid gland?
(a) Sodium
(c) Iodine
(b) Potassium
(d) Calcium
Ans. (c)
42. Who is the author of the book “Wings of Fire”?
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Narsimha Rao
(c) R.K. Narayan
(d) V.S.Naipaul
Ans. (a)
43. The largest producer of sugar in the worlds is—
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Mexico
(d) Cuba
Ans. (a)
44. The motion of the Earth in it orbit is—
(a) from west to east
(b) from north to south
(c) from east to west
(d) from south to north
Ans. (a)
45. Deficiency of insulin causes—
(a) beriberi
(b) diabetes
(c) cancer
(d) anaemia
Ans. (b)
46. Energy generated by food is measured in which unit?
(a) Calorie
(b) Kelvin
(c) Joule
(d) Erg
Ans. (a)
47. The movement of earth on its imaginary axis is called—
(a) revolution
(b) orbit
(c) rotation
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
48. Circular shaped, satellite to be launched first by USSR was—
(a) Sputnik
(b) Rohini
(c) Apollo
(d) SLV-3
Ans. (a)
49. India’s first satellite Aryabhatta was launched in which year?
(a) 1965
(b) 1947
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following is most important in the digestion of food in the stomach?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Enzyme
(d) Mineral
Ans. (c)
Online Practice Test GK for ITBP exams general Knowledge
1. Doldrums is area of—
(a) low temperature
(b) low rainfall
(c) low pressure
(d) low humidity
Ans. (c)
2. The headquarters of SAARC is in—
(a) Colombo
(b) Dhaka
(c) New Delhi
(d) Katmandu
Ans. (d)
3. Who invented the ‘Gobar gas plant?
(a). C. B. Desai
(b) Robert Wilhelm
(c) C. B. Pascau
(d) Gigar
Ans. (a)
4. Dry ice is—
(a) Solid Carbon Dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Chlorine
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following is surrounded by river Narmada and Tapti?
(a) Vindhya mountains
(b) Satpura mountains
(c) Rajmahal mountains
(d) Aravali mountains
Ans. (b)
6. The largest lake in India is—
(a) Dal lake
(b) Pushkar lake
(c) Wular lake
(d) Chilka lake
Ans. (c)
7. Garba is a folk dance of—
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
8. Mahendra Singh Dhoni is related to—
(a) Football
(b) Hockey
(c) Cricket
(d) Baseball
Ans. (c)
9. World population day is celebrated on—
(a) 10 December
(b) 11 July
(c) 11 May
(d) 11 October
Ans. (b)
10. Which among the following minerals is found in Khetri?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following is not an original particle?
(a) Electron
(b) Neutron
(c) Proton
(d) Deutron
Ans. (d)
12. Mac-Mohan line demarcates—
(a) India and China
(b) India and Afghanistan
(c) India and Nepal
(d) India and Bhutan
Ans. (a)
13. Kathak is a dance style of—
(a) North India
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
14. ‘Scurvy’ is caused due to the deficiency of…..
(a). vitamin A
(b) vitamin C
(c) vitamin B
(d) vitamin D
Ans. (b)
15. Where is the oldest oil refinery of India located?
(a) Haldia
(b) Barauni
(c) Digboi
(d) Cochin
Ans. (c)
16. Akbar’s maiso1eum is situated at—
(a) Agra
(b) Sikandara
(c) Delhi
(d) Sasaram
Ans. (b)
17. Members of Rajya Sabha have a term of—
(a) four years
(b) seven years
(c) five years
(d) six years
Ans. (d)
18. Who founded the Servants of India Society?
(a) J. P. Narayan
(b) O. K. Gokhale
(c) Lajpat Rai
(d) Annie Besant
Ans. (b)
19. Who controls the cabinet secretariat?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice—President
(c) The Prime. Minister
(d) The Parliament
Ans. (c)
20. Who is ex—officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice — President of India
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Leader of Opposition.
Ans. (b)
21. The Vijaya Nagar empire owes its origin to—
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Harihar and Bukka
(d) Raja Raja Chola
Ans. (c)
22. Article 356 Of the constitution of India provides for—
(a) reservation of jobs for backward classes
(b) protection of religious monuments
(c) a special status for Jammu & Kashmir
(d) imposition of president’s rule in a state
Ans. (d)
23. The ‘Sea of Tranquility’ is located in—
(a) South — East Africa
(b) on the West Coast of Russia
(c) on the Moon
(d) on the West Coast of India
Ans. (c)
24. Rh factor is a term that we hear in connection with—
(a) space travel
(b) air pressure
(c) blood transfusion
(d) blood pressure
Ans. (c)
25. The U. N. Day is observed on—
(a) 24th October
(b) 24th July
(c) 24th November
(d) 24th August
Ans. (a)
26. The time difference between I.S.T. and GMT is—
(a) 5 ½ hours
(b) 6 ½ hours
(c) 8 ½ hours
(d) 7 ½ hours
Ans. (a)
27. What are drugs used for relieving pain called?
A. Tranquilizer
B. Antipyretics
C. Analgesics
D. Smallpox
Ans. (C)
28. Suez navigation canal links up Mediterranean sea with—
(a) Atlantic Ocean.
(b) North Sea
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) Red Sea
Ans. (d)
29. Symbol of sodium is—
(a) S
(b) So
(c) Na
(d) K
Ans. (c)
30. Alberuni was a historian during the period of—
(a) Muhammad Ghazni
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Balban
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
31. The fourth Buddhist council was held during the reign of—
(a) Ashoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Harsha
Ans. (b)
32. Who was the first president of Indian National Congress?
(a) A. O. Hume
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) W. C. Bannerjee
(d) B. G. Tilak
Ans. (c)
33. Chalukya ruler Pulkeshin II, defeated—
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Dharampala
Ans. (b)
34. international date line passes through—
(a) 0° Greenwich
(b) 90° Greenwich
(c) 180° Greenwich
(d) 270° Greenwich
Ans. (c)
35. Rabindra Nath Tagore renounced the Knighthood in 1919 as a protest against—
(a) Mob violence that took place
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(c) Racial violence between Hindus and Muslims
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
36. The image formed on the retina of the eye is—
(a) real and inverted
(b) upright and real
(c) virtual and upright
(d) enlarged and real
Ans. (a)
37. Which of the following passes through India?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of cancer
(c) Equator
(d) 0° longitude
Ans. (b)
38. Device used to rectify far sightedness is—
(a) concave lens
(b) spherical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) plane glass
Ans. (c)
39. Chandigarh was designed by—
(a) Edward Lutyens
(b) Wren
(c) Michelangelo
(d) Le Corbusier
Ans. (d)
40. Nasik is situated on the bank of——
(a) Krishna
(b) Cauvery
(c) Godavari
(d) Narmada
Ans. (c)
41. High Altitude Research Laboratory is situated in—
(a) Srinagar
(b) Gulmarg
(c) Laddakh
(d) Pehlgam
Ans. (c)
42. RDX is—
(a) an instrument
(b) a gene
(c) a fertilizer
(d) an explosive
Ans. (d)
43. Mahatma Gandhi started his first Satyagraha on the Indian soil in 1917 at
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Champaran
(d) Bardoli
Ans. (c)
44. World environment day is celebrated every year on—
(a) 5th June
(b) 7th June
(c) 6th June
(d) 8th June
Ans. (a)
45. Which of the following is not a unit of time?
(a) Nano second
(b) Light year
(c) Micro second
(d) Second
Ans. (b)
46. India House is located in—
(a) London
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Ans. (a)
47. The Indian Independence League was set up by—
(a) Subhash Bose
(b) S. M. Joshi
(c) Rash Bihari Bose
(d) Aruna Ashaf Ali
Ans. (c)
48. When a ship crosses date line from west to east—
(a) it loses one day
(b) it gains one day
(c) it loses half a day
(d) it gains half a day
Ans. (b)
49. Authors of the book, ‘The Good Earth” is:
(a) Norman Angell
(b) Charles Dickens
(c) Margaret Mitchell
(d) Pearl S. Buck
Ans. (b)
50. The most important divinity in Rig-Veda is?
(a) Indra
(b) Agni
(c) Mitra
(d) Varun
Ans. (a)
SAMPLE PAPER: GK Sample paper for BSF ASI exam
1. What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere?
(a) 25%
(c) 21%
(b) 35%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following creatures fights with snakes?
(a) Monkey
(b) Mongoose
(c) Tiger
(d) Jackal
Ans. (b)
3. Land of “White Elephants” is the surname assigned to
(a) Thailand
(b) Japan
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
Ans. (a)
4. Whose scientific name is ‘Homo Sapiens’?
(a) Tiger
(b) Frog
(c) Man
(d) Rose
Ans. (c)
5. Which country’s flag has a double triangle in it?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
Ans. (d)
6. Where is Mohenjodaro located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Gujarat
(c) Sindh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c)
7. Next to Hindi, the second largest spoken language is—
(a) Bengali
(b) Tamil
(c) Telugu
(d) Marathi
Ans. (c)
8. ‘Bihu’ is the festival of which state?
(a) Orissa
(b) Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (c)
9. Who is the Chief Minister of Chattisgarh?
(a) Raman Singh
(b) S. R.. Singh Chauhan
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Kailash Singh
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following towns does not have I.I.T.?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Kolkata
(ç) Guwahati
(d) Roorkie
Ans. (b)
11. Oasis is related to
(a) Glaciers
(b) Islands
(c) Mountains
(d) Deserts
Ans. (d)
12. Match the following pairs according to the chemical
A. Natural gas (i) CO2
B. Laughing gas (ii) N2O
C. Dry-ice (iii) NH3
D. Ammonia (iv) CH4
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4,’D-l
Ans. (c)
13. The headquarters of International Red Cross Committee is in
(a) Berlin
(b) Prague
(c) Paris
(d) Geneva
Ans. (d)
14 Joule is the unit of which of the following?
(a) Energy
(b) Force
(c) Pressure
(d) Temperature
Ans. (a)
15. The grass of Asia and Europe is called
(a) Pampas
(b) Savannah
(c) Steppes
(d) Welds
Ans. (d)
16. In which of the following pairs region and state is not correctly matched?
(a) Saurashtra — Gujarat
(b) Bundelkhand — Rajasthan
(c) Telangana — Andhra Pradesh
(d) Vidarbha — Mahrashtra
Ans. (a)
17. B.O.P. is related to
(a) Only Export and Import
(b) All business policies in the world
(c) Capital flow principle
(d) Invisible gain and giving principle
Ans. (c)
18. The bone named Tibia is found in the
(a) Skull
(b) Leg
(c) Arm
(d) Mouth
Ans. (b)
19. The name from which the Raman Magsãysay award name has been taken, belonged to the former president of which country?
(a) Thailand
(c) Indonesia
(b) Philippines
(d) Singapore
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following books was written by Jawahar Lal Nehru?
(a) A Passage to India
(b) My Experiment with truth
(c) India wins freedom
(d) Discovery of India
Ans. (d)
21. We get Lime through which of the following?
(a) By adding hydrochloric acid to calcium
(b) By adding calcium to hot water
(c) By adding Sulphuric acid to calcium
(d) By heating limestone in furnace formulae
Ans. (d)
22. Match the state and its capital pair correctly
A. Mizoram 1. Imphal
B. Nagaland 2. Itanagar
C. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Kohima
D. Manipur 4. Aizawl
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-i
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-l, D-2
Ans. (c)
23. Swami Vivekananda became famous because of a religious summit in which of the following places?
(a) London
(b) Paris
(c) Chicago
(d) Berlin
Ans. (c)
24. Which of the following statements is true related to the Indus Valley Civilization?
(a) Their houses were made of bricks.
(b) Meeting building was discovered in Mohenjodaro.
(c) In the house building scheme open chowk was the main criteria
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
25. Rajendra Agriculture University, Pusa is situated at?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar
Ans. (d)
26. In which part of the original constitution was the theory of a welfare state established?
(a) In the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) 4th Schedule of the Constitution
(c) 3rd Schedule of the Constitution
(d) Directive Principles of the state
Ans. (d)
27. Who was associated with Anushilan Samiti?
(a) Vir Savarkar
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Chandrasekhar Azad
(d) Dada Bhai Naoroji
Ans. (a)
28. Albuquerque snatched Goa from?
(a) King Jamorine
(b) Sultan of Bijapur
(c) France
(d) England
Ans. (b)
29. Which park is famous for elephants?
(a) Nagarhole National Garden
(b) Boribelli National Garden
(c) Dudhwa National Garden
(d) Kaziranga National Garden
Ans. (d)
30. Where is ‘Hanging Minar’?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) England
Ans. (a)
31. Who was the King of Bengal at the time of the King Harsha of Kannauj?
(a) Shashank
(b) Dhrubsen
(c) Pulkeshin II
(d) Bhaskarvarma
Ans. (a)
32. People of Indus Valley Civilization depicted which God in their coins?
(a) Shiva
(b) Agni
(c) Vishnu
(d) Varun
Ans. (a)
33. What does a Seismograph record?
(a) Heart beat
(b) Atmospheric Pressure
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
34. Where is headquarters of South Eastern Coalfield Limited?
(a) Korba
(b) Bilaspur
(c) Raipur
(d) Ambikapur
Ans. (b)
35. During the reign of Aurangzeb which of the following led the Bundelas?
(a) Champat Rai
(b) Jujhar Singh
(c) Vir Singh
(d) Chhatrasal
Ans. (a)
36. Which one of the following marks the eastern extent of the Harappan culture?
(a) Lothal
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Alamgirpur
(d) Dabarkot
Ans. (c)
37. Who among the following is not associated with the INA?
(a) Gurdayal Singh Dhillon
(b) Shah Nawaz Khan
(c) General Mohan Singh
(d) R.C. Dutta
Ans. (d)
38. The most important feature of the Government of India Act of 1919 was the introduction of —
(a) Dyarchy
(b) Separate electorates
(c) Provincial Autonomy
(d) Adult Franchise
Ans. (a)
39. The Indian States that were annexed by invoking the Doctrine of Lapse included—
(a) Jhansi, Nagpur and Mysore
(b) Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara
(c) Jhansi, Satara and Manipur
(d) Mysore, Satara and Bhavnagar
Ans. (b)
40. Lala Lajpat Rai did not write in—
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Punjabi
(d) Urdu
Ans. (b)
41. Those that joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran struggle included—
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel and Vinoba Bhave
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narayan Singh
(d) Mahadev Desai and Maniben Patel
Ans. (c)
42. Christian population is the highest in which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (b)
43.’ Who completed the construction of Qutub Minar?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Razia
(d) Balban
Ans. (b)
44. When was the Swaraj Party founded?
(a) 1919A.D
(b) 1920A.D.
(c) 1922AD
(d) 1923AD
Ans. (d)
45. Who built Charminar?
(a) HaiderAli
(b) Tippu Sultan
(c) Kuli Kutubshah
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans. (c)
46. Which is a natural harbor?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Haldia
(d) Kandla
Ans. (b)
47. In whose rule was gold coins first introduced?
(a) Gupta
(b) Kushan
(c) Maurya
(d) Brahmin
Ans. (b)
48. Rashtiakuta dynasty was eradicated by which of the following?
(a) Jai Singh
(b) Pulkeshin II
(c) Vikramaditya VI
(d) Tailap II
Ans. (d)
49. Cemetery of ‘Bibi Ka Makbara’ is of?
(a) Mumtaj Mahal
(b) Dilras Bano Begum
(c) Gulbadan Begum
(d) Hamida Bano Begum
Ans. (b)
50. During whose reign was the prominent Maratha Sambhaji given a death sentence by hanging?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Shah Jehan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
Ans. (a)
RRB General Awareness Questions fully solved
General Knowledge Question Paper for Competitive Exams RRB
1. Which of the following statements is not correct about sound waves?
(a) It is a straight line
(b) It has energy
(c) It is in wave form
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
Ans. (d)
2. The drop of water is spherical in shape due to—
(a) Surface tension
(b) Viscosity
(c) Gravitation
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. The speed of sound wave is increased due to—
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Increase then decrease in temperature
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. Railway earns mare in carrying—
(a) Passengers
(b) Goods
(c) Construction work
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following generates highest income?
(a) Software
(b) NRI remittance
(c) RBI-interest rate
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
6. The Telugu-Ganga project is related to—
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
7. The time required to reach the sunlight to the earth is—
(a) 6 minutes 40 seconds
(b) 8 minutes 20 seconds
(c) 7 minutes 20 seconds
(d) 9 minutes 10 seconds
Ans. (b)
8. The chlorine gas turns iodine—
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Orange
Ans. (a)
9. The maximum intensity of earthquake on Richter Scale is
(a) l
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) l0
Ans. (d)
10. The non-metal which conducts both heat and electricity is—
(a) iodine
(b) chlorine
(c) phosphorus
(d) graphite
Ans. (d)
11. The cities Halebid and Belur were constructed by
(a) Cholas
(b) Hoyasalas
(c) Kakatiyas
(d) Pállavas
Ans. (b)
12. Covalent bond is formed by—
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
13. Carbon forms more compounds because—
(a) carbon is easily available
(b) valency of carbon is more
(c) of covalent bond and ionic bonds
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. The language specially used for Database Management is—
(a) Visual-basic
(b) Standard Query Language
(c) Fortran
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. The principle of dynamo is—
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) magnetic effect of current
(c) heating effect of current
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
16. Mohr Scale is used to measure—
(a) hardness of minerals
(b) hardness of water
(c) viscosity of gases
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. In ‘Skandpuran’ Garhwal is known by the name of—
(a) Kedarkhand
(b) Kurmachà l
(c) Jallandhar
(d) Gadhdesh
Ans. (a)
18. Who is the director of film 36 Chaurangi Lane’?
(a) Satyajeet Ray
(b) Shyam Benegal
(c) Prakash Jha
(d) Aparna Sen
Ans. (d)
19. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Tharu — Bihar
(b) Semang — Yeman
(c) Mesai — Mountain of East Africa
(d) Badu — Malaya
Ans. (a)
20. Author of ‘Post Office’ is—
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mulkraj Anand
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following metals is the worst conductor of electricity?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Carbon
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sale Tax — State Government
(b Income Tax — State Government
(c) Excise Duty — Central Government
(d) Chungi — Municipal Corporation
Ans. (b)
23. Finance Commission is formulated by—
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following affects the Indian Administration?
(a) Unionism
(b) Parliamentary Democracy
(c) Planning
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
25. World Health Day is celebrated on the date of—
(a) 7th April
(b) 15th March
(c) 9th April
(d) 10th April.
Ans. (a)
26. Which one of the following poets belongs to royal family?
(a) Kamban
(b) Bharati
(c) Ilangoadigal
(d) Chengundanar
Ans. (c)
27. Atomic Number is equal to the number of—
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) either electron or proton
Ans. (d)
28. Phosphorus can be preserved in -
(a) kerosene
(b) water
(c) petrol
(d) ether
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following substances is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum at 260-350°C?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Petrol
(c) Naphtha
(d) Diesel
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Fern
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
Ans. (c)
31. Major difference between animal and plant cells is—
(a) cell membrane
(b) chloroplast
(c) nucleus
(d) cell wall
Ans. (d)
32 Fall of Bastille is related to
(a) Hundred Year War
(b) Napoleon War
(c) French Revolution
(d) England War
Ans. (c)
33. Rockfort passes between—
(a) Chennai and Trichinopoly
(b) Madurai and Tirunelveli
(c) Chennai and Bangalore
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
34. CERCL is located in—
(a) Chennai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) Karaikudi
Ans. (d)
35. Birth place of Bharathiyar is—
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Thiruchengode
(c) Madurai
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
36. Shiva Temple in Tanjore was built by—
(a) Pallava
(b) Chola
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Rashtrakuta
Ans. (b)
37. Numismatics is related to the study of—
(a) coins
(b) inscriptions
(c) epigraph
(d) sherds
Ans. (a)
38. Tamil version of Ramayana was written by—
(a) Kamban
(b) Valmiki
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Ilango
Ans. (a)
39. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with—
(a) economy and politics
(b) inter-State relations
(c) ethics
(d) statecraft
Ans. (a)
40. Sarnath was an important place in the life of the Buddha where he—
(a) was born.
(b) gave his first sermon
(c) attained enlightenment
(d) died
Ans. (b)
41. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ba1 Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (a)
42. Mirage is based on the principle of—
(a) double refraction
(b) total reflection
(c) scattering
(d) refraction
Ans. (b)
43. Set Top Box is related to—
(a) CAP
(b) CAS
(c) Cable Networking
(d) Internet
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Exploitation
(b) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(c) Right o Freedom
(d) Equality before Law
Ans. (b)
45. Chennai Head Post Office is the name of—
(a) St. George Fort
(b) Rippon Building.
(c) Kuralagam
(d) Rajaji Hall
Ans. (b)
46. What is the share of India in global trade?
(a) 1.7%
(b) 1.4%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)
47. Transformer is used to-
(a) convert AC into DC
(b) convert DC into AC
(c) step up or step down D.C.
(d) step up or step down A.C.
Ans. (d)
48. The function of hemoglobin is
(a) transport oxygen
(b) release oxygen
(c) transport CO2
(d) release CO2
Ans. (a)
49. Which words were added to the Preamble to the Constitution of India by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Democratic and Socialist
(b) Secular and Sovereign
(c) Socialist and Secular
(d Democratic and Republic
Ans. (c)
50. Forty-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India is related to—
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right.
(c) Directive Principles were made at par with the Fundamental Rights.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Online practice paper for BPSC prelims
1. Match the leaders in List I with the movements they led in List II.
List I List II
A. Tomma Dore 1. Savara Rebellion
B. Shambhunath Pal 2. Munda Revolt
C. Birsa Munda 3. Koya Rebellion
D. Radhakrishna Dandasena 4. Pabna Uprising
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (a)
2. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. William Bentick 1. Establishment of Public work
B. Charles Metcalfe 2.Annexation of Sindh
C. Ellen borough 3. Abolition of Persian as Court Language
D. Dalhousie 4. Signing of the treaty with Ranjit Singh
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (c)
3. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. S.C Bose 1. Chairman of Radical Congress
B. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Lal Kurti Andolan
C. Abdul Gaffar Khan 3. Bardoli Andolan
D. Sardar Pte1 4. In Lahore Conference Congress proposed whole revolution
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)
4. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Rowlett Act 1. Indian magistrate can also give the decision on subject
of British matter
B. Mountford Improvement 2. Gave the power thinking on political affairs without jury
C. Ilbert Bill 3. Clear division on Government work between centre and
state
D. Indian Council 4. Used the process of election, though in vague way.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (a)
5. Which blood – group is the universal donor?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
Ans. (c)
6. London is situated on the banks of river
(a) Thames
(b) Tyne
(c) Avon
(d) Clyde
Ans. (a)
7. From the sun rays we get
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans. (d)
8. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. HaiderAli 1. Road and land development
B. Krishna Deva Rai 2. Construction of Mackbara and goal
C. Shershah Suri 3. Telugu Sahitya
D. Afghan and Turk 4. Arts of war
The correct answer code is
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
9. Match List -I symptoms of founder with dynasty List- II
List -I List- II
A. Parts of big stone and minimum 1. Lodi dynasty
B. Pure Aperture 2. Slave dynasty
C. Half Gumbaj Mahadware 3. Mughal dynasty
D. Dohre Gumbaj 4. Tughlaq dynasty
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (d)
10. Match the Maratha Chiefs (List- I) with their respective seats of power (List- II)
List -I List- II
A. Peshwa 1. Gwalior
B. Gaekwad 2. Poona
C. Scindhia 3. Nagpur
D. Holker 4. Baroda
E. Bhons1e 5. Indore
The correct answer code is:
A B C D E
(a) 2 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 5 1 3 4
(c) 1 5 3 2. 4
(d) 5 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)
11. Match important court poets / scholars. (List -I) with their patrons (List -II)
List- I List- II
A. Jaidev 1. Vikramaditya I
B. Bilhana 2. Lakshaman Sena
C. Amarsimha 3. Yashovarman of Kannauj
D. Vakpatiraja 4. Chandragupta 11
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)
12. Match List -I (Inventor) with List- II (Ways)
List- I List- II
A. Christopher Columbus 1.Near the travelling of southern parts of South Africa
B. Bartholomen Diaz 2. Travelling from Spain and crossing the Atlantic and
going through west region by seaway.
C. Magellan 3. Reaching the Malabar Soil after circulating the
southern parts of South Africa
D. Vasco-de- Gama 4. Travelling by sea-way of all countries.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following songs was so melodious for Mahatma Gandhi, who wrote in this regard. ‘If I forget Bhagwatgita, this only song gives me strength and promotes……
(a) Jan Gan Man Adhinayak….
(b) Raghupati Raghav Raja Ram….
(c) Vaishnav Jan to Tene Kahie….
(d) Iswar Allah Tero Nam..,.
Ans. (b)
14. Match List -I with List -II
List -I List- II
A. Nagarjuna 1.Knowlèdge is the primary means of Salvation
B. Shankaryacharya 2. Woman Saint
C. Andal 3. Tried to assimilate Bhakti to the tradition of the Vedas
D. Ramanuja 4. Played an important role in the spread of Buddhism
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)
15. Match. List I with List II
List –I List -II
A. Kane cave temples 1. Mahayana
B. Khandagiri rock cut halls 2. Shaivite
C. Bagh caves 3. Hinayana
D. Badami cave temp1es 4. Jain
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (a)
16. ‘Milk’ is an example of:
(a) Collidal
(b) Gel
(c) Imulsion
(d) Foam
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following trees gains the oil of Tarpin?
(a) Netum
(b) Mycuss
(c) Devdar
(d) Chir
Ans. (d)
18. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Carbohydrate 1. Pepsin
B. Enzyme 2. Starch
C. Hormone 3. Kerotin
D. Protein 4. Projestron
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 l 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b)
19. Herbarium is
(a) collection of herb in a dry place
(b) one of the centers where different types of herbs are there
(c) a centre where the medical herbs are kept
(d) a centre where the dry botanical elements are conserved
Ans. (a)
20. The widely used antibiotic, penicillin, is produced by
(a) an algae
(b) a bacterium
(c) a fungus
(d) chemical means
Ans. (b)
21. Lichen is considered to be a symbiotic association of two organisms. Which organisms are involved in it?
(a) Algae and bacteria
(b) Algae and fungi
(c) Algae and bryophytes
(d) Fungi and bryophytes
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following is a microelement?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (b)
23. Match the Scientific Discoveries in List- I with the Scientists in List- II
List- I List-II
A. DNA structure 1. Jacob and Monod
B. ABO blood groups 2. Barbara McClintock
C. Jumping genes 3. Watson and Crick
D. Regulatory genes 4. Land Steiner
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
24. Match List -I with List-II
List- I List -II
(Herb) (Resources)
A. Kunain 1. Leaves
B. Digitlis 2. Fruits
C. Roubolfia 3. Epidermis
D. Heroin 4. Root
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)
25. After few distance the television signal is not adopted by T.V. set because of-
(a) weak signal
(b) weak receiver antenna
(c) absorption of signal by air
(d) aperture of earth
Ans. (d)
26. In respect of D.C. A.C. is profitable
(a) In A.C. maximum of electric energy are present
(b) A.C. voltage is free from increase or decrease
(c) Cost of A.C. production is less
(d) A.C can send in maximum distance without less power consumption
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the planets have not any satellite, more around the planets?
(a) Venus and Mars
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mars and Venus
(d Neptune and Pluto
Ans. (b)
28. In cold regions, where temperature may fall below 0°C, farmers fill their fields with water to protect their crops from damage because
(a) water is abundantly available in cold regions
(b) water has low specific heat capacity and volume of water increases when temperature falls below 4°C
(c) water has high specific heat capacity
(d) plenty of water is absorbed by soil in cold regions
Ans. (c)
29. A rocket and a jet engine differ because
A. their working principles are entirely different
B. a rocket uses only liquid fuels whereas a jet can use solid fuels as well
C. while a rocket carries its own oxygen supply, a jet draws its air out of the atmosphere
D. a rocket can propel vehicles into outer space whereas a jet cannot
The correct combination is:
(a) C, D
(c) A, B.
(b) B, C, D
(d) A, C, D
Ans. (d)
30. Name the Constitutional Amendment by which three new states Chattisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand have been created.
(a) 81st Constitutional Amendment, 1999
(b) 82nd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(c) 83rd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(d) 84th Constitutional Amendment, 2000
Ans. (b)
31. Who is the author of the book ‘My Girlhood: An Autobiography’?
(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) Taslima Nasreen
(b) Medha Patkar
(d) Sobha De
Ans. (b)
32. Liquefied Petroleum Gas consists of mainly
(a) Methane, Ethane, Hexane
(b) Ethane, Hexane, Butane
(c) Methane, Butane, Propane
(d) Methane, Butane, Hexane
Ans. (a)
33. After defeat of which Hindu emperor Vijayanagar Dynasty ended?
(a) Krishnadeva Rai
(b) Ram. Raja
(c) Harihar Rai
(d) Bukka Rai
Ans. (c)
34. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. Hirakud barrage l. Vyas
B. Thin barrage 2. Chenab
C. Salal project 3. Ravi
D. Ponga barrage 4. Mahanadi
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
35. In music seventh ‘Sa’, ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(a) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is less than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(b) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is greater than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(c) frequencies re decreasing respectively
(d) frequencies are equal of all pronunciations
Ans. (d)
36. If two persons are talking in space of moon then-
(a) in respect to earth, the sound is listened by each other on moon after maximum time.
(b) the time taken in listening to the sound are equal at both places.
(c) sound cannot be heard on moon.
(d) sound of echo can be heard by each other again and again.
Ans. (a)
37. Though water is transparent to visible light yet it is not possible to see distant objects in the fog which consists of fine drops of water suspended in air.
The reason for this is that-
(a) fog affects our vision adversely.
(b) most of the light is scattered and hence this appears invisible.
(c) the light rays suffer total internal reflection and cannot reach directly the eyes of the observer.
(d) fine drops of water are opaque to visible light.
Ans. (d)
38. Producer gas is used as a fuel and also as a source of nitrogen.
The gas is obtained by
(a) spraying oil into hot retorts.
(b) passing a mixture of steam and air over incandescent coke
(c) passing air through a bed of incandescent coke.
(d) passing steam over incandescent coke
Ans. (b)
39. The earth moves round ‘the sun an elliptical path. The speed of the earth in its orbital path around the sun
(a) is uniform
(b) decreases when the distance between them increases
(c) increases when the distance between them decreases
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
40. Zimbabwe was formerly known as —
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Bonn — Danube
(b) Baghdad — Tigris
(c) Rome — Seine
(d) Paris — Tiber
Ans. (b)
42. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is—
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans. (d)
44. Srinagar is situated on the bank of river—
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelam
(d) Chenab
Ans. (c)
45. The Shompens are the tribal people of—
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
46. Match the following—
Column I Column II
A. Manas 1. Hangul
B. Dachigam 2. Elephant
C. Mudumalai 3. Tiger
D. Kaziranga 3. Rhinoceros
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (b)
47. In India Plan holiday was after—
(a) China -India war of 1962
(b) Drought of 1966
(c) Pakistan War of 1971
(d) Pakistan War of 1965
Ans. (b)
48. Which of the following is not a ‘Free Trade Zone’?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans. (a)
49. ‘Butterfly’ word is related to—
(a) basketball
(b) snooker
(c) swimming
(d) boating
Ans. (c)
50. ‘Astigmatism’ is a disease of—
(a) ears
(b) eyes
(c) nose
(d) throat
Ans. (b)
sample gk paper for Trainee vacancy in Heavy Water Board
1. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Encephalitis — Brain
(b) Colitis — Colon
(c) Hepatitis — Liver
(d) Jaundice — Throat
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following, types of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum product?
(a) Rayon silk
(b) Terylene
(c) Silk
(d) Cotton
Ans. (b)
3. The function of hemoglobin in body is—
(a) Transport of oxygen.
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anaemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans. (a)
4. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population?
(a) Lung’s disease
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans. (c)
5. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the following grows under the tree?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans. (c)
7. Which of the following is an example of a plant which bears seeds but no fruits?
(a) Cotton plant
(b) Peepal plant
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans. (a)
8. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is—
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans. (a)
9. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is—
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans. (b)
10. In increasing sequence, the major elements, present in the human body are—
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans. (c)
11. A light sensitive compound used in photography is—
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans. (c)
12. Protective foods in our diet are?
(a) fats and vitamins
(b carbohydrates and minerals
(c) vitamins .and minerals
(d) proteins and carbohydrates
Ans. (c)
13. The ancient name of Bengal was—
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(ç) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans. (c)
14. Ahilyabai was the queen of?
(a) Gwalior
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans. (a)
15. Moorish traveller, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of -
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Balban,
(d) Muhammed Bin Tughlaq
Ans. (d)
16. The main occupation of Harappan civilization was—
(a) agriculture
(b) cattle rearing
(c) commerce
(d) hunting
Ans. (c)
17. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the King of dynasty?
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallavas
(d) Kushans
Ans. (c)
18. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in—
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d 1855
Ans. (b)
19. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called—
(a) Mahabhiniskranan
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mabamastakabhishekha
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans. (d)
20. The political and cultural centre of the Pandyas was—
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans. (b)
21. What is the correct chronological order in which the following invaded India?
(1) Huns
(2) Kushans
(3) Aryans
(4) Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (b)
22. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghavarsa
(c) Vijaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans. (c)
23. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of—
(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids
Ans. (c)
24. Who founded the Hindu Shah dynasty of Punjab?
(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala
Ans. (b)
25. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was posed by the—
(a) Mongols
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
26. Who among the following was a Leading exponent of Gandhian thoughts?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan.
Ans. (c)
27. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial Mauryas in Maghádha?
(a) Kushans
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas
Ans. (d)
28. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of—
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday
Ans. (b)
29. Jahangir Mahal is located in—
(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara
Ans. (c)
30. The percentage of glucose present in normal urine is—
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%
Ans. (d)
31. The magnetic effect of electric current was first observed by—
(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta
Ans. (c)
32. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans. (b)
33. The black hole theory was discovered by—
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Govind Khurana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujam
Ans. (a)
34. The main contribution of Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in—
(a) systematic provincial administration
(b) a well planned revenue system
(c) a well organized central government
(d) an organized local self government
Ans. (d)
35. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans. (d)
36. Which of the following-battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler in India?—
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans. (d)
37. ‘The Vedas contain all they truth; was interpreted by—
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Dayananda
(c) Ram Mohan Rai
(d) S. Radhakrisnan
Ans. (b)
38. Match the columns—
Column I Column II
A. Second battle of Panipat 1. Decline of Vijaya Nagar
B. Second battle 2. British rule in India
C. Battle of Talikota 3. Turkish rule in India
D. Battle of Plassey 4. Mughal rule in India
5. Slave dynasty in India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)
39. Babar entered India for the first time from the west through—
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sindh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
40. Which was first among the following?
(â) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans. (d)
41. The name of Lord ‘Cornwallis is associated with the—
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary alliances
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans. (d)
42. Sir Charles Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 dealt with—
(a) administrative reforms
(b) social reforms
(c) economic reforms
(d) educational reforms
Ans. (d)
43. The sea route to India was discovered by the—
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Ashvaghosa — Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta — Harshavardhana
(c) Harisena — Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa — Samudragupta
Ans. (b)
45. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because of—
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans. (d)
46. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year—
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) 1932
Ans. (b)
47. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
48. Abhinav Bharat was organized by—
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
49. On 22nd December which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Madras
Ans. (a)
50. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ‘Horse Latitudes’ lie between—
(a) 0° and 15°
(b) 20° and 25°
(c) 30° and 35°
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
India GK Solved Objective Questions
1. Colour of sky is often blue—
(a) because of reflection
(b) because of scattering
(c) because of refraction
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2. If you mix red and peacock blue colour which colour will be made?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
Ans. (b)
3. Which are primary colours?
(a) Blue + Green + Red
(b) Yellow + Magenta Peacock blue
(c) White + Green + Yellow
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
4. What is the work of ‘Iris’?
(a) To balance mass of light this goes into the eye
(b) To return mass to light this goes in eye
(c) To send figure to reflective lens
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. Light wave is —
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) both
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. The work of carbon rod is dry shell is—
(a) as anode
(b) as cathode
(c) as both
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
7. If electric motor electric energy is transformed into which energy?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) mechanical energy
(c) potential energy
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. ‘Fluorspar’ is an ore of—
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium
(c) copper
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
9. Aluminum sulphate is used—
(a) in printing of textile
(b) in fire extinguisher
(c) in both
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
10. Main work of R. N.A. is—
(a) to help in digestion
(b) to help in protein synthesis
(c) in both
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
11. Which part of papaya is edible?
(a) Fleshy thalamus
(b) Seeds
(c) Both
(d) Petal
Ans. (a)
12. If you pressurize two pieces of ice together, then they adhere to each other because—
(a) as pressure increases, melting point of ice increases
(b) as pressure increases, melting point of ice decreases
(c) as pressure increases, melting point of ice first decreases then increases
(d) there is no relation between pressure and boiling point
Ans. (b)
13. In full glass of water a piece of ice is swimming, after the entire piece of ice melts down, level of water will—
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) unchanged
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. If you put sodium in water which gas is formed?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following is normally not necessary in growing of a plant?
(a) Water
(b) Light
(c) Air
(d) Temperature
Ans. (b)
16. Acid changes—
(a) blue litmus into red
(b) red litmus into blue
(c) no change in colour of litmus
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. Atomic number of an element is 35 and number of electrons is 18 then what will be number of protons in the element?
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 15
Ans. (b)
18. For 1 gram weight of a substance to undergo a change of 1°C temperature what is the necessary mass of heat required called?
(a) Energy
(b) Specific heat
(c) Latent heat
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
19. Atomic weight of the element is determined in—
(a) gram
(b) miligram
(c) a.m.u.
(d) kilogram
Ans. (c)
20. Lunar eclipse occurs on a—
(a) new moon day
(b) full moon day
(c) half moon day
(d) (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
21. The meetings of the Rajya Sabha are presided over by the—
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
Ans. (b)
22. ‘Black Pagoda’ is in—
(a) Egypt
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Konark
(d) Madurai
Ans. (c)
23. Wodeyars were rulers of—
(a) Mysore
(b) Vijaynagaram
(c) Travancore
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
24. What is meant by myopia?
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Short-sightedness
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Night blindness
Ans. (b)
25. Non conventional source of energy best suited for India is —
(a) solar energy
(b) wind energy
(c) tidal wave energy
(d) nuclear energy
Ans. (a)
26. Who is the recent Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awardee?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Rahul Dravid
(c) Anju George
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
27. The international court of justice has—
(a) 10 judges
(b) 15 judges
(c) 20 judges
(d) 25 judges
Ans. (b)
28. Why do diamonds shine at night?
(a) Diamonds are radioactive, so there are radiations
(b) On account of high refractive index, the rays of light get internally reflected•
(c) Diamonds shine because they have a tetrahedral molecular structure
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
29. Process of breeding fish In ponds, artificial reservoirs is known as—
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Fishing
(c) Apiculture
(d) Piscicultue
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following is dissimilar?
(a) Resistance
(b) Capacitor
(c) Calorie
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
31. Which of the following does not possess a railway headquarters?
(a) Hubli
(b) Hajipur
(c) Bilaspur
(d) Ahmedabad
Ans. (d)
32. In which of the following places railway items are not manufactured?
(a) Varanasi
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
33. ‘Küchipudi’ is a dance of which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Ans. (c)
34. Which of the following is true about wheat crops?
(a) Growing in October — November and harvest in March
(b) Harvest in January — February and growing in June — July
(c) Growing in June — July and harvest in March — April
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
35. In which city did Virendra Shewag make 300 runs and become one of the best players of India?
(a) Karachi
(b) Islamabad
(c) Multan
(d) Lahore
Ans. (c)
36. If you go from Kolkata to Kanyakumari then you do not pass which place?
(a) Bhubaneshwar
(b) Chennai
(c) Solapur
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (c)
37. Cherrapunji and Jaintia tribes are related to which state?
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (c)
38. A stable magnet always shows—
(a) North-North and South- South
(b) North-South and South -North
(c) East-East and West-West
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
39. Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma is related to which of the following?
(a) Sitar
(b) Santoor
(c) Flute
(d) Tabla
Ans. (b)
40. When brake is applied to a bus in motion, the passengers in the bus lean forward. Which of the following laws explains this phenomenon?
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(c The rule of momentum
Ans. (a)
41. If a man’s temperature is 40°C, then what will be the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(a) 104°F
(b) 120°F
(c) 130°F
(d) 98°F
Ans. (a)
42. Who is the Director of film ‘Road to Laddakh’?
(a) Mrinal Sen.
(b) Aswani Kumar
(c) Satyajit Ray
(d) Shriram Lagu
Ans. (c)
43. Intensive subsistence farming is the characterists of the area of
(a) high density of population and high technology.
(b) low density of population and high technology.
(c) low density of population and low technology.
(d) high density of population and low technology.
Ans. (b)
44. Monoculture is a typical characteristic of
(a) shifting cultivation
(b) subsistence farming
(c) commercial grain farming
(d) speeia1ised horticulture
Ans. (b)
45. Where do Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form Ganga?
(a) Karan Prayag
(b) Dev Prayag
(c) Rudra Prayag
(d) Gangotri
Ans. (b)
46. What causes the difference of time between two places?
(a) Latitude and Longitude
(b) Longitude
(c) Longitude and distance from equator
(d) Latitude, Longitude and distance from equator
Ans. (b)
47. Which of the following types of soils has surface accumulation of organic matter?
(a) Peaty soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Red soil
Ans. (d)
48. Which crop requires a large amount of rainfall and no standing water?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Tea
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
49. Match List- I with List- II
List –I List- II
A. Coal 1. Hazaribagh
B. Iron 2. Neyveli
C. Lignite 3. Rourkela
D. Mica 4. Jharia
The correct answer code is
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (a)
50. “Isokron” is the line which joins such places which are equal in
(a) point of travelling time
(b) period
(b) rain
(c) mean height of sea level
(d) fog
Ans. (d)
general Awareness for State Civil Services Exam, State Public Service Commission
1. Where is the ‘Leaning Tower’ of Pisa is situated in?
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) America
(d) Switzerland
Ans. (b)
2. The light with wave length in spectrum is—
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (a)
3. ‘Petroleum’ is a compound mixture of—
(a) Propane and Butane
(b) Ethylene and Ethane
(c) Symozene and Ethylene
(d) Regolene and Hexane
Ans. (a)
4. For which reason clouds do not rain in desert?
(a) Reason of maximum air velocity
(b) Reason of minimum temperature
(c) Reason of minimum air velocity
(d) Reason of minimum humidity
Ans. (a)
5. In which international championship ‘Thomas Cup’ is given?
(a) Football
(b) Cricket
(c) Badminton
(d) Tennis
Ans. (c)
6. Which person is known as ‘Grand Old Man’ of India?
(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Vallabhai Patel
Ans. (a)
7. The famous book ‘Geet Govind’ is written by—
(a) Banabhatta
(b) Jaidev
(c) Mirabai
(d) Kalidas
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following persons related to T.E. Lawrence?
(a) The people of China
(b) Inhabitants of Mongolia
(c) The, persons of Afghanistan
(d) The persons of Arabia
Ans. (b)
9. Who was the founder of Vijaya Nagar state?
(a) Raj Raja
(b) Narsimha Varman
(c) Han Hara and Bukka
(d) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans. (c)
10. Who was the famous ruler of Ancient India, who adopted Jain Dharam at the last movement?
(a) Chandra Gupta
(b) Ashoka
(c) Samudra Gupta
(d) Bindusar
Ans. (a)
11. Which of the following writers wrote at the time of restoration of Italy?
(a) Homer
(b) Rossetti
(c) Dante
(d) Virgil
Ans. (c)
12. Find the wrong arrangement—
(a) J. L. Baird : Television
(b) J. Parkinson : Penicillin
(c) James Watt : Steam Engine
(d) A. G. Bell : Telephone
Ans. (b)
13. Who is the author of ‘Bharat Bharati’?
(a) Maithilisharan Gupta
(b) Suryakant Tripathi ‘Nirala’
(c) Mahadevi Verma
(d) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
Ans. (a)
14. ‘Gambit’ is related to which of the following sports?
(a) Carom
(b) Bridge
(c) Chess
(d) Billiards
Ans. (c)
15. Siachen is—
(a) Limiting glacier zone between India and Pakistan
(b) Limiting desert zone between India and Pakistan
(c) Limiting zone between China and Pakistan
(d) Limiting zone between India and Myanmar
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Listor — Treatment of Leprosy
(b) Jonas. E. Salk — Vaccine against Polio
(c) Alexander Fleming — Discovery of Penicillin
(d) Edward Jenner — Vaccination against Small Pox
Ans. (b)
17. In which area is the Ivory and Ismail Merchant famous?
(a) Medicine
(b) Electronic Media
(c) Music
(d) Film Production
Ans. (d)
18. The minimum age required to contest the election for Lok Sabha is—
(a) 30 yrs
(b) 35 yrs
(c) 21 yrs
(d) 25 yrs
Ans. (d)
19. The time gap between two sessions of Parliament is not more than
(a) 9 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans. (d)
20. For which reason was Bengal divided?
(a) Fulfill the Muslims
(b) Aggravate the tension between Hindus and Muslims
(c) Subdue of revolution
(d) Appeasement of Hindus and Muslims
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following U.N.O. Secretary died in an air crash?
(a) U. Thant
(b) Kurt Waldeim
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Dag Hammarskjoeld
Ans. (a)
22. Which statement is not correct with reference to Gujarat?
(a) It is the largest tobacco ‘producer
(b) It is the largest groundnut producer
(c) It is the largest salt producer
(d) Largest producer of milk
Ans. (d)
23. What is Doldrums?
(a) Trade winds
(b) Minimum pressure around the Equator where air is minimum and sea available
(c) Area of maximum humidity
(d) Peace zone of sea
Ans. (b)
24. Khetri is famous for—
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminum
(d) fertilizer
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is related to freedom, similarity and friendship?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) Olympic Games
(c Industrial Revolution
Ans. (b)
26. Cyclone is related to Anticyclone in the same way as flood is related to—
(a) river
(b) drought
(c) devastation
(d) havoc
Ans. (b)
27. Match List -I with List -II
List-I List -II
A. Lignite 1. Copper
B. Bauxite 2. Iron
C. Magnetite 3. Aluminum
D. Pyrite 4. Coal
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 13 2
Ans. (c)
28. The order of the layers in the atmosphere, upwards from below is
(a) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere
(b) Exosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere
(c) Troposphere, Magnetosphere, Stratosphere, Exosphere
(d) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere
Ans. (b)
29. Arrange the planets correctly in descending order in terms of number of their satellites
1: Uranus
2. Jupiter
3. Saturn
4. Mars
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 2. 3, 4, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
30. The main objective of the Fundamental Rights is to
(a) promote a socialist pattern of society
(b) ensure individual liberty
(c) ensure independence of a judiciary
(d) ensure all of the above
Ans. (d)
31. Fundamental Duties were important in the Constitution to
(a) prevent the misuse of Fundamental Rights
(b) make the Fundamental Rights more meaningful
(c) curb subversive and unconstitutional activities.
(d) curb the growing power of the executive
Ans. (a)
32. The Presidential address is prepared by
(a) Special secretary of the President
(b) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister and his Cabinet
Ans. (b)
33. The President can extend the life of the Lok Sabha during the National Emergency in the first instance for a period of
(a) three months
(b) six months
(c) nine months
(d twelve months
Ans. (c)
34. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available?
(a) A member of the panel of Chairman announced by the Speaker
(b) A member nominated by the President
(c) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
35. The ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
(a) the President
(b) the State Council Ministers
(c) the State Legislature
(d) all of these
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following powers• are available to the president but not to the Governor of state?
1. To grant pardon in case of death sentence
2. Diplomatic powers
3. To veto the bills passed by the state Legislature
4. To declare emergency
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) 1, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. (c)
37. A. law passed by a state on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the law of the centre
(a) if it was passed earlier than the Central Law.
(b) if the majority of State Legislatures so decides.
(c) if the Supreme Court so decides.
(d) if it was passed by the State Legislature and approved by the President before enactment of the Central Law.
Ans. (c)
38. Rajasthan Canal receives water from
(a) Sutlej river
(b) Beas river
(c) Chambal river
(d) Ravi river
Ans. (a)
39. Match List I with List II
List –I List -II
A. Huen Tsang 1. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Fa-hein’s 2. Harshavardhana
C. Megasthenese 3. Jehangir
D. Sir Thomas Row 4. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
40. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Mahatma Gandhi 1. India Divided
B. Ram Manohar Lohia 2. India Wins Freedom
C. Dr. Rajendra. 3. Hind Prasad Swaraj
D. Maulana Azad 4. The Wheel of History
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following rivers divided the Aravali Mountain series?
(a) Chambal and Sarsäwati
(b) Chambal and Sabarmati
(c) Narmada and Mana
(d) Luni and Manas
Ans. (d)
42. Match List- I with List- II
List -I List-II
A. Lactic acid 1 Lemon
B. Acetic acid 2. Rancid
C. Citric acid 3. Mi1k
D. Butyric acid 4. Vinegar
5. Wine
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 3 2
(b) 3 1 4 5
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c)
43. Match List- I with List- II
List –I List -II
A. Billiards 1. Vijaya Lakshmi
B Women’s Chess 2. Ashok Shandilya
C. Shooting 3. Alok Kumar
D. Shooting 4. Ritwik Bhattacharya
5. Jaspal Rana
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 5 3 2
(d) 3 2 5 1
Ans. (b)
44. Which place was venue of 2006 Winter Olympic Games?
(a) Budapest
(b) Montreal
(c) Warsaw
(d) Turin
Ans. (d)
45. ‘Rudra Sagar Lake’ is a national park situated in which state?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Punjab
Ans. (b)
46. The first law officer of the government of India is the:
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Attorney general
C. Law ‘minister
D. Auditor general
Ans. (B)
47. What is the maximum age for being the President?
A. 60 years
B. 65 years
C. 70 years
D. There is no age limit
Ans. (D)
48. The Panchayati Raj institutions in India have been established as per the constitutional directions of the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Tenets of federalism
D. Directive principles
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Giddha’ is a dance of which state?
A. Gujarat
B. Assam (Asom)
C. Punjab
D. Haryana
Ans. (C)
50. Dr. Hargobind Khurana is credited with the discovery of the synthesis of:
A. Genes
B. Proteins
C. Blood
D. Nitrogenous bases
Ans. (A)
General Knowledge Informations General Knowledge in India
1. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(ç) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
2. ‘The Lord of Rings The Return of the King’ won Oscar awards in how many categories?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans. (c)
3. As per census 2001, this of the following has the lowest density of population?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)
4. Which of the following is the latest Tank?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim
Ans. (c)
5. The colour sensitive part of the eye is—
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) ciliary muscle
(d) retina
Ans. (a)
6. Asteroids lie between—
(a) Mars and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Mars and Earth
(d) Mars and Saturn
Ans. (a)
7. Doldrums refer to—
(a) low pressure in Equatorial region
(b) high pressure in Equatorial region
(c) low pressure in sub-polar region
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
8. El Nino is related to—
(a) cold current in East Coast of South America
(b) warm current in West Coast of South America
(c) current along the Pacific Ocean
(d) current in the Pacific Ocean in Indian Continent
Ans. (b)
9. If in Greenwich the time is 12 Noon, what is the time at 50°E Longitude?
(a) 8.40AM
(b) 3.20 PM
(c) 3.00 PM
(d) 8.00 AM
Ans. (b)
10. High level language is—
(a) machine dependent language
(b) machine independent language
(c) computer language
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
11. How many bones are there in adult human body?
(a) 200
(c) 206
(b) 203
(d) 212
Ans. (c)
12. Solder is an alloy of—
(a) tin and lead
(b) tin and copper
(c) lead and nickel
(d) tin and nickel
Ans. (a)
13. The meeting of Indian National Congress in 1942 at Bombay was important for—
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Poorna Swaraj
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
14. Full form of ATM is—
(a) All Time Money
(b) Any Time Machine
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) All Time Machine
Ans. (c)
15. Which Of the following is used for preservation of food materials?
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Boric acid
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Citric acid
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following is made by Bessemer’s process?
(a) Tin
(b) Ammonia
(c) Steel
(d) Hydrogen
Ans. (c)
17. Silicon is—
(a) conductor
(b) semi conductor
(c) insulator
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
18. Calculate percentage of potassium permanganate –
(K=39, Mn = 4 O =16)
(a) 10 %
(b) 30 %
(c) 11 %
(d) 24 %
Ans. (d)
19. TRAI is related to—
(a) Telecom Regulatory Association of India
(b) Telecast Regulatory Association of India
(c) Telephone Regulatory Authority of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
20. Which of these is responsible for Green House Effect?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (a)
21. Ore of aluminum is—
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Bauxite
(d) Carnalite
Ans. (c)
22. Modern periodic table is based on—
(a) atomic weight
(b) molecular weight
(c) atomic number
(d) neutrons
Ans. (c)
23. Black-cotton is the name for—
(a) textile
(b) coal
(c) a group of old mountains
(d) gold
Ans. (c)
24. Full form of NPA will be—
(a) Non Permanent Address
(b) Net profit Amount
(c) Non-Performing Assets
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following deficiencies causes disease in teeth?
(a) Zinc
(b) Florine
(c) Manganese
(d) Aluminum
Ans. (b)
26. Wardha movement, is related to—
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Bose
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)
27. SEBI is related to—
(a) State Exchange Board of India
(b) Security Exchange Board of India
(c) Stock Exchange Board of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
28. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Maldives
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans. (a)
29. HIV is related to—
(a) Cancer
(b) Plague
(c) Hepatitis
(d) AIDS
Ans. (d)
30. What is light year?
(a) Distance traveled by light in one day
(b) Unit of light
(c) Distance traveled by light in one year
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
31. In an- aeroplane ink of the fountain pen comes outside because—
(a) increase in height decreases atmospheric pressure
(b) increase in height increases atmospheric pressure
(c) increase in height leaves atmospheric pressure unchanged
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
32. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(a) Velocity
(b) Mass
(c) Time
(d) Length
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following engines is weak?
(a) Diesel engine
(b) Petrol engine
(c) Steam engine
(d) Electric engine
Ans. (c)
34. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
(a) S. Rajendra Babu
(b) R.S. Lahoti
(c) J.C. Sharma
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
35. Whose signature is it on the note of Re. 1?
(a) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Auditor General
(d) Advocate General
Ans. (a)
36. ‘Operation Flood’ is related to—
(a) oil
(b) cereal production
(c) milk
(d) egg production
Ans. (c)
37. Larger number of oil refineries are found in—
(a) Porbandar
(b) Jamnagar
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Surat
Ans. (b)
38. Tiger Woods is related to—
(a) polo
(b) snooker
(c) golf
(d) tennis
Ans. (c)
39. Sania Mirza is related to—
(a) athletics
(b) snooker
(c) chess
(d) tennis
Ans. (d)
40. An electroscope is a device—
(a) for generating electrical charge
(b) for producing spark
(c) for determining magnitude of a charge
(d that magnifies electrons so that they are visible
Ans. (d)
41. Why does a cyclist bend while taking a curved turn?
(a) Movement of his cycle and the man must be the same otherwise cycle will slip off
(b) He bends in order to make the centre of gravity remain within the base. This will save him from falling
(c) He bends in order to negotiate the curve faster
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
42. The Governor General associated with abolition of slavery was—
(a) Cornwallis
(b) Bentick
(c) Dalhousie
(d) Ripon
Ans. (d)
43. Who is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Somnath Chatterjee
(b) P.A. Sangma
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
44. Where did Rajeev Gandhi die of human bomb explosion?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Sriperambudur
(d) Colombo
Ans. (c)
45. An ‘astronaut in spaceship sees the sky away from the Sun as
(a) white
(b) red
(c) blue
(d) black
Ans. (d)
46. The term cannon is associated -
(a) snooker
(c) golf
(b) billiards
(d) hockey
Ans. (a)
47. SAIL’s plant in Karnataka is situated at—
(a) Bangalore
(b) Bhadravati
(c) Belgaum
(d) Hubli
Ans. (b)
48. The term ‘Fourth Estate’ refers to -
(a) Backward state
(b) Judiciary
(c) Press
(d) Tea Estates
Ans. (c)
49. Detroit in the U.S.A. is known as the city of—
(a) motor cars
(b) lights
(c) aero planes
(d) rockets
Ans. (a)
50. Which of following crops helps in nitrogen fixation?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Beans
(d) Maize
Ans. (c)
Solved question papers of MP PSC exam of general studies GK
1. The first Europeans to start trade with India were the—
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) French
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
2. Which one of the following ensures personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Warranto
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
3. Herbicides are chemicals which control—
(a) fungi
(b) weeds
(c) nematodes
(d) insects
Ans. (b)
4. The ro1e of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is—
(a) absorption of water
(b) absorption of light
(c) absorption of CO2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
5. Which city is called the Silicon Valley of India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bangalore
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
Ans. (b)
6. All revenues received, loans raised by Union Govt. go into
(a) Public Accounts of India
(b) Contingency Fund India
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. Lines on a map, where pressures are equal are called—
(a) Longitudes
(b) Latitudes
(c) Isobars
(d) Isotopes
Ans. (c)
8. Largest river in the world is—
(a) Nile
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Amazon
(d) Mississippi
Ans. (c)
9. The time gap between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed—
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 1 year
Ans. (b)
10. Acupuncture is widely practiced in—
(a) India
(b) America
(c) China
(d) Germany
Ans. (c)
11.’James Bond’ is a character created by—
(a) Ian Fleming
(b) Perry Mason
(c) Agatha Christie
(d) Wode House
Ans. (a)
12. The oceans cover……. of the surface of the earth.
(a) 71 %
(b) 60 %
(c) 81 %
(d) 90 %
Ans. (a)
13. The term Grand Slam is associated with—
(a) Billiards
(b) Chess
(c) Cricket
(d) Bridge & Tennis
Ans. (d)
14. The study which deals with secret writing is known as—
(a) cryptography
(b) scretology
(c) cytography
(d) cryptology
Ans. (d)
15. City of Golden gates is—
(a) Havana
(b) San Francisco
(c) London
(d) Paris
Ans. (d)
16. The ‘stones’ formed in human kidney consist mostly of—
(a) calcium oxalate
(b) magnesium sulphate
(c) sodium chloride
(d) sodium phosphate
Ans. (c)
17. IC chips used in computers are usually made of—
(a) lead
(b) silicon
(c) chromium
(d) gold
Ans. (b)
18. Which is the capital of Manipur?
(a) Dispur
(b) Imphal
(c) Agartala
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
19. Who is the first Indian Field Marshal?
(a) K. M. Kariappa
(b) SHFJ Manekshaw
(c) Sunderji
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20. Yakshagana is famous dance of which state?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Orissa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
21. How many squares are there in a Chess Board?
(a) 36
(b) 48
(c) 64
(d) 72
Ans. (c)
22. Which city is famous for oranges?
(a) Ratnagiri
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Nagpur
(d) Lucknow
Ans. (c)
23. ‘Waterloo’ is situated at—
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium
Ans. (d)
24. Problems of Salinity and acidity in Soil’s remedy is—
(a) dry agricultural process
(b) plantation
(c) use of Gypsum in the land
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
25. ‘Malachite’ is the ore of which mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron
Ans. (a)
26. Which of these acids is used in lead storage battery?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Acetic acid
Ans. (a)
27. President of India dissolves the Parliament on the—
(a) advice of Prime Minister
(b) advice of Vice-President
(c) advice of Speaker of Parliament
(d) advice of Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans. (a)
28. Members of Union public Service Commission give their resignation to—
(a) President
(b) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
29. Tri-cameral structure in Panchayati Raj was given by—
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee.:
(c) Vishweshwaria
(d) Singhvi Committee
Ans. (a)
30. The best measurement Of growth
(a) National income
(b) Average Per Capita Income
(c) Import
(d) Export
Ans. (b)
31. In 13th century who was the highest officer in army?
(a) Malik
(b) Khan
(c) Sarkhel
(d) Sipehsalar
Ans. (a)
32. Coal is found in which of these rocks?
(a) Igneous rock
(b) Sedimentary rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
33. In the Seventh schedule which subject is defined?
(a) Pension and convenience of the speaker of Parliament
(b) Languages
(c) Union List, state list subject
(d) Panchayati Raj
Ans. (c)
34. India imports maximum amount of which of the following ores?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Manganese
(c) Mica
(d) Sulphur
Ans. (c)
35. In which amendment of Constitution ‘Goa’ was made a state?
(a) 52nd
(b) 58th
(c) 56th
(d) 73rd
Ans. (c)
36. Economic Survey is published by—
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) C.S.O
(d) Indian Commerce Ministry
Ans. (a)
37. Where is National Defence Academy?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Kharagbasla
(d) Dehradoon
Ans. (c)
38. Where is Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Institute of Sport?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Delhi
(d) Patiala
Ans. (d)
39. Jayakvari project is situated on the river—
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Narmada
(d) Cauvery
Ans. (b)
40. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorary
Ans. (a)
41. A common High Court for two or more states and/or Union Territory may be established by—
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of states
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. (b)
42. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) K. M Munshi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) M.C. Setalvad
(d) B. N. Rao
Ans. (d)
43. During the period of Renaissance, new style of architecture first developed in—
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans. (a)
44. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in—
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay — Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans. (d)
45. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai – Khidmatgars
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
46. The state in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is—
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (c)
47. Which .of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Gulbarga — Karnataka
(b) Midnapur — Gujarat
(c) Wardha — Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin — Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
48. U. Thant Award is given for—
(a) contribution to east-west understanding
(b) community leadership
(c) social service
(d) journalism
Ans. (b)
49. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of—
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans. (c)
50. The first electric railway opened in—
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans. (d)
L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam Solved Model Question Paper
1. Talcher is famous for—
(a) Steel
(b) Fertilizer
(c) Coal
(d) Thermal Power Station
Ans. (d)
2. The first hydroelectric Power station was commissioned at —
(a) Chambal
(b) Damodar
(c) Mandi
(d) Shivasamudram
Ans. (d)
3. Who was the Temporary Chairman of Constituent Assembly —
(a) Sachchidanand Sinha
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. BR. Ambedkar
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (a)
4. ‘Fundamental Duties’ were added in the Constitution of India by—
(a) 40th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans. (b)
5. High Courts of Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai were established under the—
(a) Government of India Act, 1909
(b) Indian High Court Act, 1865
(c) Indian High Court Act, 1861
(d) Indian High Court Act, 1911
Ans. (c)
6. In Constitution setting up of Village Panchayats finds mention under—
(a) Art. 40
(b) Art. 48
(c) Art 51
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. Constitution provides residuary powers to—
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Central and State Governments both
(d) Neither Central Govt. nor State Govt
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Promoting international peace
(b) Providing free and compulsory education to children upto the age of 14 years
(c) Prohibition of slaughter of cows
(d) Abolition of private property
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following is a source of income of Gram Panchayat?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Professional Tax
(d) Levy Duties
Ans. (d)
10. The duration between two Sessions of Parliament should not be more than—
(a) 9 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans. (d)
11. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the jurisdiction of—
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
12. Where is the headquarters of OPEC?
(a) Vienna
(b) Riyadh
(c) Algiers
(d) Baghdad
Ans. (a)
13. The six official languages of the U.N: are Russian, Chinese, English, French, Spanish and:
(a) Hindi
(b) Arabic
(c) Urdu
(d) Japanese
Ans. (b)
14. International Day of Disabled is observed on—
(a) December 13th
(b) December 3rd
(c) December 23rd
(d) December 30th
Ans. (b)
15. Chattisgarh was created as the state—
(a) 28th
(b) 26th
(c) 25th
(d) 27th
Ans. (b)
16. As per Census 2001, which state is most populated after Uttar Pradesh and Mahrashtra?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
17. The first country to issue paper currency was—
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Ans. (c)
18. Which leading daily newspapers of India has second largest circulation?
(a) The Times of India
(b) The Indian Express
(c) Dainik Jagran
(d) Dainik Bhaskar
Ans. (b)
19. ‘Bharat Bharati’ was written by—
(a) Jai Shankar Prasad
(b) Maithili Saran Gupt
(c) Prem Chand
d) Swami Sivananda
Ans. (b)
20. The book ‘Midnight’s Children’ is written by—
(a) Shakespeare
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Khushwant Singh
Ans. (c)
21. The headquarter of Indian Space Research Organization is at—
(a) Mumbai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
22. In which of these forms is energy found in a dry shell?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Electrical
(c) Chemical
(d) Electro Magnetic
Ans. (c)
23. Which is the hardest element of the following?
(a) Diamond
(b) Lead
(c) Tungsten
(d) Iron
Ans. (a)
24. Which of these is called ‘Land of Rising Sun’?
(a) Norway
(b) Britain
(c) Japan
(d) India
Ans. (c)
25. What is blue vitriol?
(a) Copper sulphate
(b) Calcium
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium Sulphate
Ans. (a)
26. Which language is 2nd most spoken, language of India?
(a) Telugu
(b) Tamil
(c) Marathi
(d) Bengali
Ans. (d)
27. ‘Karagam’ is the folk dance of—
(a) ‘Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Himacha1 Pradesh
Ans. (b)
28. Who started the first newspaper in India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) James Hickey
Ans. (d)
29. The ‘SAARC’ was founded in—
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Ans. (d)
30. The largest constituent of atmospheric air is—
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) water vapour
Ans. (b)
31. Which of the following is a warm current?
(a) California Current
(b) Brazilian Current
(c) Venezuela Current
(d) Labrador Current
Ans. (b)
32. On the surface of the earth, the largest ocean is—
(a) Atlantic
(b) Indian
(c) Pacific
(d) Arctic
Ans. (c)
33. U. Thant Cup is associated with —
(a) tennis
(b) golf
(c) football
(d) world badminton (women)
Ans. (a)
34. Kakrapara project is related to the development of which of these?
(a) Tapti Valley
(b) Narmada Valley
(c) Tungbhadra Valley
(d) Krishna Valley
Ans. (a)
35. National Highways Number I connect?
(a) Mumbai to Kolkata
(b) Delhi to Kolkata
(c) Mumbai to Delhi
(d) Delhi to Amritsar
Ans. (d)
36. India is known for 80% deposits of which of the minerals?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Plutonium
(d) Mica
Ans. (d)
37. Which is the longest river in southern part of India?
(a) Godavari
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Cauvery
(d) Krishna
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following countries has the least area?
(a) Bermuda
(b) Syria
(c) Nigeria
(d) Vatican City
Ans. (d)
39. The brightest planet is?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury
Ans. (a)
40. Two states which produce largest amount of tobacco are?
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(b) West Bengal and Mahrashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat
Ans. (d)
41. Yasin Merchant is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Badminton
(b) Golf
(c) Hockey
(d) Snooker
Ans. (d)
42. ‘Dwar Samudra’ was the capital of—
(a) Cheras
(b) Yadavas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Hoyasalas
Ans. (d)
43. Deficiency of iron causes which of the following diseases?
(a) Rickets
(b) Anaemia
(c) Scurvy
(d) Over Bleeding
Ans. (b)
44. In which of these countries does it rain in the cold season?
(a) China
(b) Norway
(c) Brazil
(d) Nigeria
Ans. (c)
45. What is ‘Mona Lisa’?
(a) A painting
(b) Drama
(c) Intelligence of France
(d) Novel
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the following dynasties of Rajputs did not surrender in front of Akbar?
(a) Sisodia Dynasty
(b) Parmar Dynasty
(c) Chauhan Dynasty
(d) Chandela Dynasty
Ans. (a)
47. Water is soluble in ionic salts because—
(a) Its boiling point is high
(b) Its dipolar moment is more
(c) Of its more specific heat
(d) It has no colour
Ans. (b)
48. Mica is mainly found in—
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
49. What is mixed economy?
(a) Co-operation between public and private sectors
(b) Competition between public and private sectors
(c) Special force in public sector.
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
50. Who was the First King of Tughlaq Dynasty?
(a) Gias-ud-din Tughlaq
(b) Malik Tughlaq
(c) Mohammed Bin Tughlaq
(d) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
Ans. (a)
RRB ASM General Knowledge Solved Paper
1. Who is known as the ‘Iron Man of India’?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (C)
2. In which of the following fields did Tenzing Norgay distinguish himself?
A. Boxing
B. Mountaineering
C. Archery
D. Hockey
Ans. (B)
3. Who was the first lady Prime Minister of the World?
A. Sirimavo Bhandranaike
B. Margaret Thatcher
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Golda Meir
Ans. (A)
4. Where is Central Potato Research Institute?
A. Shimla
B. Lucknow
C. Kanpur
D. Bhopal
Ans. (A)
5. With which field is ‘Vikram Seth’ associated?
A. Space Research
B. Literature
C. Journalism
D. Music
Ans. (B)
6. India’s anti-tank missile is:
A. Akash
B. Agni
C. Prithvi
D. Nag
Ans. (D)
7. The major difference between the Moderates and the Extremists in the Congress Session of 1907 was regarding —
(a) Education
(b) Boycott
(c) Satyagraha
(d) Swaraj
Ans. (b)
8. Devaluation of currency helps in promoting—
(a) imports
(b) exports
(c) tourism
(d) national income
Ans. (b)
9. Which Indian State is the largest producer of cashew nuts?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (b)
10. 1930 is associated with—
(a) Presentation of Nehru Report
(b) Dandi March
(c) Second Round Table Conference
(d) Lahore Congress
Ans. (b)
11. Indian Railways has recently decided to set up a new Wheel & Axle factory at:
A. Chhapra
B. Harnaut
C. Jamalpur
D. Darbhanga
Ans. (A)
12. Match the following cities of South India with their States:
(a) Coimbatore 1. Kerala
(b) Cochin (Kochi) 2. Karnataka
(c) Mangalore 3. Tamil Nadu
(d) Vijayanagar 4. Andhra Pradesh
A. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
C. a-1, b3, c-2, d-4
D. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Ans. (B)
13. With which of the following gland/organ is ‘diabetes’ associated?
A. Thyroid
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Kidney
Ans. (C)
14. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
A. Heart
C. Eye
B. Kidney
D. Ear
Ans. (C)
15. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between:
A. 250 to 350 mg
B. 150 to 250 mg
C. 100 to 150 mg
D. 50 to 100 mg
Ans. (C)
16. Choose the correct chronological order of dynasties:
A. Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji
B. Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji, Lodi
C. Khilji, Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq
D. Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Lodi
Ans. (D)
17. Token currency was introduced in India for the first time by:
A. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
C. Alauddin Khilji
D. Qutubuddin Aibak
Ans. (B)
18. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A. Bairam Khan — Akbar
B. Jaswant Singh — Aurangzeb
C. Amir Khusrau — Jehangir
D. Ambar Malik — Humayun
Ans. (C)
19. Match the. following ancient books with their authors:
(a) Mahabharata 1. Kalidasa
(b) Kadambari 2. Panini
(c) Meghadoot 3. Banabhatta
(d) Asthadhyayi 4. Ved Vyas
A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3,
B. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporari1y?
(a) Decrease in taxes
(b) Increase in wages
(c) Decrease in money supply
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. With which aspect of Commerce are ‘bull’ and ‘hear’ associated?
A. Banking
B. Foreign Trade
C. Stock Market
D. Internal Trade
Ans. (C)
22. The Tenth Five-Year Plan pertains to which period?
A. 2000-01 to 2004-05
B. 2001-02 to 2005-06
C. 2002-03 to 2006-07
D. 2003-04 to 2007-08
Ans. (C)
23. Debt service ratio implies ratio between:
A. export and total payout on debt
B. import and total debt
C. domestic saving and• import
D. domestic saving and total debt
Ans. (A)
24 Who said, where wealth accumulates, men decay”?
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Mao-Tse-Thng
C. Karl Marx
D. Goldsmith
Ans. (D)
25. Gresham’s law in economic relates to:
A. distribution of goods and services
B. circulation of currency
C. supply and demand
D. consumption and supply
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is true?
1. It is not based on Adult Franchise
2. It resulted from direct elections
3. it was a multiparty body
4. it worked through several committees
A. l and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (C)
27. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
A. Money Bills
B. Bills pertaining, to the powers of the Supreme court of State Judiciary
C. Bills proclaiming the state of emergency arising out of war or external aggression
D. Bills bringing a State under emergency rules
Ans. (A)
28. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either Houses of the Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. l year
D. No time limit
Ans. (B)
29. Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading at:
A. —273°
B. —40°
C. —32°
D. 100°
Ans. (B)
30. Match the scientists with their inventions:
(a) C. Marconi 1. Gramophone
(b) J.L. Baird 2. Radio
(c) Alexander Graham Bell 3. Television
(d) Thomas Alva Edison 4. Telephone
A. a-l, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
Ans. (D)
31. In the process of galvanization, an iron sheet is coated with:
A. aluminum
B. zinc
C. tin
D. chromium
Ans. (B)
32. Rate of evaporation does not depend upon:
A. temperature of the liquid
B. surface area of the liquid
C. mass of the liquid
D. air pressure
Ans. (C)
33. Which of the following process produce Hydrogen gas?
A. Electrolysis of water
B. Passing of steam over red hot iron
C. Reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid
D. All of these
Ans. (A)
34. Match the following with their chemical formulae
(a) Common Salt 1. Na2 SiO3
(b) Alum 2. NaCl
(c) Gypsum 3. K2SO4. Al2 (SO4)3 24H2O
(d) Quartz 4. CaSO4. 2H2O
A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
B. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
C. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
D. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
Ans. (A)
35. Which of the following is an element?
A. Ruby
B. Sapphire
C. Emerald
D. Diamond
Ans. (D)
36. Which of the following is true regarding a catalyst?
1. It increases the rate of reaction
2. It increases the activation energy
3. It reduces the activation energy
4. It is consumed in the reaction
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5
Ans. (B)
37. The hydraulic automobiles application of:
A. Archimedes’ Principle
B. Pascal’s law
C. Bernoulli’s theorem
D. Faraday’s law
Ans. (B)
38. Match the following countries with their capitals:
(a) Nigeria 1. Luanda
(b) Qatar 2. Abuja
(c) Zambia 3. Lusaka
(d) Angola 4. Doha
A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-l
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-l
C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
D. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-l
Ans. (A)
39. Which of the following planets orbits around the sun in backward direction from east to west?
A. Earth
C. Venus
B. Mercury
D. Jupiter
Ans. (C)
40. More than two third of world’s tin comes from which country?
A. China
B. Malaysia
C. Nigeria
D. Brazil
Ans. (A)
41. The largest temple in the world
A. Meenakshi Temple
B. Angkor Vat
C. Pashupati Nath Temple of Nepal
D. Kashi Vishwanath Temple
Ans. (B)
42. Aryabhatta was India’s renowned:
A. Poet
B. Physicist
C. Mathematician
D. Physician
Ans. (C)
43. Which of the following pair does not match?
A. Sariska Sanctuary – Rajasthan
B. Kaziranga National Park – Assam (Asom)
C. Ghana Bird Sanctuary – Meghalaya
D. Shivpuri National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)
44. Match the following hill stations of India with their states:
(a) Gulmarg 1. Rajasthan
(b) Dalhousie 2. Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mt. Abu 3. Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Panchmarhi 4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Uttaranchal
A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B. á-5, b-3, c-i, d-2
C. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-5
D. a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1
Ans. (A)
45. On which river the Pong Dam has been constructed?
A. Ganga
B. Tapti
C. Yamuna
D. Beas
Ans. (D)
46. Which country is the world’s largest supplier of silk?
A.. USA
B. Japan
C. China
D. India
Ans. (C)
47. Which one of the following does not contribute to development in India?
A. Technological research
B. Population growth
C. Diversification of industry
D. Increased saving
Ans. (B)
48. ‘Jog’ the highest water fall in India is located in the state of
A. Uttaranchal.
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
Ans. (D)
49. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the:
A. Chief Justice
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Union Cabinet
Ans. (C)
50. The first state in India carved out on a linguistic basis was:
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Orissa
C. Manipur
D. Kerala
Ans. (A)
gk questions of orissa police
Solved Paper for Police Constable ,Driver Exam
1. ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ slogan was given by
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (B)
2. The people of Indus Valley Civilization worshipped
(a) Brahma
(b) Vishnu
(c) Pashupati
(d) Indra and Varun
Ans. (c)
3. Ashoka was related to:
(a) Haryak dynasty
(b) Mauryan dynasty
(c) Gupta dynasty
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. The Rajasthan canal takes water from the river
A. Ravi
B. Ghaghara
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
Ans. (D)
5. Mettur dam is situated on the river
A. Cauvery
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Mahanadi
Ans. (A)
6. Tirupati temple is located in—
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Ans. (b)
7. Which Pakistani scientist is suspected to be involved in giving nuclear know how to other countries?
A. Shahariyar Khan
B. Imaran Khán
C. Javed Kazi
D. Abdul Qadir Khan
Ans. (D)
8. Who is the chief minister of Asom?
A. Tarun Gagoi
B. Hiteshwar Saikia
C. Prafful Kumar Mohanta
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
9. International Women’s Day is celebrated on
A. May 27
B. January 9
C. April 7
D. March 8
Ans. (D)
10. Amnesty International is—
(a) a human rights group
(b) a refugee camp in Somalia
(c) a wing of World Bank
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
11. Insulin controls the metabolism of—
(a) sugars
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) salts
Ans. (a)
12. Sariska bird sanctuary is situated in
A. Haryana
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)
13. If it is 4p.m. on Monday at l50° W longitude, what is the time at 150 ° E longitude?
A. Sunday, 8 p.m.
B. Tuesday, 4a.m.
C. Tuesday, 4p.m.
D. Tuesday, 12 noon
Ans. (D)
14. The mixed economy means
A. Equal importance for agriculture and heavy industries
B. Co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
C. Co-existence of the poor and the rich
D. Co-existence of private and public sectors
Ans. (D)
15. Loktak lake is situated in which state?
A. Manipur
B. Sikkim
C. Tripura
D. Mizoram
Ans. (A)
16. Which of the following diseases cannot be prevented by vaccination?
A. Whooping cough
B. Smallpox
C. Polio
D. Diabetes
Ans. (C)
17. Spondylitis affects which organ of the body?
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Spinal cord
D: Brain
Ans. (C)
18. Who composed Ain-e-Akbari?
A. Farista
B. Ibn Batuta
C. Abul Fazal
D. Birbal
Ans. (C)
19. Who introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
A. Dalhousie
B. Canning
C. Rippon
D. Lytton
Ans. (A)
20. Who permitted the English to establish first factory in India?
A. Akbar
B. Jehangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Aurangzeb
Ans. (B)
21. The word Buddha means
A. A winner
B. A preacher
C. An Enlightened
D. A traveler
Ans. (C)
22. Who determined the boundary between India and Pakistan?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Sir Radcliff
C. Sir Cripps
D. Laurence
Ans. (B)
23. When did the British Government annul the partition of Bengal?
A. 1919
B. 1917
C.1914
D. 1911
Ans. (D)
24. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the framers of the Indian constitution?
A. L. B. Kriplani
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. J. L. Nehru
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans. (D)
25. Who gave the most effective slogan “Do or Die” during Quit India Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. J. L Nehru
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (A)
26. Where were the Olympics 2008 held?
A. China
B. Greece
C. Italy
D. France
Ans. (A)
27. Which vitamin is provided by sunlight to body?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (d)
28. The longest river of Karnataka is
A. Krishna
B. Cauvery
C. Tungbhadra
D. Godavari
Ans. (A)
29. Which city of Karnataka is growing fast in the field of information technology and software?
A. Bhadravati
B. Mysore
C. Hassan
D. Bengluru
Ans. (D)
30. Which of the following is not a tax of the Central Government?
A. Income tax
B. Excise duty
C. Land revenue
D. Corporate tax
Ans. (C)
31. Which countries are related to Palk strait?
A. India and Sri Lanka
B. North Korea and South Korea
C. China and Pakistan
D. Britain and France
Ans. (A)
32. Which of the following states is the largest in area?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)
33. Which of the following rivers flows to the west?
A. Godavari
B. Cauvery
C. Narmada
D. Krishna
Ans. (C)
34. Who was elected the permanent chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946?
A. J. L. Nehru
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. K.M. Munsi
Ans. (B)
35. First general elections were held in India during
A. 1949 — 50
B. 1950 — 51
C. 1951 — 52
D. 1956 — 7
Ans. (C)
36. The longest dam in India is
A. Bhakra Nangal dam
B. Nagarjun Sagar dam
C. Hirakud dam
D. Kosi dam
Ans. (C)
37. The jog water fall is situated in
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Karnataka
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)
38. The brightest planet is
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Venus
D. Mercury
Ans. (C)
39. The currency of Italy is
A. Dollar
B. Waht
C. Pound
D. Lira
Ans. (D)
40. The rings are found around
A. Uranus
B. Jupiter
C. Mars
D. Saturn
Ans. (D)
41. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
A. copper
B. Iron
C. Aluminum
D. Tungsten
Ans. (D)
42. ‘Clove’ is obtained from
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Bud
D. Fruit
Ans. (C)
43. A mega city has a minimum population of:
(a) 10 lakhs
(b) 20 lakhs
(c) 50 lakhs
(d) 1 crore
Ans. (d)
44 The language of Chola rulers was:
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Kannada
(c) Tamil
(d) Telugu
Ans. (c)
45. Gandhiji started march to Dandi from:
(a) Dandi
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Gujarat
(c Champaran
Ans. (b)
46. Which the following rivers pass through valley?
(a) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b)
47. The sex ratio is the highest in
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d7. Mizoram
Ans. (a)
48. The post of collector in India was created in the
(a) 1772
(b) 1779
(c) 1792
(d) 1882
Ans. (a)
49. Who defeated the Marathas in
the third battle of Panipat?
(a) Afghans
(b) Mughals
(c) English
(d) French
Ans. (a)
50. The number of Puranas is:
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 16
Ans. (a)
Numerical reasoning / maths test
free online maths test question solved
1. (7857 + 3596 + 4123) ÷ 96 =?
(a) 155.06
(b) 62.25
(c) 151.83
(d) 165.70
Ans. (b)
2. 741560 + 935416 + 1143 + 17364=?
(a) 1694583
(b) 1695438
(c) 1695483
d) 1659483
Ans. (c)
3. 36% of 4800 x 0.2% of 1320=?
(a) 4535.52
(b) 4551.36
(c) 4561.92
(d) 4572.48
Ans. (c)
4. Raman’s salary is decreased by 10%. By what per cent his decreased salary is raised to have the original salary?
(a) 10 %
(b) 11 %
(c) 11 %
(d) 12 %
Ans. (c)
5. To get 35% of a number, the number should be multiplied by
(a) 7/20
(b) 3.5
(c) ?7/20
(d) 5/20
Ans. (a)
6. The number whose 20% is 10, is:
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 70
Ans. (c)
7. A sum doubles in 20 years at a certain rate of simple interest. In how many years will it be four times of itself?
(a) 40 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 80 years
Ans. (c)
8. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50. The ratio of these numbers is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 5:1
Ans. (b)
9 The population of a town increases at 10% per annum. If the present population is 1,60,000 what will he the population after 4 years?
(a) 1,94,481
(b) 1,78,641
(c) 1,92,000
(d) 1,65,000
Ans. (a)
10. The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 1: 27. The ratio of their surface areas will be
(a) 1:3
(b) 1:6
(c) 1:9
(d) 1:18
Ans. (c)
11. The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 4% per annum in 4 years is Rs 80 more than the simple interest on the same sum at 59 per annum after 3 years. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 7,000
(b) Rs. 7,500
(c) Rs. 8,000
(d) Rs. 8,500
Ans. (c)
12. At what rate of compound interest a sum will be 25/16 times of itself in 2 years?
(a) 16%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Ans. (d)
13. In an examination, a student gets 20% of total marks and fails by 30 marks. Another student gets 32% of total marks which is more than the minimum pass marks by 42 marks. The pass percentage is
(a) 24%
(b) 25 %
(c) 26%
(d) 28 %
Ans. (b)
14. A particle is thrown upwards at the velocity of 39.2 m/sec. Time to reach the highest point is:
(a) 3 seconds
(b) 4 seconds
(c) 3.75 seconds
(d) 4.75 seconds
Ans. (b)
15. If the interest is compounded annually and the compound interest after 3 years at 10% per annum on a sum is Rs. 331 the principal is:
(a) Rs. 900
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1050
(d) Rs. 1100
Ans. (b)
16. A shopkeeper earns 20% by allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. An article is marked at Rs. 280 its actual price is:
(a) Rs. 195
(b) Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 225
(d) Rs. 215
Ans. (b)
17. Ram bought 1600 eggs at the rate of Rs. 3.75 per dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 eggs for Re 1 and the remaining at 5 eggs for Rs. 2. Find his loss or gain per cent.
(a) 40%
(b) 45 %
(c) 42%
(d) 46 %
Ans. (d)
18. In an election a candidate gets 40% of votes polled and is defeated by the winning candidate by 298 votes. Find the total number of votes polled.
(a) 1360
(b) 1490
(c) 1520
(d) 1602
Ans. (b)
19. Two numbers are less then the third number by 30% and 37% respectively. By what per cent is the second number less than the first number?
(a) 15%
(b) 10%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
Ans. (b)
20. A man goes from A to B at the speed of 5 kmph and returns from B to A at 4 kmph.
His average speed during the whole journey is:
(a) 35/9 —kmph
(b 40/9 —kmph
(c) 46/9 —kmph
(d) 50/9 – kmph
Ans. (b)
General Knowledge Informations General Knowledge in India
1. The first animal domesticated by Neolithic people was:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Dog
(d) Horse
Ans. (c)
2. In the Vedic age:
(a) polygamy was unknown
(b) child marriage was prominent
(c) widow could remarry
(d) hypergamy was allowed
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following wrongly matched?
(a) Namdeva – Mahrashtra
(b) Chaitanya – Bengal
(c) Narsimha Mehta – Gujarat
(d) Vallabhacharya – Gujarat
Ans. (d)
4. Name the Persian version of the Mahabharata, translated during Akbar’s reign:
(a) Akbar Namah
(b) Iqbal Namah
(c) Saminatu-ul-Alulity
(d) Razmnamah
Ans. (d)
5. The Marathas were defeated in the Anglo-Maratha wars due to
(a) Lack of capable leadership
(b) Military weaknesses
(c) Failure in estimating correctly the strength of the British
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following Acts delegated the power of framing laws to the council of the Governor General?
(a) Charter Act – 1833
(b) Charter Act – 1853
(c) The Government of India Act- 1919
(d) The Government of India Act- 1935
Ans. (a)
7. Who was the founder of Darpan?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Sachindranath Sanyal
(c) Bal Shastri Jambekar
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Ans. (c)
8. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was/ are
(a) Railways
(b) Plantation and Mines
(c) Banking and Insurance
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. The first weekly paper published by the Indian National Congress in 1889, was
(a) Young India
(b) India
(c) Indian People.
(d) Voice of India
Ans. (a)
10. Lala Lajpat Rai suffered vital injuries during the demonstration against the:
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massarcre
(d) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (b)
11. The only annual session of the Congress presided over by Gandhiji was
(a) Kakinada — 1923
(b) Belgaum — 1924
(c) Kanpur — 1925
(d) Guwahati — 1926
Ans. (b)
12. Habeas Corpus means:
(a) an order from a court to free a person who has been illegally ‘detained by the police or any other person
(b) an order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in a inferior court for review
(c) an order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(d) an. order from the higher court to stop proceeding in a certain case
Ans. (a)
13. Mixed economy envisages
(a) co-existence of capitalists and labourers
(b) integrated economic development
(c) development of agriculture and industry simultaneously
(d) private and public sectors
Ans. (d)
14. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Bombay Stock Exchange SENSEX
(b) National Stock Exchange NYSE
(c) New York Stock Exchange NIFTY
(d) London Stock Exchange NIKKEI
Ans. (a)
15. The important objectives of the development of cooperative sector are
(a) Prevention of concentration of economic power
(b) Wider dispersal of ownership of productive resources
(c) Active involvement of people in the development programmes
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
16. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established in
(a) 1981
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1992
Ans. (b)
17. Subsidies means
(a) payment by Government for purchase of goods and services
(b) payment by business enterprises to factors of production
(c) payment by companies to share holders
(d) payment by Government to ‘ business enterprises without buying any goods and services
Ans. (a)
18. Which one of the following will directly increases the GNP?
(a) an increase in investment
(b) a surplus in budget
(c) a fall in national debt
(d) a rise in the interest rate
Ans. (a)
19. Who wrote a hook describing the theory of economic drain of India during British Rule?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans. (a)
20. As per 2001 Census the state having highest urban population is
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans. (b)
21. How would you describe the Indian Constitution?
(a) Medium in size
(b) Very small and compact
(c) One of the most elaborate Constitutions in the world
(d) It is not a written Constitution
Ans. (c)
22. Who is competent to amend the fundamental rights?
(a) President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d Parliament
Ans. (d)
23. Name th canal Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea:
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Panama
(c) Suez Canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Amongst the following Indian states which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim
(c) Haryana
(b) Goa
(d) Kerala
Ans. (c)
25. Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
(a) Bengali
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) Portuguese
Ans. (a)
26. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos
Ans. (b)
27. In March-April, 2009 India defeated New Zealand in test cricket match series. This victory came after how many years?
(a) 49 years
(b) 47 years
(c) 46 years
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
28. Who among the following is the winner of Miss India world Wide 2009?
(a) Nikkitasha Marhawa
(b) Kanchan Verma
(c) Shagun Sarahbai
(d) None bf these
Ans. (a)
29. 8th March is celebrated as
(a) International Women’s Day
(b) International Literacy Day
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
30. In IPL-2 version of cricket, the Australian Shane Warne was the captain of which team?
(a) Chennai Super King
(b) Rajasthan Royals
(c) Deccan Chargers
(d) Knight Riders
Ans. (b)
31. In Lok Sabha the number of seats is
(a) 545
(c) 549
(b) 542
(d) 544
Ans. (a)
32: Who is benefited from inflation?
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Banks
(d) Citizens
Ans. (a)
33. Jyoti Randhawa is associated to which sport?
(a) Golf
(b) Badminton
(c) Wrestling
(d) Tennis
Ans. (a)
34. Who is the writer of book Conquest of Self’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Bhai Patel
(d) J.C. Bose
Ans. (a)
35. When is the World Environment Day observed?
(a) 6th June
(b) 4th June
(c) 5th June
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
36. Chandrayaan-I, Indian Moon Mission was launched on
(a) 22 October, 2008
(b) 21 October, 2008
(c) 22 September, 2008
(d) 22 November, 2008
Ans. (a)
37. Who among the following controls /Supervises the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Indian Finance Minister
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
38. Who has defined the office of profit?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Council of ministers
(d) Constitution
Ans. (d)
39. Which of the following is not a Constitutional arrangement?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Union Public Service Corn mission
Ans. (b)
40. Partition of Bengal was done during the period of:
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (a)
41. The blood pressure of a normal person is
(a) 100/80
(b) 100/90
(c) 80/120
(d) 90/100
Ans. (c)
42. Colour blindness related to
(a) heredity
(b) blood pressure
(c) digestive system
(d) respiratory system
Ans. (a)
43. In simple harmonic motion what remains constant?
(a) Amplitude
(b) Angular displacement
(c) Time period
(d) Kinetic energy
Ans. (c)
44. When a glass rod is rubbed by a silken cloth the rod acquires
(a) positive charge
(b) negative charge
(c) positive and negative charge both
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
45. The velocity of sound does not depend on:
(a) temperature
(b) medium
(c) pressure
(d) humidity
Ans. (c)
46. The ultrasonic sound can be heard by:
(a) dogs
(b) men
(c) microphone
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
47. Which of the following is not a hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Thyroxin
(d) Hemoglobin
Ans. (d)
48. The longest among following dams is
(a) Mathon dam
(b) Bhakhara Nangal
(c) Hirakud
(d) Nagarjun Sagar
Ans. (c)
49. Milind Panho is a:
(a) drama in Sanskrit
(b) Jam description
(c) Pali treatise
(d) Persian treatise
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following invented Algebra?
(a) Meghatithi
(b) Bhaskar
(c) Apastamb
(d) Aryabhatta
Ans. (b)
Exam.
1. Dr. Hargobind Khurana won the Nobel Prize for his work
(a) Separation of Genes
(b) For blood Groups
(c) Discovery of DNA
(d) Discovery of AIDS Virus
Ans. (a)
2. In which Olympic year Indian Hockey team won the Gold Medal?
(a) 1988
(b) 1980
(c) 1984
(d) 1976
Ans. (b)
3. Which town is called the city of seven mountains?
(a) London
(b) Rome
(c) Washington
(d) San Francisco
Ans. (b)
4………… are mainly found in simple carbon steel?
(a) Copper and Carbon
(b) Iron and Chromium
(c) Zinc and Iron
(d) Carbon and Iron
Ans. (b)
5. Pair the Sanctuaries with the correct states?
A. Gautam Buddha 1. Bihar
B. Dalma 2. Jharkhand
C. Simlipal 3. Orissa
D. Periyar 4. Kerala
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Ans. (d)
6. Michael Ferreira is related to which of the sports?
(a) Chess
(b) Billiards
(c) Hockey
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
7. Chemical name of Caustic Soda is
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Aluminum Sulphate
(c) Potassium Hydroxide
(d) Sodium Hydroxide
Ans. (d)
8. Who presides over the meetings of the Cabinet Ministers?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Ans. (d)
9. The Constituent Assembly was demanded by Indian National Congress in 1936 in their summit held at:
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Faijpur
(d) Lahore
Ans. (c)
10. Match the right pairs of the following:
Chemical Substance Use
A. Geolite 1. To cut glass
B. Plaster of Paris 2. Washing work
C. Ultramanins 3. Softening of water
D. Corborandum 4. Wrought iron work
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Ans. (b)
11. What is a chromosome?
(a) Part of human brain.
(b) Thread like structures which carries the inheritance codes which is found in the nucleus.
(c) Components of blood.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
12. In a photosynthesis reaction which gas of the following is liberated?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen
Ans. (c)
13. Match the following battlefields according to their states
A. Haldighati 1. Rajasthan
B. Panipat 2. Haryana
C. Baxur 3. Bihar
D. Plassey 4. West Bengal
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-l, C-3, D-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following is a cold blooded animal?
(a) Lizard
(b) Frog
(c) Fish
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
15. Match the following pairs
A. Bangalore 1. City of buildings
B. Mumbai 2. City of gardens
C. Jaipur 3. Gateway of India
D. Kolkata 4. Pink City
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-l
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A3, B-2, C-4, D-l
(d) None Of these
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following is not a metamorphosis rock?
(a) Slate
(b) Sphatik
(c) Marble
(d) Granite
Ans. (d)
17 The lower level of atmosphere is called:
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d) Exosphere
Ans. (b)
18. Who built ‘Jama Masjid’?
(a) Shershah Suri
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Shahjahan
Ans. (d)
19. By which of the following atoms of an element are different from atoms of other elements?
(a) Atomic number and. electronic configuration.
(b) Atomic number and number of covalent electrons.
(c) Number of neutrons and electronic configuration
(d) Number of neutrons and number of covalent electrons.
Ans. (a)
20. Hygrometer is used to measure
(a) Relative density of a liquid.
(b) Purity of milk.
(c) Relative humidity.
(d) Atmospheric pressure.
Ans. (c)
21. In basketball number of players playing in each learn is
(a) 11
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
Ans. (c)
22. Number of permanent members in United Nations Security Council is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 15
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following players is not correctly matched according to his play
(a) Dhyan Chand — Hockey
(b) Syed Modi — Badminton
(c) Leander Paes — Football
(d) Bishen Singh Bedi — Cricket
Ans. (c)
24. Match the following pairs—
A. Radium 1. Roentgen
B. Periodic 2. Mendleleef
C. Quantum principle 3. Madam Curie
D. X-rays 4. Plank
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Ans. (a)
25. ‘Chand Bibi’ who gave Berar to Akbar was the queen of
(a) Golkunda
(b) Behmani
(c) Bijapur
(d) Ahmad Nagar
Ans. (c)
26. Which of the following five years plan was dedicated to maximum growth rate?
(a) 9th
(b) 4th
(c) 7th
(d) 8th
Ans. (a)
27. Signature in ‘Magna Carta’ was during the rule of
(a) John II
(b) Henry IV
(c) Edward V
(d) Queen Elizabeth
Ans. (a)
28. Battle of Haldighati was fought in the year
(a) 1526
(b) 1576
(c) 1605
(d) 1660
Ans. (b)
29. Vedic religion mainly prays to the god of
a) Nature
(b) Pashupati
(c) Godmother
(d) Tridev
Ans. (a)
30. During the rule of ‘Harsha’ the main town in Northern India was
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Ujjain
(c) Kannauj
(d) Thaneshwar
Ans. (d)
31. Headquarter of ‘Asian Development Bank’ is
(a) Manali
(b) Mumbai
(c) Tokyo
(d) Bangkok
Ans. (a)
32. Where were the remains of the Ancient Indian University found?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Ujjain
(c) Varanasi
(d) Vikramshila
Ans. (a)
33: Which of the following towns is called forbidden city?
(a) Lhasa
(b) Vatican city
(c) Las Vegas
(d) Palestine
Ans. (d)
34. Which one of the following apparatuses is used to for measuring blood pressure?
(a) Sphygmomanometer
(b) Pyrometer
(c) Manometer
(d) Hygrometer
Ans. (a)
35. After the French revolution which of the following emerged as a- famous leader?
(a) Waltair
(b) Karl-Marx
(c) Napoleon
(d) Charles-De-Gaulle
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Polio – Monkey
(b) Plague – Rat
(c) Rabbies – Dog
(d) Tapeworm – Pig
Ans. (a)
37. Who among the following is not
appointed by the President of India?
(a) Speaker of Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Army Chief
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Eskimo — Alaska
(b) Afridi — North West Africa
(c) Pigmi — Congo Basin
(d) Badonias — Sahara
Ans. (b)
39. ‘Diego Garcia’ is an island in the
(a) Pacific ocean
(b) Atlantic ocean
(c) Indian ocean
(d) Arctic ocean
Ans. (c)
40. Which of the following animals is not a ‘Mammal’?
(a) Fish
(b) Bat
(c) Whale
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. In Economics the meaning of ‘necessity’ is
(a) to give pleasure
(b) to make profit.
(c) to fulfill human requirement
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
42. Why do clouds not rain in deserts?
(a) High velocity of wind
(b) Low pressure
(c) Low temperature
(d) Low humidity
Ans. (a)
43. Match right following:
A. Civil disobedience movement 1. B.G. Tilak
B. Indian Home Rule 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C. Accepted leader 3. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Brahmo Samaj 4. G.K Gokhale.
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-2
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched in awards and related fields?
(a) Kalinga Award — For development of Science
(b) Booker Prize — Literature
(c) Pulitzer Award — For development of religion
(d) Borlaugh Award — Agriculture
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following river passes through the middle of Vindhya and Satpura mountain range?
(a). Narmada
(b) Tapti
(c) Gandak
(d) Godavari
Ans. (a)
46. Match the suitable pairs of the
A. Sugar bowl of the world 1. Australia
B. The town of high building 2. Thailand
C. Land of white elephant 3. Cuba
D. Land of Kangaroo 4. Los Angeles
5. New York
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(b) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1
(c) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4,C-1, D-2
Ans. (c)
47. Doldrums is related to
(a) The region of pacific and lightly changing wind-snear the mediterranean line
(b) Special zone of pacific ocean
(c) A type of ocean flow
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
48. The principle population increases through multiple series but food increases though arithmetical series, is related to
(a) Malthas
(b) Grasham
(c) Kiens
(d) Angels
Ans. (a)
49. Which of the following trains covers the longest route?
(a) G.T. Express
(b) Guwahati -Trivandrum Express
(c) Gorakhpur -Cochin Express
(d) Karnataka Express
Ans. (b)
50. Which of the following vitamins is useful for eye?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin A
Ans. (d)
general knowledge, bank PO model paper
Free GK Questions With Ans For Bank PO Exams INDIA
1. Which of the following taxes/duties are levied by the Union but appropriated by the States?
(1) Income-tax
(2) Wealth-tax
(3) Stamp duty
(4) Excise duty
Ans: 4
2. Rajdhani Express trains run:
(1) Only between New Delhi and all state capitals
(2) Only between New Delhi and state capitals
(3) Only between New Delhi and important cities
(4) Only between New Delhi and Mumbal, Kolkata and Chennai
Ans: 3
3. How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended so far?
(1)95
(2)104
(3) 102 .
(4) None of these
Ans: 2
4. There is a wide variation of fauna and flora on the earth due to:
(1) varied biosphere
(2) varied hydrosphere
(3) atmospheric changes
(4) different physical environment
Ans: 4
5. Large scale flowering of bamboo plants in the North-Eastern region of the country may result in:
(1) Increased output of bamboo
(2)Increase in rainfall
(3) Better paddy harvest
(4) Famines
Ans: 4
6. Which of the following is not a National Championship Game?
(1) Rangaswamy Cup
(2) Durand Cup
(3) RanjiTrophy
(4) Santosh Trophy
Ans: 1
7. Before joining thç Union of India, Goa was under the occupation of:
(1) Portugal
(2) France
(3) Denmark
(4) Britain
Ans: 1
8. In how many commands the Indian Navy is organised?
(1). One .
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Ans: 3
9. In which of the States, State Assembly functions in two cities?
(1) Uttaranchal
(2) Hlmachal Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: 3
10. Where is the headquarters of Voxwagon Auto Company?
(1) France
(2) Britain
(3) the USA
(4) Germany
Ans: 4
11 Asbestos is:
(1) man made fibre product
(2) naturally occurring mineral
(3) naturally occurring ore
(4) product of cement
Ans: 4
12. if a person is suffering from defective double-layered valve, then which organ of the body is affected?
(1) Stomach
(2) Lungs
(3) Small intestine
(4) Heart
Ans: 4
13. Which of the following is the most important factor for the increase in number of diabetic patients in India?
(1) Distress in daily life
(2) Bad food habit
(3) Dull life style
(4) All the three
Ans: 4
14. The spinal column of man is protected by:
(1) Skull
(2) Vertebrae column
(3) Pericardium
(4) Perichondrium
Ans: 2
15. Which of the following is the smallest ocean?
(1) Pacific
(2) Indian
(3) Arctic
(4) Atlantic
Ans: 3
16. Where can you find the “Sea of Tranquility”?
(1) Mars
(2) Saturn
(3) Moon
(4) Sun
Ans: 3
17. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(1) Ananthasayanam Ayengar
(2) G.V. Maviankar
(3) Sardar Hukum Singh
(4) N. Sanjeeva Recdy
Ans: 2
18. ‘Maple leaf is the symbol of which country? .
(1) Canada
(2) Australia
(3) Kenya
(4) Brazil
Ans: 1
19. The Sir Creek lies in the:
(1) Ranna of Kutch
(2) Palk straits
(3) Andamans
(4) British Isles
Ans: 1
20. The character ‘Gilliver’ was created by:
(1)Jonathan Swift
(2) John Gulliver
(3) William Shakespeare
(4) P.G.Wodehouse
Ans: 1
21. Which has the highest number of voters?
(1)Kerala
(2)Assarm
(3) Tami Nadu
(4) West Bengal
Ans: 4
22. Which of the .following Indian birds is facing extinction due to environmental pollution?
(1) Chicken
(2) Parrot
(3) Vulture
(4) Duck
Ans: 3
23. Quit India Movement was launched due to:
(1) involvement of India in second World War by England.
(2) failure of Cripps Mission
(3 arrest of Congress leaders
(4) improper implementation of 1935 Act
Ans: 2
24. Which Indian language referred to as ‘Italian of the East”?
(1) .Urdu
(2) Tamil
(3) Telugu
(4) Oriya
Ans: 3
25. If the Postal Index number (PIN) begins with ‘6’ then the post office is probably situated In the State of?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Kerala
(3) Karnataka
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: 2
26. Kunwar Singh led Sepoy Muting against British in:
(1)Gaya
(2)Ara
(3) Buxar
(4) Patna
Ans: 2
27. Which of the following forms of carbon can be used as lubricant in heavy machines? (1)Diamond
(2) Dry carbon
(3) Carbon powder
(4) Graphite
Ans: 4
28. Rail and telegraph services were started during the reign of:
(1) Lord Canning
(2) Lord Rippon
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Minto
Ans: 3
29. Which of the following crops increases nitrogen fixation in soil?
(1) Wheat
(2) Beans
(3) Tobacco
(4) Cotton
Ans: 2
30. Which part of the Union.Terrltory of Pondicherry is physically situated in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) Karaikal
(2) Mahe
(3) Yanam
(4) Divi
Ans: 3
31. In which of the following Iraqi cities is situated the famous’Al-Askari’,.place of worship of Shias?
(1) Basra
(2) Baghdad
(3)Karbala
(4)Samara
Ans: 3
32. Which of the following is the nesting place of Olive Ridley tortoise?
(1) Mahabalipuram
(2) Koviam
(3) Andaman
(4)Gahirmath
Ans: 4
33 Which one of the following figures will generate a cone when rotated about one of its straight edges?
(1) An equilateral triangle
(2) A sector of a circle
(3) A segment of circle
(4) A right-angled triangle
Ans. (4)
34. Freedom of the press in India:
(1) Is specifically, provided In Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution
(2) Is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article (19) (1) (a) of the Constitution
(3) Is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361 A of the Constitution
(4) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country
Ans. (2)
35. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is that:
(1) It has a very high transparency
(2) It has a very high refractive index
(3) It is very hard
(4) It has well-defined cleavage planes
Ans. (2)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List-I (Author) List-II (Text)
A. Varahamihira 1. Prabandha -Chitamani
B. Visakhadatta 2. Mirchchha-Katlkam
C. Sudraka 3. Brihat – Samhita
D. Bilhana 4. Devi Chandraguptam
5. Vikrarnankadeva Charita
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 5 2
(2) 3 4 2 5
(3) 5 3 4 1
(4) 1 3 5 2
Ans. (2)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
A. Surat Split 1. 1929
B. Communal Award 2. 1928
C. All party Convention 3. 1932
D. Poorna Swaraj Resolution 4. 1907
5. 1905
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 5
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 2 5 4 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
38. World’s Longest ruling head of Government is from:
(1) Switzerland
(2) Cuba
(3) Zimbabwe
(4) New Zealand
Ans. (2)
39. Which of the following ‘statements is/are false regarding Baglihar Hydroelectric Project?
(1) Construction of dam for the project is on the river Chenab
(2) Pakistan Government is opposing the construction of the dam project
(3) Pakistan Government is opposing the design and height of the dam project
(4) According to the “Indus Water Treaty”, river Chenab falls in the purview of Pakistan
Ans. (2)
40. Which of the following statements is not true for a person holding Dual citizenship?
(1) Dual citizen do not have voting rights
(2) They can not be selected in Government services
(3) Dual citizenship holders can live in India for a period of maximum one year
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
Solved Test Paper Exam Competitive Exams
1. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of:
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 50
Ans. (1)
2. A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 14
(4) 16
Ans. (1)
3. Four volunteers represent the school A, 5 volunteers represent the school 5, 6 volunteers represent the school C, and 3 volunteers represent the school D.
Each of the volunteers shakes hands with every volunteer from school other than his own. If each volunteer shakes hands exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
(1) 153
(2) 141
(3) 119
(4) 108
Ans. (1)
4. A two digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
(1) 27
(2) 36
(3) 45
(4) 54
Ans. (3)
5. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)
6. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it.
Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
(l) 6 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 10 days
(4) 11 days
Ans. (3)
7. Six singers are taking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition. How many comparisons does each judge make between all the singers to select the best among them?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 2
Ans. (1)
8. A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate gets 4 marks for every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer. Which one of the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
(1) 396,395, 394
(2) 393, 392, 391
(3) 392, 391,390
(4) 389, 388, 387
Ans. (3)
9. There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four, possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while traveling from A to C?
(l) 1/12
(2) 1/7
(3) 6/7
(4) 11/12
Ans. (4)
10. In how, many different ways can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only one boy?
(1) 24
(2) 120
(3) 240
(4) 360
Ans. (4)
11. How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
(1) 64
(2) 80
(3) 90
(4)104
Ans. (3)
12. In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices—True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is—
(1) 10
(2) 18
(3) 26
(4) 32
Ans. (4)
13. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions 1/2, 2/3 and 3/4. Then the first part is:
(1) Rs. 182
(2) Rs. 190
(3) Rs. 196
(4) Rs. 204
Ans. (4)
14. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
(1) 60%
(2) 62 1/3 %
(3) 66 2/3 %
(4) 72%
Ans. (3)
15. A train passes through a tunnel whose length is 500 meters in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km. per hour. The length of the train is:
(1) 700 meters
(2) 750 meters
(3) 800 meters
(4) 825 meters
Ans. (1)
16. Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rakesh’s sister is:
(1) 40 years
(2) 38 years
(3) 36 years
(4) 32 years
Ans. (2)
17. The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4:3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3:2. However, both save Rs. 600 – per month.
What is their monthly income?
(1) Rs. 8,400/-
(2) Rs. 5,600/-
(3) Rs. 4,200/-
(4) Rs. 2,800/-
Ans. (3)
18. Which of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?
(1) A squat with an area of 36 sq. cm.
(2) An equilateral triangle with a side of 9cm.
(3) A rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq.cm as area.
(4) A circle with a radius of 4cm.
Ans. (3)
19. If ABC x DEED = ABCABC: where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E ?
(1) D = 2, E = 0
(2) D = 0, E = 1
(3) D = 1, E = 0
(4) D = 1, E = 1
Ans. (3)
20. There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while traveling from A to C?
(1) 1/12
(2) 1/7
(3) 6/7
(4) 11/12
Ans. (4)
21. In how many different ways can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only one boy?
(1) 24
(2) 120
(3) 240
(4) 360
Ans. (4)
22. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
(1) 6 months
(2) l year
(3) 2 years
(4) 2 years and months
Ans. (2)
23. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions 1/2, 2/3, and 3/4 .Then the first part is
(1) Rs. 182
(2) Rs. 190
(3) Rs. 196
(4) Rs. 204
Ans. (4)
24. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
(1) 60 %
(2) 62 1/3 %
(3) 66 2/3 %
(4) 72 %.
Ans. (3)
25. A train passes. through a tunnel whose length is 500 meters in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km per hour. The length of the train is—
(1) 700 meters
(2) 750 meters
(3) 800 meters
(4) 825 meters
Ans. (1)
26. Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh’s. sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rakesh’s sister is:
(1) 40 years
(2) 38 years
(3) 36 years
(4) 32 years
Ans. (2)
27. A farmer traveled a distance of 61 km. in 9 hours. He traveled partly on foot at the rate of 4 km. per hour and partly on-bicycle at the rate of 9 km. per hour. The distance traveled on foot is:
(1) 17 km
(2) 16 km
(3) 15 km
(4) 14 km
Ans. (2)
28. A Club has 106 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club?
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 27
(4) 30
Ans. (3)
29. A bag contains 20 balls, 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the
minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without re-
p1acing any of it) to be assured picking at least one ball of each colour?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 16
Ans. (4)
30. In a wooden box, there are 4 red and 4 black balls. If two balls are taken out simultaneously at random, then the’ probability of both the balls being red is:
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/8
(4) 3/14
Ans. (4)
31. Examine the following series of numbers:
50, x, 32, x +2, 29, 95, 72, 48, 84, 78
If value of the median is 63, and x lies between 55 and 66, the value of x is:
(1) 56
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 65
Ans. (3)
32. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other before 9.30 am?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
Ans. (3)
33. A train starts from Delhi for Mumbai at 5.30 a.m. while another train starts from Mumbai at 6.00 a.m. for Delhi. Both the trains run at same speed and each takes 24 hours to complete the journey. When shall the trains cross each other?
(1) 5.35 p.m.
(2) 5.45 p.m.
(3) 6.10 p.m.
(4) 6.15 p.m.
Ans. (2)
34. In a circle, points A an B lie on the opposite ends of a diameter while point C lies on the circumference. Given: AC = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm. Then, the length AB
(1) is equal to 3 cm.
(2) is equal to 28 cm.
(3) is equal to 20 cm.
(4) cannot be determined from the given data
Ans. (3)
35. If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, in how many days can the same work be done by 6 men and 11 women?
(1) 12 days
(2) 13 1/2 days
(3) 15days
(4) l8 days
Ans. (3)
36. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)
37. What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm x 5 cm x 10 cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm x 30 cm x 30 cm size?
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 18
(4) 30
Ans. (3)
38. A rectangular water tank measures 15m x 6m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn-out lowering the level by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out?
(1) 90,000 liters
(2) 45,000 liters
(3) 4,500 liters
(4) 900 liters
Ans. (1)
39. In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices—True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is—
(1) 10
(2) 18
(3) 26
(4) 32
Ans. (4)
40. If Rs. 1000 invested at 12% interest and interest compounded half yearly, what will be the total amount at the end of one year?
(1) 1120.00
(2) 1123.60
(3) 1126.20
(4) 1134.40
Ans. (2)
General Knowledge for Entrance Exams UPSC CDS
1. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)
2. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)
3. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)
4. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)
5, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)
6. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: : The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
7. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)
8. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)
9 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)
10. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)
11. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)
12. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)
13. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)
14. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)
15. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)
16. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)
17. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
18. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
19. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)
20. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)
21. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)
22. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)
23. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)
24. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)
25. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)
26. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)
27. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)
28.Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)
29. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)
30. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)
31. Consider the map given below:
The map shows the sea voyage route followed by:
(1) Thomas Cook
(2) Ferdinand Magellan
(3) John Cabot
(4) Vasco de Gama
Ans. (2)
32. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)
33. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)
34. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)
35. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)
36. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)
37. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)
38. Which of the following are correctly matched?
A
Establishment of Manufacturing B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras
Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)
39. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)
40 The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)
42. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal ?
(1) A written and rigid Constitution
(2) An independent Judiciary
(3) Vesting of residuary powers with the Center
(4) Distribution of powers between in the Centre and the States
Ans. (4)
43.The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of Rice are:
(1) rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25°C
(2) cool and moist climate for the entire drop period
(3) rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25ºC
(4) warm and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans. (1)
44. Even though the Railways are the most pervasive mode of transport in India, it is the
road transport which received the maximum impetus in most of the post-independence period Which of the following are the reasons for this?
1. Railways are cheap to operate but the associated capital costs are very high
2. Given the geographic spread of the human settlements it is unrealistic that the railway alone can serve the needs of transport
3. The per unit (Tonne/kn) cost of transport is cheaper in road compared to rail transport
4. Given the indivisible nature of the railways, it is not always convenient for the population to avail of it with the same case as private cars, buses or two- wheelers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1,2 and 3
(2) l, 2 and 4
(3) 1, 3 and 4
(4) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (City) List-II (Industry)
A. Coimbatore 1. Petroleum Refining
B. Rourkela 2. Rail Coach
C. Kapurthala 3. Iron and Steel
D. Barauni 4. Cotton Textiles
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 2 3 l
Ans. (1)
46. Which radioactive pollutant has drawn the attention of the public, due to its occurrence in the building material?
(1) Plutonium
(2) Thorium
(3) Radon
(4) Radium
Ans. (2)
47. Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama, is invariably a:
(1) Brahmana
(2) Kshatriya
(3) Vaishya
(4) Shudra
Ans. (1)
48. The colour of a star is an indication of Its:
(1) distance from the sun
(2) luminosity.
(3) distance from the earth
(4) temperature
Ans. (4)
49.Those Joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran struggle included:
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel and Vinoba Bhave
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(3) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narayan Singh
(4) Mahadev Desai and Maniben Patel
Ans. (3)
50. The controversial Terminator Technology backed by developed nations seeks to provide:
(1) bio technologically tin- proved variety of seeds which are ensured to yield sterile seed for next generation
(2) transgenic seeds which ensure no- terminating passage of good traits generation after generation
(3) selective termination of crop diseases
(4) hybrid seeds that can be eaten but not grown
Ans. (1)
general science questions answers
general knowledge question answer
1. On average, how many scalp hairs normally fall out each day?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
2. The breathing control centre is located
(a) Front of brain
(b) Base of brain
(c) In the lungs
(d) In the medulla
Ans: b
3. Blood escaping from an artery is
(a) Bright red and oozing
(b) Dark red and oozing
(c) Bright red and spurting
(d) Dark red and spurting
Ans: c
4. The trachea and alveoli are part of the
(a) Cardiovascular or circulatory system
(b) Musculoskeletal system
(c) Respiratory system
(d) Nervous system
Ans: c
5. How many vertebrae are in the spinal column?
(a) 13
(b) 33
(c) 26
(d) 40
Ans: b
6. Glutaraldehyde is a hazardous substance because
(a) it is a carcinogen
(b) it causes reproductive health effects
(c) it is an irritant to skin, eyes and respiratory tract
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
7. HIV/AIDS is transmitted through
(a) water
(b) blood
(c) body fluids such as semen, vaginal secretions and breast milk
(d) b and c
Ans: d
8. HIV positive (HIV+) means that
(a) a person who carries the virus
(b) a person who has AIDS
(c) a person infected with HIV
(d) a. person infected with sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
Ans: c
9. The action of the gluteus medius is to
(a) Extend the femur
(b) Adduct and laterally rotate the femur
(c) Flex the femur
(d) Abduct and medially rotate the femur
Ans: a
10. What are erythrocytes?
(a) Cells that fight infection
(b) Cells that transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Cells responsible for blood clotting
(d) Cells that form collagen
Ans: b
11. Which of the following is a contra indication to reflexology?
(a) Phlebitis
(b) Fatigue
(c) Acne
(d) Insomnia
Ans: a
12. Which vessel carries oxygen into the heart?
(a) Inferior vena cava
(b) Pulmonary vein
(c) Superior vena cava
(d) Pulmonary artery
Ans: b
13. Which part of the female reproductive systems contains thousands of egg cells?
(a) Ovaries
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) None of these
Ans: a
14. What is emphysema?.
(a) Inflammation of the lung tissue
(b) Inflammation of the bronchial tubes
(c) Inflammation of the pleural lining of the lungs
(d) Loss of stretch and elasticity of the alveoli
Ans: d
15. What is the percentage of total daily calories needed to digest food?
(a) 25 per cent
(b) 20 per cent
(c) 15 per cent
(d) 10 per cent
Ans: c
16. What is cystitis?
(a) An inflammation of the urethra
(b) An inflammation of the kidney
(c) An inflammation of the ureter
(d) An inflammation of the bladder
Ans: d
17. What causes blood clots?
(a) Low blood pressure
(b) A fatty diet
(c) The use of oral contraceptives
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
18. What are symptoms of vertigo?
(a) Frequent dizziness
(b) Light sensitivity
(c) Headaches
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
19. Which disease is Not associated with arthritis?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Psoriasis
(d) Cirrhosis
Ans: b
20. What is a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
(a) Sweaty palms
(b) Cold hands
(c) Fatigue
(d) Numbness or tingling thumb
Ans: d
21. What is Not a classic symptom of migraine?
(a) Dull, pressure-like pain
(b) Pain that lasts six to 48 hours
(c) A flash of light that appears before an attack
(d) Pain accompanied by nausea or dizziness
Ans: a
22. What may cause headaches?
(a) Fatigue
(b) Smoking
(c) Caffeine use
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
23. Basal metabolic rate is:
(a) the amount of energy the body needs to function at rest
(b) the amount of energy burned during exercise
(c) the amount of energy metabolized during eating
(d) the amount of energy spent thinking about calories
Ans: a
24. A calorie is a unit of:
(a) Fat
(b) Heat
(c) Temperature
(d) Guilt
Ans: b
25. Calluses and corns are two forms of the same skin condition. What is it?
(a) Raised patches of skin filled with watery matter
(b) Hard growths on the skin caused by a virus
(c) Small colored spots on the skin that are usually raised and hairy
(d) Areas of thickened skin caused by pressure or friction
Ans: d
26. What are symptoms of the diabetes?
(a) Increased thirst, weight loss, frequent urination, increased appetite
(b) Weight gain, fever, nausea, body odour
(c) Heart palpitations, restlessness, diarrhea, joint pain
(d) Increased urination, constipation, stomach pain, headaches
Ans: a
27. Which statement is False?
(a) The tongue is a large muscle
(b) Attachments to the tongue prevent you from swallowing it
(c) It is normal to have lumps on the side of your tongue near the throat
(d) The tongue is constantly working
Ans: d
28. What are the four basic flavors that the taste buds can detect?
(a) Spicy, salty, sweet, sour
(b) Sweet, sour, bitter, tangy
(c) Tart, bitter, sour, salty
(d) Sweet, sour, bitter, salty
Ans: d
29. People are born with how many taste buds?
(a) 5,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 50,000
Ans: b
30. What is caffeine?
(a) A plant
(b) A food
(c) A drug
(d) A vitamin
Ans: c
31. How long can we survive without water?
(a) Not more than two days
(b) About a week
(c) Usually two weeks
(d) Possibly a month
Ans: b
32. What percentage of our body weight is water?
(a) About 20 per cent
(b) About 45 per cent
(c) About 60 per cent
(d) About 85 per cent
Ans: c
33. What type of mosquito carries dengue fever?
(a) African- spotted
(b) Asian tiger
(c) Caribbean flight
(d) White stripped Tibetan
Ans: b
34. What is true about varicose veins?
(a) The name varicose comes from the Latin root varix, which means twisted
(b) They could lead to painful ulcers
(c) The condition is hereditary
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
35. Which media celebrity co-founded a national organization to bring awareness of . Colon cancer after her husband died of it?
(a) Diane Sawyer
(b) Jane Pauley
(c) Katie Couric
(d) Connie Chung
Ans: c
36. What type of food poisoning is the most dangerous?
(a) Botulism
(b) Staphylococcal
(c) Salmonella
(d) Mushroom
Ans: c
37. What is gout?
(a) a type of cancer
(b) a blood clot
(c) a form of arthritis
(d) a large bruise
Ans: c
38. What are the four basic blood types?
(a) A, B, AB and O
(b) A, A+, B and B+
(c) A, B, O and ABO
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans: a
39. Which sentence is True?
(a) Women have more red blood cells than men
(b) The most common blood type is AB
(c) Anemia occurs when a person’s red blood count is too high
(d) Blood cells are produced in the bone marrow
Ans: d
40. What are the four components of blood?
(a) Red blood cells, white blood cells, stem cells and plasma
(b) Red blood cells, iron, bone marrow and platelets
(c) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin and plasma
(d) Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma
Ans: d
41. What measurement do doctors use to determine obesity?
(a) Body mass index
(b) Body fat index
(c) Body height index
(d) Body weight index
Ans: a
42. What is shingles?
(a) A painful form of psoriasis generally occurring in older adults
(b) A type of acne that develops in times of stress
(c) A severe allergic reaction to the sun
(d) A nerve infection caused by the chickenpox virus
Ans: d
43. Which sentence is False?
(a) Most dreams are in colour
(b) Dreams are universal; the same images mean the same thing to different people
(c) Recurrent dreams usually mean that the dreamer hasn’t yet resolved a continuing conflict
(d) You can control your dreams
Ans: a
44. The body stops building bone mass at what age?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Ans: a
45. What is insomnia?
(a) Having a hard time falling asleep
(b) Not feeling refreshed after a night’s sleep
(c) Awaking at nightt often and having difficulty getting back to sleep
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
46. What is leukemia?
(a) Cancer of the blood cells
(b) Cancer of the bone
(c) A type of arthritis
(d) A severe form of anemia
Ans: a
47. What the cushiony substance sandwiched between each vertebra in human spine is called?
(a) A disc
(b) A nerve
(c) A muscle
(d) A sponge
Ans: a
48. What is the function of the spinal cord?
(a) To move blood from the arms and legs to the heart
(b) To keep the spine in alignment
(c) To carry signals to and from the brain to the body
(d) To strengthen the spinal column
Ans: d
49. What is athlete’s foot?
(a) A foot infection
(b) A foot injury
(c) A foot abnormality
(d) A foot odour
Ans: a
50. What are proteins?
(a) Vitamins
(b) Amino acids
(c) Nutrients that the body uses for energy
(d) Fats
Ans: b
Solved Objective Questions Biomedical engineering
1. Each cell consists of a centrally located
a) Nucleus
b) Nucleolus
c) Organelles
d) Proteins
Ans (a)
2. Each nucleus is surrounded by the
a) Nucleolus
b) Electrolytes
c) Cytoplasm
d) Lipids
Ans (c)
3. Concentration of water in each cell is between
a) 75-85%
b) 60-75%
c) 70-80%
d) 70-85%
Ans (d)
4. The ___________ provide inorganic chemicals for cellular reaction
a) Electrolytes
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
5. ____________constitutes 10-20 percent of the cell mass
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Electrolytes
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
6. _____________________ are used to provide the contractile mechanism of muscles
a) Structural proteins
b) Lipids
c) Globular proteins
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
7. Which of the following is called as cell core?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleus
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (b)
9. Which of the following is called as cell body?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleus
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (d)
10. Lipids are _______ in fat solvents and ___________ in water
a) Soluble, insoluble
b) Soluble , soluble
c) Insoluble , insoluble
d) Insoluble , soluble
Ans (a)
11.___________play a major role in nutrition of the cell
a) Carbohydrates
b) Mitochondria
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
Ans (a)
12. The cell also contains highly organized physical structure called _________
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Cytosol
d) Mitochondria
Ans (a)
13. The clear fluid portion of the cytoplasm is called as _________
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Cytosol
d) Mitochondria
Ans (c)
14.________________ are minute granular particles in cytosol
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Lipids
d) Proteins
Ans (b)
15. Ribosomes are composed mixture of
a) RNA and proteins
b) RNA and Lipids
c) RNA and glucose
d) RNA and electrolytes
Ans (a)
16._______________allows the cell to digest thereby removing unwanted substances
a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) Carbohydrates
Ans (b)
17. —————- is called as power houses of the cell
a) RNA
b) Lysosome
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
Ans (c)
18. The mitochondria contains _____________ similar to that found in nucleus
a) DNA
b)RNA
c) mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
Ans (a)
19._________________ is called as control center of the cell
a) Genes
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) DNA
Ans (d)
20._____________ contains large quantities of RNA
a) Ribosomes
b) Nucleus
c) Lysosomes
d) Mitochondria
Ans (b)
21. Each cell splits by a special process called
a) Drift
b) Diffusion
c) Mitosis
d) Acidosis
Ans (a)
22. The cell size is determined by the amount of ______________
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) Genes
Ans (a)
23. The size of the cell is in the range of
a) 5-15 ?m
b) 5-10 ?m
c) 0.5-1 ?m
d) 5-7 ?m
Ans (b)
24. The extra cellular fluid contains large quantities of ___________ and small amount of ___________
a) Sodium, pottassium
b) Calcium, pottassium
c) Sodium, calcium
d) Potassium, sodium
Ans (a)
25. The intracellular fluid contains large quantities of ___________ and small amount of ___________
a) Sodium, potassium
b) Calcium, potassium
c) Sodium, calcium
d) Potassium, sodium
Ans (d)
26. The positive potential of the cell membrane during excitation is
a) Action potential
b) Drift potential
c) Diffusion potential
d) Passive potential
Ans (a)
27. In case of primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from the breakdown of
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) ATP
Ans (d)
28._____________________ is an example of primary active transport mechanism
a) Sodium potassium pump
b) Sodium calcium pump
c) Sodium phosphates pump
d) Calcium pottassium pump
Ans (b)
29. What type of electrodes is more often employed in EMG work?
a) Needle electrodes
b) Surface electrodes
c) Floating electrodes
d) Limb electrodes
Ans (a)
30. A ————– needle electrode contains both active reference electrode with in the same structure
a) Earth ring
b) Hypodermic
c) Paddle
d) Concentric core
Ans (d)
1. Ohm’s law applicable for
(a) linear circuits only
(b) non linear circuits only
(c) both linear and non linear circuits
(d) none of these
Ans: a
2. Unit of current is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: a
3. What is the equivalent resistance when 10 Ohms and 20 Ohms resistors are connected
in series
(a) 35 Ohms
(b) 25 Ohms
(c) 30Ohms
(d) none of these
Ans: c
4. Form factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: d
5. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: c
6. Power factor for resistive load is
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
(d) 0.2
Ans: b
7. voltage is a ——quantity
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Scalar and Vector
(d) none of these
Ans: b
8. In D.C , Capacitor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) either (a)or (b)
(d) none of these
Ans: b
9 In 3 phase star circuit, phase voltage is
(a) VPh =Ö3 VL
(b) VPh = VL /Ö3
(c) VPh = VL
(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: b
10. In 3 phase delta circuit, line current is
(a) IL =I Ph
(b) IL =2 I Ph
(c) IL =3 I Ph
(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:d
11. What is the equivalent resistance when 20Ohms and 20Ohms resistors are
connected in parallel
(a) 45 Ohms
(b) 10Ohms
(c) 54 Ohms
(d) 30Ohms
Ans: b
12. Voltage-Current relationship in resistor element is
(a) In phase
(b) Out of phase
(c) No Relation
(d) constant
Ans:a
13. For high voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: b
14. What is the unit of Reactive Power
(a) KVA
(b) KW
(c) HP
(d) KVAR
Ans:d
15. R.M.S Value of Half wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: b
16. Current is defined as
(a) Charge/time
(b) Time/charge
(c) power/time
(d) None of these
Ans:a
17. Active elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors only
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: d
18. In Bilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: b
19. D.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: d
20. In Capacitive circuit, Current flows in the capacitor
(a) i=C (dv/dt)
(b) i=V(dc/dt)
(c) i=C(di/dt)
(d) i=Ct
Ans: a
21. Unit of voltage is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: b
22. Peak factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: c
23. Average value is
(a) area/period
(b) period/area
(c) length/area
(d) none of these
Ans: a
24. Unit of power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) joules
Ans:c
25. Unit of apparent power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:d
26. Unit of energy is
(a) KWH
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:a
27. A.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: b
28. Passive elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors ,inductors and capacitors
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: c
29. In D.C , inductor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) both (a)&(b)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
30. In Unilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: a
31. Workdone is
(a) F.d
(b) E/F
(c) IR
(d) None of these
Ans: a
32. Unit of Resistance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) ohms
Ans: d
33. Unit of inductance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: d
34. Unit of capacitance is
(a) Ampere
(b) farad
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
35. For high current applications which type of 3 phase circuit is Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
36. For low voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
37. Unit of charge is
(a) Ampere
(b) coulomb
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
38. EMF is
(a) Election motion force
(b) Electrical motion force
(c) Electro motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
39. MMF is
(a) Magnetic motive force
(b) Magnetic motion force
(c) Magneto motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
40. Voltage-Current relationship in inductor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: c
41. Voltage-Current relationship in capacitor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: b
42. When two inductors are connected in series, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) 1/(L1+L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: a
43. When two capacitors are connected in series, equivalent capacitance is
(a) C1+C2
(b) 1/(C1+C2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) (1/c1)+(1/c2)
Ans: d
44. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans:c
45. Form factor of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) 1.21
(b) 1.11
(c) 4.44
(d) none of these
Ans: b
46. Power factor for pure inductor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: c
47. Power factor for pure capacitor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
48. Frequency is defined as
(a) No of cycles/sec
(b) time/cycles
(c) 1/cycles
(d) None of these
Ans: a
49. In Series resistive circuit, voltage across each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) constant
(c) no change
(d) None of these
Ans: a
50. In Series resistive circuit current through each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) same
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Ans:b
51. When two inductors are connected in parallel, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: b
52. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, equivalent capacitance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) C1+C2
(d) None of these
Ans:c
53.A sinusoidal Wave form is
a)sine wave form
b) triangle wave form
c) both(a)&(b)
d)none of these
Ans:a
54. In 3 phase delta circuit, phase voltage is
(a) VPh =Ö3 VL
(b) VPh = VL /Ö3
(c) VPh = VL
(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: c
55. In 3 phase star, line current is
(a) IL =I Ph
(b) IL =2 I Ph
(c) IL =3 I Ph
(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:a
56.Average value of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:a
56 Average value of full wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
57 Form factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) 1.57
d) none of these
Ans: c
58. Peak factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
59. Form factor of full wave rectified sine waveform is
a) 1.11
b) 2Vm/?
c) 1.57
d) none of these
Ans:a
60. Peak factor of full wave sinusoidal waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) square root of 2
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
obs and Exam Sample Papers BSF: Head Constables and ASI Recruitment
1. OVL implies:
(1) Oil discovery organ of ONGC
(2) A new species of virus
(3) A term used in One Day Cricket
(4) A new banking company
2. Which of the following involves chemical change?
(1) Rusting of iron
(2) Burning of wood -
(3) Reduction of wood
(4) All the three
3. Which of the following cave paintings is the oldest?
(1) Bhimbetka
(2) Ellora
(3) Ajanta
(4) Chittnnavasal
4. Leprosy has been eliminated from India, as:
(1) There was no cae of leprosy in 2005
(2) World Health Organization (WHO) has declared so
(3) The current rate of Incidence has been reduced by 1 out of 10,000
(4) All the patients have been identified for treatment
5. The major producer of cardamom in India is
(1) Kerala
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Karnataka
(4)Assam
6. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy?
(1) INS Virat
(2) INS Sindhurakshk
(3) INS Rajali
(4) INS Vikrãnt
7. Which of the following Indian classical dances derived its name from the name of place of its origin?
(1) Manipuri
(2) Kathkali
(3) Odissi
(4) Kuchipudi
8. Who among the following has been created record in aviation history for the longest uninterrupted flight?
(1)JRDTata
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Vijay pat Singhania
(4) Steve Fosset
9. Which of the following countries is not a member of G — 8?
(1) Russia
(2) Britain
(3) Spain
(4) Canada
10. Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) Srlmao Bhandarnayake
(3) Margaret Thatcher
(4) Benzlr Bhutto
11. The large entrance of temple in South India is called:
(1) Shikhar
(2) Sanctum sactorum
(3) Gopuram
(4) Prakar
12. Dilwara Temple is located at:
(1) Udayapur
(2) Ajmer
(3) Mount Abu
(4) Jaipur
13. Which of the following trees can grow in salt water?
(1) Coconut
(2) Neem
(3) Mangroves
(4) Eucalyptus
14. Cryogenic engines are used in:
(1) Rockets
(2) Aero planes
(3) Refrigerators
(4) Sub-marines
15 Which of the following materials has the lowest density?
(1) Gold
(2) Mercury
(3) Ice
(4) Wood
16. The state which suffers most due to river erosion is:
(1)Kerala
(2) Assam
(3) West Bengal
(4) Orissa
17. At present bird flu spreads from:
(1) Poultry iima1s to humans
(2) Humans to humans
(3) Humans to poultry animals
(4) All the three
18. Which of the following animals has the longest life-span?
(1) Tortoise
(2) Elephant
(3) Whale
(4) Rhinoceros
19. Haematite is an ore of:
(1) Copper
(2) Chromium
(3) Lead
(4) Iron
20. Which is the first university established for women in India?
(1) Mother Teresa University
(2) SNDT University
(3) Rani Jhansi University
(4) Rani Ahilyadevi University
21. Name the British historian who was jailed by an Austrian Court for denying horrors of holocaust during Nazi rule:
(1) Christian Fleck
(2) Christopher Reed
(3) Don McKinnon
(4) David Irving
22. Which of the following places is not associated with ship manufacturing?
(1) Mumbal
(2) Vishakhapatnam
(3) Kochi
(4) Alang
23. Kannauj was the capital of which king in ancient time?
(1) Harshavardhana.
(2) Chandragupta I
(3) Pulkeshin II
(4) Samudragupta
24. In which of the following Indian cities there is possibility of maximum temperature during summer?
(1) Chennai
(2) Nagpur
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Pune
25. The statue of Bahubali in Shravanbelgola was carved during the reign of:
(1) Chalukya
(2) Chola
(3) Ganga
(4) Rashtrakuta
Answers:
Q No ANS
1 1
2 4
3 1
4 4
5 1
6 2
7 2
8 4
9 3
10 2
11 3
12 3
13 3
14 1
15 4
16 2
17 1
18 1
19 4
20 2
21 2
22 1
23 1
24 2
25 3
1. Carrier of parasite Plasmodium is?
(A)Tick
(B) Mosquito
(C)Fly
(D) Lice
2. First organic chemical to be synthesized in laboratory?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Oxalic acid
(C) Urea
(D) Phosphoric acid
3. Which one is an organic acid?
(A)Citric
(B) Sulphuric
(C)Nitric
(D) Phosphoric
4. Ice floats on water because?
(A) Ice is filled with air
(B) Ice less dense than water
(C) Waters depth more than ice
(D) Ice more dense than water
5. Petrol contains?
(A) Carbon, Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen, Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen, Oxygen
(D) Carbon, Hydrogen
6. Leaves look green, because?
(A) Reflect all colours
(B) Absorb all colours reflect green
(C) No effect of light on leaves
(D) Absorb only green
7. Lens system used in a micro scope is ?
(A) Convex
(B) Concave
(C) Concave, convex
(D) Plain lens
8. Ozone layer protects earth from?
(A) Meteriorites
(B) Cosmic and other radiations
(C) Harmful gases
(D) Space debris
9. ‘Raman effect’ was used to develop?
(A) Cooling glasses
(B) Space craft
(C) Atom bomb
(D) Detecting Scanners
10. In July 2010 ‘ISRO used the vehicle for launching 5 satellites
(A) GSLV
(B) PSLV
(C) ESLV
(D) SLV
11. Curd making is an ancient ‘Bio technological’ process involving?
(A)Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C)Fungus
(D) Protozoa
12. H5N1 virus causing global pandemic influenza is?
(A) Goat flu
(B) Bird flu
(C) Horse flu
(D) Cow flu
13. ‘Blue baby’ syndrome is because of drinking water with excess amounts of?
(A) Phosphates
(B) Sulphates
(C) Carbonates
(D) Nitrates
14. The Fourth Buddhist Council which was held in Kashmir during the reign of which King?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Kala Ashok
(C) Kanishka
(D) Ajatshatru
15. Which one among the following sites is located in the valley of
Gaggar and its associated rivers?
(A) Alamgirpur
(B) Lothal
(C) Mohenjodaro
(D) Banwali
16. Land revenue, which was the chief source of income during the Mauryan period, was collected by which officer?
(A) Agronomai
(B) Shulkadhyaksha
(C) Sitadhayaksha
(D) Akradhayaksha
17. Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil Country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following:
(A) Textile manufacture
(B) Gems and precious stones
(C) Handicrafts
(D) Opium cultivation
18. According to the Sangam texts the terms Kon, Ko and Mannan were attributed to which of the following?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Revenue Minister
(C) Commander of the army
(D) King
19. The first human statues worshipped in India were those of?
(A)Brahma
(B) Vishnu
(C)Buddha
(D) Shiva
20. “God knows man’s virtues and enquires not his caste, in the next world there is no caste !“ This was the theory of which Bhakti saint?
(A) Ramanand
(B) Dadu
(C) Nanak
(D) Ramanuja
21. The highest number of state level animal fairs in Rajasthan are held in the district?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Nagour
(C) Barmer
(D) Hanumangarh
22. Which one amongst the following is incorrect?
(A) In the western part of Rajasthan generally salty lakes are available
(B) Sambhar lake is the biggest salty lake in India
(C) Nakki lake is the deepest lake in Rajasthan
(D) Rajsamand lake is 64 kilo meters from Udaipur and it is in Udaipur district
23. Mixed farming consists of?
(A) Growing of several crops in a planned way
(B) Growing rabi as well as kharif crops
(C) Growing several crops and also rearing animals
(D) Growing of fruits as well as vegetables
24. Mewa-nagar in Rajasthan is famous for?
(A) Jam temple of Parshwanath
(B) Exports of dry fruits
(C) Production of cumin seed
(D) Exports of Kathputli items
25. Gang canal, is among the oldest canals was constructed by
Maharaja Ganga Singh in?
(A)1930
(B) 1927
(C)1944
(D) 1932
26. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project— Gujarat and Rajasthan
(B) Chambal Project—Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(C) Beas Project.—Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal Project—Rajasthan and Punjab
27. Which one among the following statement is ‘incorrect’ ? New Industrial and Investment Policy of Rajasthan 2010 is introduced and it states that—
(A) During next five years 51 lakh persons will get employment
(B) 13 sectors are more important to be focussed
(C) Land will be available to industrialists on easy terms
(D) Incentive will not be accorded to Private Public Partnership
28. Rajasthan State Industrial Deve lopment and Investment Corporation (RIICO) has signed an MoU with a Japanese company for establishment of Japanese units in Neemrana Industrial area. That Japanese company is?
(A) Jetro
(B) Hetro
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Mitsubisi
29. Which automobile company has been allotted 600 Acres land of Khuskheda (Bhiwadi) for manufacturing cars?
(A) Ford
(B) Toyota
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Volkswagen
30. 14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J. V. Blocks,2 Nomination Blocks and 4 C.B.M. Blocks are related to:
(A) Gypsum belt
(B) Gold belt
(C) Petroleum Exploration
(D) Lignite belt
31. One amongst the following takes the decision about the monetary policy of India?
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) International Monetary Fund
32. Which train was introduced for tourists with the help of Railway
Ministry in Rajasthan on January 11,2009?
(A) Princely Rajasthan on wheels
(B) Royal Rajputana on wheels
(C) Great Rajputana on wheels
(D) Royal Rajasthan on wheels
33. The great famine known as ‘Chhapania-kal’ among Rajasthani people occurred during—
(A) 1899-1900 AD
(B) 1905-1906 AD
(C) 1956-1958 AD
(D) 1888-1889 AD
34. ‘Mocha’ coffee is grown in?
(A) Iraq
(B) Brazil
(C) Argentina
(D) Yemen
35. The area which is the ‘store house of minerals’ in South America
is?
(A) Brazilian Plateau
(B) Bolivian Plateau
(C) Patagonia Plateau
(D) Orinoco basin
36. Celebes Sea is in?
(A) Central America
(B) South-East Asia
(C) Arctic Ocean
(D) North Sea
37. The island of which Kalimantan is a part, is?
(A) Honshu
(B) Borneo
(C) Cuba
(D) Madagascar (Malagasy)
38. Baku is famous for the mining of?
(A) Gold
(B) Iron ore
(C) Mineral oil
(D) Zinc
39. The mineral which has earned fame to Chile is?
(A) Gold
(B) Manganese
(C) Nitrate
(D) Mineral oil
40. Of the following, the correct statement is?
(A) India lies in the middle of western hemisphere
(B) Caspian Sea is an open sea
(C) Rajasthan is a cool temperate desert
(D) North and South poles are antipodal to each other
41. The resource in which Chhota Nagpur Plateau is prosperous,is?
(A) Skilled labour
(B) Mineral
(C) Hydroelectricity
(D) Fertile soil
42. Of the following, the maximum prosperity of minerals is in?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is?
(A) Coromandel
(B) Malabar
(C) Northern Circar
(D) Konkan
44. Winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu is mostly on account of?
(A) Western disturbances
(B) South-west monsoon
(C) North-east monsoon
(D) South-east monsoon
45. Most of the topography of Manipur is?
(A) Plain
(B) Plateau
(C) Marshy
(D) Mountainous
46. Main resources of western Himalayan resource region, are?
(A) Forests
(B) Metallic minerals
(C) Carbonic minerals
(D) Atomic minerals
47. Kapili is a tributary river of?
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
(C) Ganga
(D) Brahmaputra
48. The district through which 70°E longitude passes is?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Dholpur
(D) Nagaur
49. The district having North-South elongation, is?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Chittorgarh
(D) Jhunjhunu
50. An approximate area of Rajasthan covered under western desert, is?
(A) More than 60%
(B) Less than 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
51. ‘Chhappan’ basin is in the district of ?
(A) Alwar
(B) Banswara
(C) Pali
(D) Tonk
52. The lowest air pressure in the month of June in Rajasthan is probable in the district o? (A) Bundi
(B) Baran
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Rajsamand
53. River Khari is part of the drainage system of?
(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Inland drainage
(C) Indeterminate drainage
(D) Bay of Bengal
54.Kahrani in Bhiwadi came into news recently because of ?
(A) Saint Gobain Glass Factory
(B) Divya Pharmacy
(C) Toyota Motors
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Rural LPG Distribution Plan
55. National Institute of Ayurveda, an autonomous body of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India is located at?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Banswara
(D) Jaipur
56. India has become the largest recipient of the World Bank Loans during fiscal ending June, 2010. The country which follows India is?—
(A) South Africa
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) Iran
57. India has recently added one more Biosphere Reserve. Which of these is the latest one in the list?
(A) Nokrek
(B) Dehang Debang
(C) Simplipal
(D) Cold desert
58. One amongst the following is not true?
(A) New investment policy is introduced by State Government recently
(B) 30 per cent deductions on sales tax to continue for 10 years
(C) 20 per cent subsidy will be provided on new employment
(D) Previous policy was introduced in 2008
59.G-8 Muskoka initiative is concerned with?
(A)Curbing international terrorism
(B) Promoting maternal and child health
(C) Settling international disputes
(D) Reducing greenhouse gases
60. One of the following is not a Union Territory?
(A) Tripura
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry
61. Scheduled Tribe status is?
(A) Restricted to Hindus
(B) Religiously neutral
(C) Restricted to Hindus and Christians
(D) Restricted to Hindus and Muslims
62. The author of the book ‘One Night @ The Call Centre’ is?
(A) Anurag Mathur
(B) Vikram Seth
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Chetan Bhagat
63. Maradona is a famous football player of which country?
(A) Argentina
(B) Brazil
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
64. The Prime Minister of UK is?
(A) Tony Blair
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) David Cameron
(D) David Miliband
65. The Chief Minister of Karnataka is?
(A) B. S. Yeddiurappa
(B) S. M. Krishna
(C) Deve Gowda
(D) Rosiah
66. What is the name of the President of Iran?
(A) M. Khominenni
(B) E. Moussavi
(C) M. Ahmedinejad
(D) S. Chisti
67. Which state was most affected by the blockade of the highway by the Naga Students Union in 2010?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Maruipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
68. The Cabinet Secretary of India is?
(A) G. K. Pillai
(B) Chandrashekhar
(C) T. Srinivasan
(D) Madhukar Gupta
69. The Chief Minister of Jharkhand who is sworn in on September 11, 2010 is?
(A) Shibu Soren
(B) Arjun Munda
(C) Subodh Kant Sahay
(D) Macthu Konda
70. Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
71. The new President of CII (Confederation of Indian Industry) is?
(A) Rahul Bajaj
(B) M. Dalmia
(C) Han Bhartia
(D) Sunil Mittal
72. POSCO, a Korean multinational company, intends to invest
Rs. 52,000 crore in?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
73. The headquarters of Cairn Energy is in?
(A) Scotland
(B) South Korea
(C) Brazil
(D) USA
74. Kerala state is famous world over for cultivating?
(A)Rubber
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Spices
(D) Rice
75. Plants growing on rocks are called?
(A) Epiphytes
(B) Halophytes
(C) Xerophytes
(D) Lithophytes
76. Information about local flora can be obtained from?
(A) Herbarium
(B) Auditorium
(C) Sanitarium
(D) Planetarium
77. One of the following is called ‘flame of the forest’—
(A) Bouhinia variegata
(B) Jacaranda mimosafolia
(C) Butea monosperma
(D) Tectona grandis
78. Which of the following is called ‘graveyard of Dinosaurs’?
(A) China
(B) Montana
(C) Argentina
(D) Brazil
79. Which one is a mammal?
(A)Shark
(B) Squid
(C)Octopus
(D) Whale
80. Sanctuary famous for Rhinoceros is ?
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Gir
(C) Ranthombore
(D) Corbett
81. The ‘Ashta Diggaj’ were associated with which of the following rules?
(A) Shivaji
(B) Krishnadeva Ray
(C) Rajendra-I
(D) Yashovarman
82. Who was the famous author of Kitab-ul-Hind?
(A) Hasan Nizami
(B) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(C) Al Baruni
(D) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
83. ‘Ain-i-Dahsala’ system of land revenue assessment during the reign of Akbar was introduced by—
(A) Shah Nawaz Khan
(B) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana
(C) Todar Mal
(D) Mulla-Do-Pyaza
84. Who was the first historian who wrote about ‘Feudalism’ in Rajasthan during the 19th century?
(A) Col. James Tod
(B) Dr. L. P. Tessitori
(C) George Grearson
(D) John Thomas
85.Who was the famous ruler of Mewar who repaired the fort of
Achalgarh?
(A) Rana Ratan Singh
(B) Maharana Kumbha
(C) Rana Sanga
(D) Maharana Raj Singh
86. The famous historian of Rajasthan who was also a social
reformer was?
(A) Mankaran Sarda
(B) Harbilas Sarda
(C) C.K.F. Waltier
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
87. The longest folk song of Rajasthan is associated with
which of the following Lok Devis /Devtas?
(A) Jeena Mata
(B) Aai Mata
(C) Mallinathji
(D)Ramdevji
88. Who was the ruler of a state in Rajasthan who played a very significant role in the establishment of Banaras Hindu University?
(A) Maharana Fateh Singh (Udaipur)
(B) Maharaja Ummed Singh (Jodhpur)
(C) Maharaja Man Singh-II (Jaipur)
(D) Maharaja Ganga Singh (Bikaner)
89. Who was made the Raj Pramukh of united Rajasthan which came into existence of March 25, 1948?
(A) Maharaja of Dholpur
(B) Maharaja of Karauli
(C) Maharao of Kota
(D) Maharaja of Sirohi
90. The first three universities in India (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) were established in which year?
(A)1857
(B) 1881
(C)1885
(D) 1905
91. Mahatma Gandhi presided over only in one session of the Indian National Congress in 1924. Where was the session held?
(A) Gaya
(B) Amritsar
(C) Belgaon
(D) Kanpur
92. Where did the Congress Work ing Committee meet to pass the ‘Govt. Indian Resolution’ of July 14, 1942?
(A) Bombay
(B) Wardha
(C) Lucknow
(D) Tripura
93. The Greatest Parsi Social reformer of the 19th century was?
(A) Sir Jamshedji
(B) Sir Rustom Behramji
(C) Navalji Tata
(D) Behramji M. Mallabari
94. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the follow
ing animals?
(A)Lion
(B) Deer
(C)Tiger
(D) Bear
95. India’s main agricultural product import item is?
(A)Pulse
(B) Coffee
(C)Sugar
(D) Edible oils
96. Find the odd product out of the following
(A) Sesame
(B) Groundnut
(C) Caster seed
(D) Mustard
97. Recently the Bank of Rajasthan has been merged with?
(A) H.D.F.C.
(B) ICICI
(C) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
(D) State Bank of India
98. The first cooperative society in Rajasthan was established in
1905 of?
(A) Bhinai in Ajmer district
(B) Jaola in Nagour district
(C) Gulabpura in Bhilwada district
(D) Bassi in Jaipur district
99. According to Animal census 2003 the density of Animals in Rajasthan and highest density of animals in district is?
(A) 144 and Doongarpur
(B) 150 and Barmer
(C) 160 and Bikaner
(D) 165 and Bharatpur
100. Dhaman, Karad and Anjan are the?
(A) Varieties of Sheep in Rajasthan
(B) Varieties of Caster seed of Gujarat
(C) Varieties of Grass in Rajsthan
(D) Three heroes of Gawari dance
Answers :
1.(B)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6.(B)
7. (A)
8. (B)
9. (A)
10. (B)
11.(A)
12. (B)
13. (D)
14.(C)
15. (D)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (D)
19.(C)
20. (C)
21. (B)
22. (D)
23.(C)
24.(A)
25. (B)
26. (D)
27. (D)
28. (D)
29.(C)
30.(C)
31. (B)
32. (D)
33. (A)
34. (D)
35.(A)
36. (B)
37. (B)
38. (C)
39. (C)
40.(D)
41. (B)
42. (A)
43. (A)
44.(C)
45.(D)
46. (A)
47. (D)
48. (B)
49. (C)
50.(A)
51. (B)
52.(C)
53.(D )
54.(A)
55.(D)
56.(C)
57.(C)
58.(D)
59.(B)
60.(A)
61. (C)
62. (D)
63. (A)
64. (C)
65.(A)
66. (C)
67. (B)
68. (B)
69. (B)
70.(D)
71. (C)
72.(D)
73.(A)
74. (C)
75. (D)
76. (A)
77.(C)
78. (B)
79. (D)
80. (A)
81. (B)
82. (C)
83. (C)
84. (A)
85. (B)
86. (B)
87. (A)
88. (D)
89.(C)
90.(A)
91. (C)
92. (A)
93. (D)
94. (C)
95. (D)
96. (C)
97. (B)
98. (A)
99. (A)
100. (C)
LIC AAO Exam Sample Questions and Mock Test
1. Permanent Settlement in Bengal and Bihar was introduced by:
(1) Cornwallis
(2) Minto
(3) Warren Hastings
(4) We1lesley
Ans. (1)
2. The first split of Indian National Congress took place in 1907 at
(1) Bombay Session
(2) Calcutta. Session
(3) Lahore Session
(4) Surat Session
Ans. (4)
3. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Newspaper) List-II (Person who started it)
A. Bombay Chronicle 1. Annie Besant
B. Commonweal 2. Madan Mohan Malaviya
C. Leader 3. Feroz Shah Mehata
D. Searchlight 4. Sachchidanand Sinha.
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 2
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (3)
4. The ‘Khalsa Panth’ was established by:
(1) Guru Arjun
(2) Guru Gobind Singh
(3) Guru Nanak
(4) Guru Teg Bahadur
Ans. (2)
5. Gandhiji started his first Satyagrah against:
(1) British attack on Turkey
(2) Government of India Act 1935
(3) Payment of low wages to workers
(4) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (3)
6. Swaraj Party was formed by:
(1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) C. R. Das and Moti Lal Nehru
(4) Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (3)
7. The evergreen rain forests are found in:
(1) Australia
(2) Brazil
(3) Canada
(4) France
Ans. (2)
8. When the duration of the day and the night is equal, the rays of the Sun fall directly
on:
(1) North Pole
(2) Equator
(3) South Pole
(4) Tropic of Cancer
Ans. (2)
9. Water of which one of the following seas is most saline?
(1) Baltic Sea
(2) Black Sea
(3) Dead Sea
(4) Red Sear
Ans. (3)
10. Where was the first power plant established in the world?
(1) Britain
(2) Germany
(3) Russia
(4) U.S.A.
Ans. (4)
11. The Vice President of India is elected by:
(1) The People
(2) The Electoral College which elects the President
(3) The members of both the Houses of Parliament
(4) The State legislatures
Ans. (3)
12. The provisions relating to fundamental duties in the Constitution of India was added on the recommendation of:
(1) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(2) Iyengar Committee
(3) Swaran Singh Committee
(4) Thakkar Commission
Ans. (3)
13. In accordance with the Table of Precedence (Government of India), select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of precedence:
(1) Chief Justice of India— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States—Governors of States within their respective States
(2) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Justice of India-Chief
Minister of States within their respective State Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Ministers of States within their respective State—Chief Justice of India—Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Chief1Justice of India— Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States
Ans. (4)
14. Hypo, used in photography is chemically
(1) sodium bicarbonate
(2) sodium cyanate
(3) sodium nitrate
(4) sodium thiosulphate
Ans. (4)
15. Which one of the following groups of crops is grown In India during the Rabi season? (1) Wheat, barley, gram
(2) Rice, maize, wheat
(3) Barley, maize, rice
(4) Millet, gram. Rice
Ans. (1)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I (Minerals) List-II (Major producer)
A. Mineral Oil 1. Zambia
B. Copper 2. Guyana
C. Manganese 3. Venezuela
D. Bauxite 4. Gabon
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (3)
17. The part of the human brain that retains memory is the:
(1) hypothalamus
(2) cerebellum
(3) cerebral cortex
(4) brainstem
Ans. (3)
18. Consider the following statements about the mega cities of India:
1. Population of each mega city is more than 5 million.
2. All the mega cities are important sea ports.
3. Mega cities are either national or state capitals.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (4)
19. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List-I (Publisher) List-II (Publication)
A. Ministry of Industry 1. Report of Currency and Finance
B. Central Statistical Organization 2. Economic Survey
C. Reserve Bank of India 3. Wholesale Price Index
D. Ministry of Finance 4. National Accounts Statistics
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (2)
20. Consider the following statements regarding environmental issues of India:
1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.
2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River
Conservation Plan.
3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal
education in environment and conservation.
4. Environmental information System (E.N.V.I.S.) acts as a decentralized information network for environmental information.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) l, 2 and 4
(2) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 2
(4) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
21. From which part of the cinchona plant is quinine extracted?
(1) Bark of the stem
(2) Flower
(3) Fruit
(4) Leaf
Ans. (1)
22. Molasses is an excellent raw material for:
(1) Acetic acid
(2) Glycerin
(3) Power alcohol
(4) Urea
Ans. (1)
23. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is:
(1) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(2) U. P, Maharashtra, Tami Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(3) Maharashtra, U. P, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(4) U. P, Maharashtra. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Ans. (2)
24. Tehri Dam being constructed in Uttranchal is on the river:
(1) Alaknanda and Mandakini
(2) Bhagirathi and Bhahlangana
(3) Bhaghathi and Alaknanda
(4) Yamuna and Ganga
Ans. (2)
25. Which of the following are more numerous in the district of Dehradun?
(1) Bhotias
(2) Buksas
(3) Janissaries.
(4) Tharus
Ans. (3)
26. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for Implementing International treaties
(1) with the consent of all the States
(2) with the consent of the majority of States
(3) with the consent of the States concerned
(4) without the consent of any State
Ans. (4)
27. In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is:
(C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total Exports and total Imports respectively).
(1) Y = C + I + G + X.
(2) Y = C + I + G— X + M
(3) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
(4) Y = C + I – G + X – M
Ans. (3)
28. The first woman to climb Mount Everest was:
(1) Marie Jose Perec
(2) Florence Griffith Joyner
(3) Junko Tabei
(4) Jackie Joyner Kersee
Ans. (3)
29. The largest contribution to the export earnings of India comes from the export of:
(1) Agricultural products
(2) Gems and Jewellery
(3) Machinery
(4) Textiles and ready-made garments
Ans. (4)
30. The oldest large scale industry of India is
(1) Cotton textiles
(2) Iron and steel
(3) Jute
(4) Paper
Ans. (1)
31. The World Trade Organization came into being in
(1) 1990
(2) 1995
(3) 1998
(4) 2000
Ans. (1)
32. Self sustained growth was adopted as an objective for the first time In Indla’Iñ the:
(1) Third Five Year Plan
(2) Fourth Five Year Plan
(3) Fifth five Year Plan
(4) Sixth Five Year Plan
Ans. (2)
33. Match List-I (Oceanic Trench) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Oceanic Trench) List-II (Location)
A. Aleutian 1. Indian Ocean
B. Kermadec 2. North Pacific Ocean
C. Sunda 3. South Pacific Ocean
D. S. Sandwich 4. South Atlantic Ocean
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
34. Which one of the following gases is used by plants in photosynthesis?
(1) Ammonia
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Chlorine
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (2)
35. Pascal is a unit of measuring:
(1) Humidity
(2) Pressure
(3) Rainfall
(4) Temperature
Ans. (2)
36. Which among the following grains has maximum protein content?
(1) Cowpea
(2) Lentil
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Soybean
Ans. (4)
37. “Ranikhet disease” is related to:
(1) Chicken
(2) Cows
(3) Goats
(4) Horse
Ans. (1)
38. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time
(2) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood
(3) White Blood Cells (W. Bc.) are made by lymph nodes only
(4) The blood has more platelets than W.Bc.
Ans. (4)
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Institute) List-II (Location)
A. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies 1. Hyderabad
B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 2. Mumbai
C. National. Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-sciences 3. Bangalore
D. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages 4. Dharamshala
5. Varanasi
Code:
A B C D
(1) 5 3 4 1
(2) 5 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 5
(4) 4 5 1 2
Ans. (4)
40. Match List-I (Saint-poets) with List-II (Language of their Compositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Saint-poets) List-II (Language of their Compositions)
A. Mirabai 1. Malayalam
B. Tyagaraja 2. Bengali
C. Chandidas 3. Hindi
D. Purandardasa 4. Telugu
5. Kannada
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 1 5
(2) 3 4 2 5
(3) 2 5 1 4
(4) 3 5 2 4
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weight of the hydrocarbons?
(1) Methane, ethane, propane and butane
(2) Propane, butane, ethane and methane
(3) Butane, ethane, propane and methane
(4) Butane, propane. ethane and methane
Ans. (1)
42. Which organelles in the Cell, other than nucleus, contains D.N.A.?
(1) Centriole
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria
Ans. (4)
43. Brass is an alloy of:
(1) Aluminum and Copper
(2) Copper and Tin
(3) Copper and Zinc
(4) Zinc and Iron
Ans. (3)
44. Tear gas is:
(1) Ammonia
(2) Chlorine
(3) Hydrogen Carbide
(4) Hydrogen Sulphide
Ans. (1)
45. 1 kg/cm2 pressure is equivalent to
(1) 0.1 bar
(2) 1.0 bar
(3) 10.0 bar
(4) 100.00 bar
Ans. (2)
46 Match the two list- I and list- II with regard to bird sanctuaries in Uttar Pradesh and
find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
A. Nawabgà nj bird sanctuary
B. Ohkla bird sanctuary
C. Samaspur bird sanctuary
D. Parvati Aranga birds sanctuary
List-II
1. Gonda
2. Unnao
3. Ghaziabad
4. Rae Bareli
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (2)
47. India’s population’s growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match list –I (Period) with List-II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Period) List-II (Phase)
A. 1901 – 1921 1. Steady growth
B. 1921 – 1951 2. Rapid high growth
C. 1951 – 1981 3. Stagnant growth
D. 1981 – 2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 1 3 2 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (3)
48. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(1) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(2) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Fund and Public Accounts
(3) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss account
(4) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans. (3)
49. “Metastasis” is the process by which:
(1) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs
(2) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs
(3) the chromosomes in cell nuclear are attached to the spindle before moving to the anaphase poles
(4) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further
Ans. (2)
50. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain child of:
(1) W. Churchill
(2) M. Jinnah
(3) Lord Mountbatten
(4) V. P. Menon
Ans. (3)
MCQ Quiz on GK For PSU Exams Like ONGC
1 Which one of the following European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?
(1) Portugal
(2) Austria
(3) Finland
(4) Romania
Ans. (1)
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Greenland is an overseas territory of France.
2. Bermuda an overseas territory of UK is situated in Western Atlantic.
3. State of Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) l, 2, and 3
(2) 2 only
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l and 3
Ans. (3)
3. If the usual rule of calculation of time were applied for the extremes of Gujarat and
Arunachal Pradesh, then approximately time
(1) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 3 hours
(2) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 2 hours
(3) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
(4) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
Ans. (4)
4. While the time in India is 4 pm, that corresponding time (approximate) in?
(1) Auckland (New Zealand) is 6 pm
(2) London (England) is 10.30 am
(3) Tokyo(Japan) is 2 p.m.
(4) Cairo (Egypt) is 5 p.m.
Ans. (2)
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavell as the Governor General of India in March 1947.
2. In July 1947, British Government passed the Act containing the main provisions of the Mountbatten Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
6. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can:
(1) move from one cell to another
(2) disturb host cell respiration
(3) undergo auto-reproduction
(4) cause disease in the host
Ans. (1)
7. Which of the following States is the first to have enacted a comprehensive legislation to protect the girl child?
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (4)
8. Match List-I (Tennis Player) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Tennis Player) List-II (Country)
A. Justine Henin-Hardenne 1. Belgium
B. Kim Clijsters 2. England
C. Tim Henman 3 Australia
D. Andy Roddick 4. US
5. Spain
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 4 3 4
(2) 5 1 2 3
(3) 1 1 2 4
(4) 5 4 3 2
Ans. (3)
9. Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution to the forest-cover of India:
(1) Dense forest—Open forest— Mangrove forest
(2) Open forest—Dense forest—Mangrove forest
(3) Dense forest—Mangrove forest—Open forest
(4) Open forest—Mangrove forest—Dense forest
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Astra’ is an air-to-air guided missile which was recently test-fired.
2. Recently test-fired ‘Akash’ is a medium range surface to surface missile.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2.
Ans. (1)
11. Which of the following countries is not included in 0-8 (Group of eight industrialized countries)
(1) Italy
(2) Russia
(3) Holland
(4) Canada.
Ans. (3)
12. Match List (Dance Forms) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dance Forms) List-II (State)
A. Kathakali 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Kuchipudi 2. Kerala
C. Bharat Natyam 3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Karnataka
Code:
A B C
(1) 2 3 4
(2) 5 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 5 4 2
Ans. (3)
13. Gross National Product of a country Is the sum of the market value of all the goods and services produced in a year
(1) plus export earnings
(2) plus market value of imports.
(3) minus foreign aid
(4) plus net Income from abroad
Ans. (4)
14. India had a plan holiday:
(1) after the China-India War of 1962
(2) after the drought of 1966
(3) after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
(4) after the India-Pakistan War in 1965
Ans. (2)
15. In the Constitution of India promotion of International peace and security is included
In the-
(1) Preamble of the Constitution
(2) Directive Principles of State Policy
(3) Fundamental Duties
(4) Ninth Schedule
Ans. (2)
16. Consider the following statements related to the Prime Minister of India:
1. He signs the bills passed by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his absence.
2. He assists the President in making all the appointments.
3. He communicates to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (4)
17. Match List-I (Place) with List -II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Place) List-II (State)
A. Sriharikota 1. Karnataka
B. Thumba 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Hasan 3. Orissa
D. Chandipur 4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 5 4
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 1 4 5 3
(4) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (2)
18. Separation of the Judiciary from the executive in public service of the State is enjoined by -
(1) the Preamble of the Constitution of India
(2) a judicial decision
(3) the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
(4) a Directive Principle of State Policy
Ans. (4)
19. Which one amongst the following is the oldest Dynasty?
(1) Pallava Dynasty
(2) Chola Dynasty
(3) Maurya Dynasty
(4) Gupta Dynasty
Ans. (3)
20. The Chalukya King who defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada was:
(1) Pulakesin II
(2) Srimukha
(3) Mangalesa
(4) Kirtivarman I
Ans. (1)
21. Who among the following Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar?
(1) Rani Durgawati
(2) Ahilya Bai
(3) Martanda Varma
(4) Raja Sawai Jai Singh
Ans. (1)
22. Consider the following statements related to Raja Rammohan Roy:
1. He advocated widow remarriage.
2. He strongly .advocated for the abolition of Sati system
3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (3)
23. Tissue culture is:
(1) growing of tiny plant fragments in a nutrient solution
(2) a system of physical exercise for the regeneration of body tissues
(3) growing of plant fragments on tissue paper
(4) culturing of bacteria on tissue paper
Ans. (1)
24. Match List-I (Substance) with List-II(Constituent) and, select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Substance) List-II (Constituent)
A. White paint 1. Titanium dioxide
B. Glass 2. Phosphorus
C. Artificial fertilizer 3. Sodium silicate
D. Match-stick 4. Potassium sulphate
5. Potassium chloride
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 5 2
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 4 2 5 3
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (4)
25. The six distinct schools of Indian philosophy—Vedanta, Mimamsa, Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Valsesika became fully articulated during the:
(1) Vedic age
(2) Gupta age
(3) Kushana age
(4) Mauryan age
Ans. (4)
26. Gautama Buddha attained pari- nirvana at:
(1) Lumbini
(2) Sarnath
(3) Kushinagar
(4) Bodh Gaya
Ans. (3)
27. Who among the following belongs to the period of Kanishka?
1. Buddhaghosa
2. Nagarjuna
3. Vasumitra
4. Asvaghosa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(1) 2, 3, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 1, 3, and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (1)
28. Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Nature of Disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given blow the Lists:
List-I (Disease) List-II (Nature of Disease)
A. Filaria 1.Hereditary
B. Epilepsy 2. Waterborne
C. Enteric fever 3. Contagious
D. Mumps 4. Insect-Transmitted
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the hydroelectric plants.
2. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the thermal power plants.
3. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. is located in Tamil Nadu
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) 3 only
Ans. (1)
30. The layer of the atmosphere which makes radio communication possible is
(1) troposphere
(2) tropopause
(3) ionosphere
(4) stratosphere
Ans. (3)
31. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya : Bhopal
(2) Ramakrishna Mission Institute of Culture : Kolkata
(3) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library : Lucknow
(4) Anthropological Survey of India (Headquarters) : Kolkata
Ans. (1)
32. Consider the following statements:
The Estimates Committee
1. is an ad hoc committee.
2. has members from both the Houses of Parliament.
3. has members drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) 3 only
Ans. (3)
33. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens were laid down by which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India?
(1) 40th Amendment
(2) 41st Amendment
(3) 42nd Amendment
(4) 43rd Amendment
Ans. (4)
34. Match list-I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Organization)
A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Oil Corporation
B. M. S. Ramachandran 2. National Thermal Power Corporation
C. Sunil Arora 3. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. G. N. Bajpai 4. Indian Airlines
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (4)
35. Consider the following statement related to the 50th National Film Awards:
1. Aishwarya Rai got the Best Actress award for her role in the film Devdas.
2. Aparna Sen got the Best Director award for the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer
3. Konkona Sen got the Best Actress award or her role in the film Mr. and Mrs.
Iyer
4. Sanjay Lela Bhansali got the Best Director award for the film Devdas.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (2)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. In July 2003, East Bengal Club won the L.G Asean Cup football tournament
defeating Bec Tero Sasana Club of Indonesia at Jakarta
2. Sandip Nandy of East Bengal Club was adjudged the best goalkeeper of this tournament.
3. Baichung Bhutia of East Bengal Club was the highest goal scorer of the tournament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 3
(3) l and 2
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Linux 1. Internet
B. Pentium 2. Programming language
C. C++ 3. Microprocessor
D. Modem 4. Operating system
5. Laser printer
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 5 3
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 2 3 5 1
(4) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (2)
38 Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised after the Chinese aggression.
2. Border Security Force was raised in 1965.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in Udaipur.
Which of these statements are correct.?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l and 3
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following statements.:
1. The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance at any time if he is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action.
2. The Vice-President of India can be re-elected to his post.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
40. Jharkhand does not share boundary with
(1) West Bengal
(2) Orissa
(3) Chhattisgarh
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (4)
41. Bhimbetka which was been conferred the status of World Heritage Site is situated in:
(1) Orissa
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Bihar
Ans. (3)
42. Prof. Raghuram Rajan is/was associated as Chief Economist of:
(1) World Trade Organization
(2) World Bank
(3) International Monetary Fund
(4) Economic and Social Council of the UNO
Ans. (3)
43. The autobiography Living History has been authored by—
(1) Margaret Atwood
(2) Benazir Bhutto
(3) Hillary Clinton
(4) Monica Lewinsky
Ans. (3)
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Jacques Chirac : President of France
(2) Gerhard Schroeder : Chancellor of Germany
(3) Silvio Berlusconi : Prime Minister of Italy
(4) Jean Chrétien : President of Austria
Ans. (4)
45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Nalin Surie : Ambassador to America
(2) Shiv Shankar Menon : High Commissioner to Pakistan
(3) S. K. Sinha : Governor of Jammu & Kashmir
(4) K. Kasturirangan : Chairman, Indian Space Research Organization
Ans. (4)
46. No Biosphere Reserve. has been set up at —
(1) Nilgiri
(2) Sunderbans
(3) Gulf of Mannar
(4) Gulf of Kuchchh
Ans. (4)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO for marketing Indian space capabilities.
2. Megha-Tropiques is a joint satellite mission of ISRO and Russian Space Agency
for atmospheric studies.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
48. Bauxite is the principal ore of:
(1) Copper
(2) Aluminum
(3) Iron
(4) Zinc
Ans. (2)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. State Central Library is located at Mumbai.
2. National Library is located at New Delhi.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
50. Match List-I (Major Port) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Major Port) List-II (Estate)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Paradip Port 2. Maharashtra
C. Kandla Port 3. Orissa
D. Ennore Port 4. Gujarat
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (2)
Latest General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quiz
1. Match List-I (Country) with list-II (Sea) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Country) (Sea)
A. Yemen 1. Caspian Sea
B. Bulgaria 2. Black Sea
C. Algeria 3. Mediterranean Sea
D. Iran 4. Red sea
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (2)
2. Match List-I (Mineral Resources in India) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Mineral Resources in India) (Location)
A. Kolar Gold Field 1.Bihar
B. Khetri Copper Complex 2. Karnataka
C. High-grade Iron Ore Deposits 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Neyveli Lignite Field 4. Bailadila (Chhattisgarh)
5. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 1 2
(2) 2 5 4 3
(3) 3 5 4 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (2)
3. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of formation of the given
States?
(1) Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim – Gujarat — Haryana
(2) Gujarat — Haryana — Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim
(3) Himachal Pradesh — Haryana — Gujarat — Sikkim
(4) Gujarat — Haryana — Pradesh
Ans. (2)
4. Which one of the-following States is the major producer of cardamom?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Sikkim
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (2)
5. Match List-I (Defense Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Training Institute) (Location)
A. INS Valsura 1. Mhow
B. Air Force Administrative College 2. Coimbatore
C. Army War College 3. Jamnagar
D. Institute of Military Law 4. Kamptee
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 1 2
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (3)
6. Match List-1 (Training Institutes of Para—Military Forces) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Training Institutes of Para-Military Force) (Location)
A. Internal Security Academy 1. Indore
B. BSF Academy 2. Hakim pet (Secunderabad)
C. Central School of Weapons and Tactics 3. Mt. Abu
D. National Industrial Security Academy 4. Tekanpur
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 4 3 2
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 1 2 3 4
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (2)
7. Match list-I (Venue of Olympic Games) with List-II (Year) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Venue of Olympic Games) (Year)
A. Seoul 1.1992
B. Los Ange1es 2.1984
C. Atlanta 3. 1996
D. Barcelona 4. 1988
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 4 1
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (2)
8. Among the following famous Indian/Pakistani Hockey players, who is the Pakistani player.?
(1) Aslam Sher Khan
(2) Mohammad Shahid
(3) Zafar Iqbal
(4) Shahbaz Ahmed
Ans. (4)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. India won the One-day cricket World Cup in 1983 in Australia.
2. Sunil Gavaskar made his test-cricket debut against England.
3. Anil Kumble took 10 wickets in one inning of a cricket test match against Pakistan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (2)
10. Match List-I (Indian Sports persons) with List-II (Game/ Sport) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Indian Sports persons) List-II (Game/Sports)
A. Aprana Popat 1. Weightlifting
B. Koneru Humpy 2. Shooting
C. Abhinav Bindra 3. Chess
D. Kunjarani Devi 4. Badminton
5. Hockey
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 5 4 3
(2) 4 5 2 3
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (4)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. A Chief Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of death. .
2. A Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
12. Which one among the following has the highest population density in India?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Delhi
(4) Chandigarh
Ans. (3)
13. The Survey of India works ‘under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India?
(1) Ministry of Defense
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Science and Technology
(4) Ministry of Tourism and Culture
Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gives constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
2. Gram Sabha means a body consisting of the persons elected by the villagers above the age of 18 years residing in the area of the Gram Panchayat.
3. The Constitution envisages that. Gram Sabha selects beneficiaries under various schemes of the Central Government undertaken for rural development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 1, 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (3)
15. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Delhi and Pondicherry have Lieutenant Governors
(2) The Administrator of Chandigarh is designated as the Chief Commissioner
(3) The Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry may make laws with respect to matters enumerated in List II or List III of the Seventh Schedule in so far as these matters are applicable in relation to that Union Territory
(4) The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi does not require the prior approval of the Central Government for the introduction of any Bill in the Legislative Assembly
Ans. (2)
16. With reference to human nutrition, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Deficiency of Vitamin A can cause the non-functioning of tear-producing glands
(2) Vitamin A is synthesized in the skin in the presence of sunlight
(3) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 is common in those areas where polished rice is the major food item
(4) Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of calcium in urine
Ans. (2)
17. Consider the following statements:
In human body.
1. The opening of stomach into intestines is called caecum.
2. The junction of small intestine and large intestine is called pylorus..
3. Colon is much broader than the ileum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 only
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 3 only
Ans. (1)
18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Sweating at night and weight loss are symptoms of AIDS
(2) There are no vaccinations against Cholera
(3) Typhoid is caused by a Bacterium
(4) Oral vaccine is available to prevent typhoid
Ans. (4)
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Vitamin A : Fish liver oil
(2) Vitamin B1 : Whole cereals
(3) Vitamin C : Milk
(4) Vitamin E : Butter
Ans. (3)
20. Consider the following minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
21. Consider the following statements:
1. Chickenpox is caused by a bacterium.
2. Japanese Encephalitis (J E) is caused by virus and spread by mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
22. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was the contemporary of Gautam Buddha
(2) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was born at Rajgriha
(3) Siddhartha was born at Lumbini
(4) The ancient town Sravasti is the modern Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (2)
23. With whom did the English conclude the Treaty of Sagauli by which Kumaon and Garhwal were ceded to the British rule?
(1) Mughal Emperor
(2) Nawab of Awadh
(3) Rohillas
(4) Gurkhas
Ans. (4)
24. Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal with the help of the English, but why was Mir Jafar reinstated later on?
(1) Mir Jafar bribed the English heavily and made them remove Mir Kasim
(2) Mir Kasim opposed the religion-conversion of natives by the English
(3) Mir Kasim fought with the English as they were flouting the internal trade laws,
causing heavy loss to his income,
(4) The English felt that Mir Kasim had joined hands with the Mughal Emperor to oust the Eng1ish from India
Ans. (3)
25. Who was the Maratha Peshwa when, the Third Battle of Panipat was fought?
(1) Balaji Baji Rao
(2) Narayan Rao
(3) Madhav Rao II
(4) Baji Rao II
Ans. (1)
26. Match List-I (Temple) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple) List-II (Place)
A. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple 1.Varanasi
B. Adinatha Temple 2. Kangra
C. Brajesvari Devi temple 3. Khajuraho
D.Vishvanath Temple 4. Dilwara, Mt. Abu
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 4 3 1
(4) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (2)
27. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(1) During India’s freedom struggle, Independence Day was observed all over India
on 26th January 1930
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose Inaugurated the Government of Free India in Singapore in 1942
(3) The Muslim League joined the Constituent Assembly in 1945
(4) The Indian Independence Act 1947 was passed in the British Parliament
Ans. (3)
28. Which one among be following was started first during the freedom struggle of India?
(1) Bombay Presidency Association
(2) Indian Association
(3) Madras Native Association
(4) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Ans. (3)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Burma and India were separated under the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the abolition of the Indian
Council
3. The ‘Government of India Act, 1935 granted limited franchise to Indian women
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 only
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
30. Match List- I (Organization) with List-II (Founder) and se1ect the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
List-I (Organization) List-II (Founder)
A. East India Association 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Satya Shodhak Samaj 2. Devenaranath Tagore
C. Servants of Indian Society 3. Gopa1 Krishna Gokhale
D Tattivabodhini Sabha 4. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 1 4 3 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (3)
31 The great emperor Kanishka belonged to which dynasty?
(1) Maurya
(2) Vardhana
(3) Kushan
(4) Gupta
Ans. (3)
32. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(1) Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty— Sun Dynasty
(2) Lodhi Dynasty — Sun Dynasty —Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(3) Khilji Dynasty — Sun Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(4) Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty Khilji Dynasty—Sun Dynasty
Ans. (1)
33. Consider the following statements
1. Function of flywheel in an engine Is to reduce fluctuations of its speed.
2. Octane 93 is a rating of diesel as fuel.
3. Gyroscopic principle is used In ships and aircraft.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
34. Consider the following statements:
1. Modem is used to link a computer with a telephone line so that data can be transmitted at high speeds from one computer to another.
2. Pentium chip performs the function of RAM in a computer CPU.
3.Giga represents 109
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 3 only
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (4)
35. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) So far there have been three proclamations of Emergency in whole of India
(2) A written communication of the decision of the Union Cabinet is an essential precondition for the issue of proclamation of Emergency In whole of India by the President of India
(3) Under no circumstances could the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India be denied even during Emergency.
(4) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation of Emergency or its continuance, it shall be revoked within two months
Ans. (4)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. A new chapter on the Fundamental Duties of citizens was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
2.A new article dealing with the Right to Education regarding providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. The Right to Property has been omitted as a Fundamental right and made only a legal right.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (4)
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants,
3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (4)
38. Which one of the following is the, correct statement?
(1) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President of India
(2) The comptroller and Auditor General of India is ineligible for any other office under the Government of India or any State Government after he has ceased to hold his office
(3) The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are
determined by the Ministry of Finance
(4) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following statements:
l. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
2. Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds
the Office of the Vice President of India for a period of six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
40. Which one of the following States shares boundaries with the maximum number of other States of India?
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Assam
(4) Bihar
Ans. (1)
41. Which. of the following is a cash crop?
(1) Wheat
(2) Mullets
(3) Rice
(4) Rubber
Ans. (4)
42. Match List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) List-II (State)
A. Brihadeswara Temple 1. Orissa
B. Dilawara Temple 2. Tamil Nadu
C. Lingaraja Temple 3. Karnataka
D. Hampi Group of monuments 4. Rajasthan
5. Kerala
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 5 4
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 1 4 5 3
Ans. (2)
43. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations Organization?
(1) International Court of Justice
(2) Economic and Social Council
(3) Trusteeship Council
(4) Food and Agriculture Organization
Ans. (4)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Chilka Lake 1. Kerala
B. Alappuzha 2. Orissa
C. Fort Aguda 3. Port Blair
D. Cellular Jail National Memorial 4. Goa
5. Hyderabad
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 3 4 5 2
(3) 2 4 5 3
(4) 3 1 4 2
Ans. (1)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Bengal was separated into two provinces during the term of Lord Minto as the Viceroy of India.
2. Simon Commission came to India while Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India
3. The Government Of India Act of 1919 is also known as Montagu – Chelmsford
Reforms.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (4)
46. Which one of the following is not an official language of the United Nations Organization?
(1) Arabic
(2) Russian
(3) Chinese
(4) German
Ans. (4)
47. Consider the following statements
1. Polar diameter of the earth is about 40km. larger than its equatorial diameter.
2. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is oxygen.
3. On summer solstice sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 2 only
Ans. (2)
48. When Cripps Mission came to India, who among the following was the Viceroy of India?
(1) Lord Irwin
(2) Lord Linlithgow
(3) Lord Wavell
(4) Lord Willington
Ans. (2)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. India gave up the status of Dominion on 15th August, 1947.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 was amended and made the provisional Constitution of India till the Constituent Assembly of India framed a new Constitution.
3. Constituent Assembly functioned only as a Constitution-making body and
not as a provisional Parliament of India.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 only
Ans. (2)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Railways have seven zones.
2. Jan Shatabdi trains were introduced in the 150th years of the Indian Railways.
3. The Research, Design and Standards Organization which functions as a consultant to the Indian Railways in technical matters is located at Allahabad.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(l) l and 2
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) l and 3
Ans. (3)
Current Affairs and Current GK for exams.
1. Which one of the following is used as purgative?
(1) Calcium chloride
(2) Magnesium
(3) Potassium iodide
(4) Sodium thiosulphate
Ans. (1)
2. The fibrinogen which is associated with blood clotting is produced by
(1) Bone marrow
(2) Liver
(3) Pancreas
(4) Spleen
Ans. (1)
3. Which one of the following sets is a part of vitamin B complex?
(1) Thiamine, riboflavin, biotin, calciferol
(2) Thiamine, riboflavin, retinol, biotin
(3) Thiamine, biotin, pyridoxine, ascorbic acid
(4) Thiamine, riboflavin biotin, nicotinic acid
Ans. (2)
4. Match List -I (Gland) with List -II (Hormone Produced) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Gland) (Hormone Produced)
A. Adrenal 1. Aldosterone
B. Pancreas 2. Calcitonin
C. Thyroid 3. Glucagon
Code:
A B C
(1) 1 2 3
(2) 1 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 3 1 2
Ans. (2)
5. Which of the following are good sources of vitamin C (ascorbic acid)?
l. Grapes
2. Pineapple
3. Guava
4. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) l, 2 and 3
(2) l and 4
(3) 2, 3 and 4
(4) 1, 2. 3 and 4
Ans. (1)
6. Match List -I (Person) with List- II (Associated With) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Associated With)
A. Elfriede Jelinek 1. World Bank
B. Paul Wolfowitz 2. Media
C. Rupert Murdoch 3. Music
D. Zubin Mehta 4. Literature
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (3)
7. Match List -I (Famous Person) with List- II (Well-known As) and Select the correct using the code given below in the list:
List-I List-II
(Famous Person) (Well-known As)
A. Billy Arjun Singh 1. Historian
B. Habib Tanvir 2. Painter
C. Irfan Habib 3. Theatre personality
D. Jatin Das 4. Wildlife conservationist
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 4 2
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (4)
8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Anjolie Ela Menon : Painter
(2) Bula Chowdhury : Film direction
(3) Sunita Narain : Environmental activist
(4) Swarn Noora : Singer.
Ans. (2)
9. What was the main subject of the Kyoto Protocol?
(1) Bio-diversity
(2) Global warming
(3) Alternative sources of energy
(4) Genetically modified organisms
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Legal Literacy Mission, is being implemented by the Law Commission.
2. The official mascot for the National Legal Literary Mission is Ashoka’s Dharma chakra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
11. Under which one of the following Union Ministries does the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee work?
(1) Science and Technology
(2) Environment and Forests
(3) Agriculture
(4) Human Resource Development
Ans. (4)
12. The Dinka tribe, whose members are amongst the tallest in the world, and are frequently in news, belong to which of the following countries.
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Uzbekistan
(3) Spain
(4) Sudan
Ans. (4)
13. Where is the NTPC’s 520- MW Tapovan Vishnugad hydro-electric project ?
(1) Assam
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Uttranchal
Ans. (4)
14. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. Ministers of the Union Cabinet.
3 Chief Ministers of the States.
4; The Chairman, Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) l and 2
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2, 3 and.4
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
15. In India, where is its only live volcano located?
(1) Byramgore Reef
(2) Palk Bay
(3) Little Nicobar
(4) Barren Island
Ans. (3)
16. Which one of the following is not among the G4 countries which seek a permanent
Membership in the Security Council of the UNO?
(1) Brazil
(2) Germany
(3) Italy
(4) Japan
Ans. (3)
17. ‘Deen Dayal’ Project of the Gujarat Government deals with which one of the following?
(1) Housing for the rural population
(2) At least one-job for every family
(3) Promotion of rural handicraft industry
(4) Gas discovery in the Krishna Godavari basin
Ans. (3)
18. Chaitra l of the National Calendar based on the Saka era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian Calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
(1) 22nd March
(2) 15th May
(3) 31st March
(4) 21st Apr
Ans. (1)
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Rapid Action Force is an integral part of the National Security Guards
2. Sashastra Seema Bal under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defense.
Which of the statements given above Is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor2
Ans. (1)
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police is fondly called “Friends of the Hill People”.
2. Besides the Public Sector Undertakings, the security at the airports and the government buildings in Delhi has been entrusted to the Central Industrial Security Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
Directions: The following 5 (Five) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (1)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
21. Assertion (1): During the reign of Siraj-ud-daulah of Bengal, the English East India Company began to fortify Calcutta began to fortify Calcutta with out the Nawab’s permission.
Reason (R): The English Company had already got permission from the Emperor Shah Alam II to fortify Calcutta in anticipation of their fight with the French stationed at Chandernagore.
Ans. (3)
22. Assertion (1): Samudragupta undertook a military campaign to South India:
Reason (R): The rulers of South India posed a major threat to the stability of the Gupta Empire.
Ans. (2)
23. Assertion (1): The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): The size of the Pacific Ocean is larger as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
Ans. (1)
24. Assertion (1): The amount of dust particles is more in equatorial regions as compared to that of temperate areas.
Reason (R): The equatorial regions are warmer as compared to the temperate areas.
Ans. (1)
25. Assertion (1): The enactment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act marks a new era in the federal democratic set-up of the country.
Reason (R): This Act bestowed constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Ans. (1)
26. Consider the following statements:
1. The filament of a 60-watt bulb is thinner than that of a 100W bulb.
2. The filament of a glowing bulb emits infrared radiation in addition to visible radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. PVC (used in electric wiring) is an abbreviation for Poly Vanadium Carbon.
2. RDX is an abbreviation for Research Development Explosive.
3. A hectare is equal to 10 acres whereas an acre equals around 4050 square meters of area.
Which f the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2 and 3only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 2 only
Ans. (4)
28. Where is Diego Garcia located?
(1) Atlantic Ocean
(2) Indian Ocean
(3) Pacific Ocean
(4) Mediterranean Sea
Ans. (2)
29. Why can Moon be not used as a communication satellite?
(1) The distance between Earth and the Moon is not suitable for the purpose
(2) The period of revolution of the Moon is not 24 hours
(3) The Moon doe not evolve in the equatorial plane of the Earth
(4) All the above three are the reasons
Ans. (4)
30. Where is the Riviera region, well known for its climate, landscape and holiday resorts located?
(1) Between New Zealand and Australia
(2) Between Austria and Switzerland
(3) Between the United States of America and Canada
(4) Between France and Italy
Ans. (1)
31. A steel chain consists of 50 links connected to each other. The chain is pulled by applying force F at each of its ends. What is the magnitude of force induced in each link?
(1) F/50
(2) F
(3) 50F
(4) F/25
Ans. (2)
32. Which one of the following countries does not border the Black Sea?
(1) Romania
(2) Ukraine
(3) Bulgaria
(4) Croatia
Ans. (4)
33. Consider the following statements:
1. The Draft Constitution as well as the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on- 26th November, 1949 were in both English and Hindi.
2. As per the Constitution of India, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in both English and Hindi.
Which of the following given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
34. Consider the following statements:
1. In Part IX of the Constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2. The Eleventh Schedu1 of the Constitution of India distributes powers between the State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the Seventh Schedule distributes power between the Union of India and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4 Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of a State may reserve a Bill for consideration of President of India.
2. The Governor of a State is competent to withdraw an ordinance issued in the State at
any time
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. In the parliamentary system of India, if the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the
power to withhold his assent from the Bill.
2. As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council to Ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to the Rajya Sabha
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(1) 1only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
37. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala related to which one of the following issues?
(1) Acquiring private land for government
(2) Exploitation of women at workplace
(3) Basic features of the constitution of India.
(4) Reservation of jobs for OBCs in the government service
Ans. (3)
38. Consider the following statements:
1. The British Crown had assumed direct rule in India before the Sepoy Mutiny
2. Lord Canning was made the first Viceroy and Governor General after the end of the rule of the East India Company.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
39. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) The Government of India Act, 1919 : Minto-Morley Reforms.
(2) The Cripps Mission : Year 1942
(3) The Government of India Act, 1935 : Provincial Autonomy
(4) The Cabinet Mission Plan : Year 1946
Ans. (1)
40. In which century was the ancient Vijayanagar city founded.
(1) l7th century
(2) 16th century
(3) 15th century
(4) 14th century
Ans. (4)
41. The Battle of Kanawha was fought between
(1) Hutna3ktn and Mahmud Lodi
(2) Babur and Ebrahim Lodi
(3) Babur and Rana Sangha
(4) Humayun and Sher Khan
Ans. (3)
42. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(1) Kumara Gupta – Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(2) Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya – Samudra Gupta
(3) Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya -Kumara Gupta
(4) Samudra Gupta – Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta – Vikramaditya
Ans. (3)
43. Match List -I (City) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I List- II
(City) (Country)
A. Zagreb 1. Uruguay
B. Bratislava 2. Seychelles
C. Victoria 3. Croatia
D. Montevideo 4. Slovakia
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 4 3 1
(4) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (2)
44. Match List -I (Famous Athletes) with List -II (Event) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I List-II
(Famous Athletes) (Event)
A. Florence Griffith Joyner 1. 10,000 m race
B. Michael Johnson 2. 200 m race
C. K Bekele 3. Pole vault
D. S. Bubka 4. l00 m race
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (4)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Income Tax Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a digit alphanumeric number:
2. India is divided into10 zones for postal pin code classification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
46. The term ‘Kamikaze’ was used in reference to
(1) The Singapore industries
(2) The Korean athletes
(3) The Japanese pilots
(4) The Chinese musicians
Ans. (3)
47. Match. List-I (Famous Place) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Famous Place) List-II (Country)
A. Monte Carlo 1. England
B. Fleet Street 2. Monaco
C. Great Barrier Reef 3. United States of America
D. Flushing Meadows 4. Australia
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (1)
48. Which one of the following pairs of Organization and headquarters is not correctly matched?
(1) Asian Development Bank : Manila
(2) Organization of American States (OAS) : Washington
(3) Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) : Minsk
(4) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) : Colombo
Ans. (4)
49. Which one of the following countries does not border Austria?
(1) Germany
(2) Switzerland
(3) Hungary
(4) France
Ans. (4)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The Presidential Election of the United States of America is held every fifth year
2. The Vice-President of the United States of America is the ex officio President of the House of Representatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
Solved Model Paper Solved Question Paper IDBI Bank Executive Exam
1. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C and A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth?
(1) C
(2) B
(3) E
(4) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans. (2)
2. A man is facing. south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180? in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is:
(1) North-east
(2) North-west
(3) South-east
(4) South-west
Ans. (4)
3. Among five friends:
Mangla is taller to Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller to Sapna but not as tall as Neela. In this group who is the shortest?
(1) Mangla
(2) Sapna
(3) Pushpa
(4) Asha
Ans. (2)
4. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of income of B and D. The highest income is of:
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (2)
5. In a class of 60 students. where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kama1, the number of boys in rank after him is:
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 13
Ans. (3)
6. If X and Y are brothers Z is sister of X, P is brother of Q, and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P?
(1) Z
(2) X
(3)Q
(4) Y
Ans. (2)
7. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given
. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is:
(1) 19
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 31
Ans. (4)
8. Same positions of dice are shown below:
What is the number opposite to 4?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1
Ans. (4)
Directions: (9-13): A management company is to form a 5 member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance expert, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts C, D and E can work as accountants. F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.
9. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?
(1) A, B, C, D, F
(2) A, C, D, E, F
(3) A, B, C, F, G
(4) B, C, D F, G
Ans. (1)
10. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?
(1) C must work as finance expert
(2) Any of the three marketing experts can be included
(3) Neither D nor E can be included
(4) F must be included
Ans. (2)
11. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(1) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant
(2) B and C as finance experts
(3) G and H as marketing experts
(4) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts
Ans. (2)
12. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 13
Ans. (1)
13. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group if all preferences are respected?
l. A
2. E
3. F
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (14-18): Read the following seven statements to solve the next five Items.
(i) Five boys B1 B2 B3 B4 and B5 and five girls G1 G2 G3 G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the odd numbered seats starting from the left while, each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.
(ii) B4 is G4’s friend
(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.
(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.
(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.
(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.
(vii) G4 sits next to B2
14. G3’s friend may be
(1) B1 or B2
(2) B1, B3 or B5
(3) B1, B2 or B3
(4) B2 or B5
Ans. (2)
15. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?
(1) B2, 2 B1, G5 B
(2) B4, 04. 02., Q5
(3) G2, B2, G4. B4, G1 or G3
(4) B4, G5, 82. G2,131 or B5
Ans. (4)
16. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (4)
17. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?
(1) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend but, not both
(2) Only the identity of B1’s friend
(3) Only the identity of B5’s friend
(4) Who is sitting to B4’s left
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?
1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left ?
2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?
3. Which other girls are nearest toG2?
Which the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (18-21): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour a carries a different number (from 1 to 6)
(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.
(ii) The orange face has number 1.
(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.
(iv) When the orange face is facing an observer, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.
(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-colored.
(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.
18. Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-colored face?
(1) White, Blue, Black, Pink
(2) White, Orange, Black, Blue
(3) Blue, Black, Pink, White
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (2)
19. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?
(1) Blue
(2) Pink
(3) Grey
(4) White
Ans. (1)
20. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (3)
21. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?
(1) Orange – Black
(2) White – Blue
(3) Pink – Grey
(4) Black - White
Ans. (4)
22. There are five friends — P. Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T is younger to R and S. both P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S.
Who among the five friends is the eldest?
(1) S
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) Cannot be ascertained with the given data
Ans. (2)
23. A, B, C, D, and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R. S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city.
Further, it is given
1. B and. C do not belong to
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) C belongs to P
(2) D belongs to R
(3) A belongs to Q
(4) B belongs to S
Ans. (4)
24. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) S is the grandson of P
(2) S is the grandson of U
(3) V is the son-in-law of P
(4) V is the son of U
Ans. (4)
25. Along chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons .
(2) The force induced In each link will be equal to 30 newtons
(3) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
(4) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are
given
Ans. (3)
Sample Solved Questions
1. The average score of three boys in Mathematics is 30.
When the score of the fourth boy is added to the total score of the three boys, the average is lowered to 25. What is the score of the fourth boy?
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25
Ans. (1)
2. A walks 10 meters in front and 10 meters to his left and right. Then every turn left he walks 5, 15 and 15 meters respectively. What is the distance from his initial point?
(1) 5 meters
(2) 10 meters
(3) 15 meters
(4) 23 meters
Ans. (1)
3. The number of terms between 11 and 200 which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are:
(1) 18
(2) 19
(3) 27
(4) 28
Ans. (1)
4 What is the 6th term in the sequence of 2, 3, 6, 11, and 18?
(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 29
(4) 31
Ans. (2)
5. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of:
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 50
Ans. (1)
6. Two varieties of rice Rs. 10 per kg and Rs.12 per kg are mixed together in the ratio 1:2. What is the price of the resulting mixture?
(1) Rs. 10.50 per kg.
(2) Rs. 10.67 per kg
(3) Rs. 11.20 per kg,
(4) Rs. 11.33 per kg
Ans. (4)
7. By selling 15 mangoes a fruit vendor recovers the cost price of 20 mangoes. What is the profit percentage of the fruit vendor?
(1) 20.5%
(2) 30.67%
(3) 33.33%
(4) 35.4%
Ans. (3)
8. The average of marks of 13 papers is 40, The average of marks of first 7 papers is 42, and that of the last 7 papers is 35. What are the marks of the seventh paper?
(l) 17
(2) 19
(3) 21
(4) 24
Ans. (2)
9. Three years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby having been born, the average age of the family is the same as what was three years ago. What is the age of the baby?
(1) 8 months
(2) 9 months
(3) 1 year
(4) 2 years
Ans. (4)
10. In a 100 m race for children, A runs at 1.66 m/s. If A gives B a start of 4m and still beats him by 12 seconds, what is B’s speed?
(1) 0.75 m/s
(2) 1 km/h
(3) 1.11 m/s
(4) 1.33 m/s
Ans. (4)
11. Amit takes twice as mush time as Aryan and thrice as much as Raman to finish a piece of work. Together they finish the work in 1 day. What is the time taken by Amit to finish the work?
(1) 2 days
(2) 3 days
(3) 6 days
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
12. When 60% of a number A is added to another number B, B becomes 175% of its previous value. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) A > B
(2) B > A
(3) Either o1 the above can be true depending upon the values of A and B
(4) None of the above three can be predicted with out more data
Ans. (1)
13. The present population of a village is 5500. If the number of males increases by 11% and the number of females increases by 20% then the population will become 6330.
What is the present population of females in the village?
(l) 2000
(2) 2500
(3) 3000
(4) 3500
Ans. (2)
14. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage of the number Y less than the number X?
(1) 8 %
(2) 9 %
(3) 10 %
(4) 12 %
Ans. (3)
15. There are four envelopes, each carrying a specific address for each of the four different letters. If the letters are randomly put into envelopes, What is the probability that all the four letters will be put into their respective correctly addressed envelopes?
(1) 1/4
(2) 1/12
(3) 1/18
(4) 1/24
Ans. (4)
16. What is the total number of digits printed if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?
(1) 262
(2) 342
(3) 360
(4) 450
Ans. (2)
17. A person travels three equal distances at a speed of x km/h, y km/h and z km/h respectively. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
(1) xyz
(xy +yz + zx)
(2) (xy + yz + zx)
Xyz
(3) 3xyz
(xy +yz +zx)
(4) xyz
3(xy +yz +zx)
Ans. (3)
18. A person walks 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 19 km due West, and then 15km due South. How far is he away from the starting point?
(1) 61 km
(2) 37 km
(3) 9 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
19. A cube of length one cm Is taken out from a cube of length 8 cm. What is the weight of the remaining portion?
(1) 7/8 of the weight of the original cube
(2) 8/9 of the weight of the original cube.
(3) 63/64 of the weight of the original cube.
(4) 511/512 of the weight of the original cube.
Ans. (4)
20. What are the maximum points of intersection of four circles such that no circle overlaps any other circle?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
21. The average of five consecutive numbers is x. If the next two numbers are also included, how shall the average vary?
(1) It shall increase by 1
(2) It shall remain the same
(3) It shall increase by 1.4
(4) It shall increase by 2
Ans. (1)
22. There are tables containing two drawers each. It is known that one of the tables contains a silver coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a gold coin in each drawer while the third table contains a silver coin in one drawer and a gold coin in the other. One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to contain a silver coin. What is the probability that the other drawer of that table contains a gold coin?
(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.75
Ans. (2)
23. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
24. 10 % of 20 + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)
25. The half life of radioactive element is 5 years. The fraction of the radioactive substance that remains after 20 years is:
(1) l/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/8
(4) 1/16
Ans. (4)
26.The surface area of a cube is 216 sq. m. What is its volume?
(1) 100 cu m
(2) 216 cu m
(3) 480 cu m
(4) 512 cu m
Ans. (2)
27. A coin is tossed five times. What is the probability that Head (H) appears an odd number of times?
(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3
Ans. (3)
28. A freight train left, Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?
(1) 230km
(2) 240km
(3) 260 km
(4) 280 km
Ans. (2)
29. There are three tables containing two drawers each. One of the tables contains a gold coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a silver coin in each of its drawers while the third table, contains a gold in one drawer and a silver coin in the other .One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to contain a silver coin .What is the probability that its other drawer contains a gold coin?
(1) 1
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25
Ans. (3)
30. Out of 120 musicians, 5% play all the three instruments- guitar, violin and tabla. 30 musicians among them can play any two and only two of the above instruments. The number of musicians who can play guitar alone is 40. What is the number of musicians who can play violin alone or tabla alone?
(1) 30
(2) 38
(3) 44
(4) 48
Ans. (3)
31. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines on a board. What is the maximum rectangles and squares that can be formed?
(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 42
(4) 42
Ans. (3)
32. What is the number of integers greater than 7000 that can be formed with the digits
3: 5, 7, 8 and 9, no digit being repeated?
(1) 48
(2) 64
(3) 136
(4) 192
Ans. (4)
33. A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 14
(4) 16
Ans. (1)
34. A two-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
(1) 27
(2) 36
(3) 45
(4) 54
Ans. (3)
35. Four volunteers represent the school A. 5 volunteers represent the school B, 6 volunteers represent the school C and 3 volunteers represent the school D.
Each of the volunteers shakes hands with every volunteer from school other than his own. If each volunteer shake hands exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
(1) 153
(2) 141
(3) 119
(4) 108
Ans. (1)
Directions: (Q.36-39) : In a survey of a locality following observations are made:
(i) The number of male adults and female non-adults in 30 each.
(ii) The number of female adults and male non adults in 20 each.
(iii Every female adult is well versed in at least one of the two languages – Hindi
and English
(iv) Every male non adu1t is well-versed with at least one of the two languages — Hindi and English.
(v) 7 male adults and 8 female non-adults do not know any of the two languages.
(vi) 10 male non-adults and 18 female adults are well versed in both the languages.
(vii) 20 male adults and 17 female non-adults are well versed in only one of the two languages.
Based on the information given above answer the next four items:
36. What is the number of females who are well-versed in both the languages?
(1) 18
(2) 35
(3) 23
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (3)
37. What is the number of males who are well-versed in Hindi only?
(1) 20
(2) 43
(3) 10
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (4)
38. What is the number of non adults who are well versed in at least one of the two languages?
(1) 42
(2) 15
(3) 27
(4) Cannot be determined cause of insufficient data
Ans. (1)
39. What is the number of persons who can talk to each other both the languages?
(1) 85
(2) 36
(3) 49
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (2)
40. How many times do the hour hand and the minute hand of a watch become perpendicular to each other in 24 hours?
(1) 22
(2) 24
(3) 44
(4) 48
Ans. (3)
41. In how many different ways can 5 different rings be put on 4 fingers?
(1) 20
(2) 45
(3) 54
(4) 9
Ans. (2)
42. How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an Octagon?
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 28
(4) 64
Ans. (1)
43. A watch loses 2 minutes per day (24 hr) while another watch gains 2 minutes per day (24 hr). At a particular instant the two watches showed an identical time. When will the two watches show the identical time again?
(1) On completion of 7 days
(2) On completion of 30 days
(3) On completion of 120 days
(4) On completion of 180 days
Ans. (4)
44. If successive natural numbers are written in a row starting from 1, which digit appears in the 200th place?
(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7
Ans. (1)
45. Trains leave a station A for another station B after a gap every one hour. Each train takes 4 hours to complete the journey. Trains leave the stations A and B simultaneously after an interval of every one hour. If a person starts from the station A for the station B, how many trains will he cross before arriving at the Station B?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
Ans. (3)
46. In the year 2004, the month of February had 5 Sundays.
In which of the following years did February last have 5 Sundays?
(1) 2000
(2) 1996
(3) 1980
(4) 1976
Ans. (4)
47. Six identical Cards are placed on a table. Each Card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed such that
the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more or less)
cards are turned upside down. In how many tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) This cannot be achieved
Ans. (1)
48. A boy wrote successive whole numbers starting from 1 up to 900 in doing so how many times did he write the digit 7?
(1) 271
(2) 280
(3) 281
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
49. A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate gets 4 marks for
every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer. Which one of’ the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
(1) 396, 395, 394
(2) 393, 392, 391
(3) 392, 391, 390
(4) 389, 388, 387
Ans. (3)
50. Six singers are taking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition. How many comparisons does each judge make between all the singers to select the best among them ?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 24
(l) 25
Ans. (1)
Online GK Quiz Questions
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In India the share of different sectors in the installed electricity generation capacity is central sector > state sector > private sector.
2. The percentage of thermal power out of the total installed electricity generation capacity in India is about 40%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
2. Which of the following countries does not follow the Westminster system of Parliament?
(1) Malaysia
(2) Singapore
(3) Australia
(4) Switzerland
Ans. (4)
3. Magna Carta in England led to the development of:
(1) Constitutional law
(2) International law
(3) Labour law
(4) Criminal law
Ans. (1)
4. Which of the following led to the Constitution of India as the Directive Principle of State Policy?
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
2. Participation of workers in management of industry
3. Equal justice and free legal aid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1)1 and 2 only
(2) 2 and 3only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2 and only
Ans. (4)
5. Consider the fo1long statements:
1. The Annual Financial Statement (Annual Budget) is caused to be laid by the Union Finance Minister before both Houses of the Parliament.
2. The general discussion of the Annual Finance Statement takes place only in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
6 Consider the following statements:
1. For a person to be eligible for election as the Vice-President of India, he must be qualified for election as a member if the Rajya Sabha.
2. No person has ever been re-elected as the Vice-President of India for a second term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
7. Consider the following statement.
1 .The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed only on an address from both Houses of Parliament
2. In India, the Comptroller, and Auditor General has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the Council of Union Ministers into three ranks.
2. A member of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a Union Minister and he enjoys the right to vote in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(l) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. A child inherits 46 chromosomes from each parent.
2. The genetic material called DNA is located in chromosomes.
Which of the statements given above is/ correct?
(l) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following Statements:
1. BSE Sensex is a value-weighted index consisting of 50 most actively traded stocks on the BSE.
2. The depository system enables paperless trading and transfer of Shares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
11. What is the present (approximate) Gross Domestic Product of India in the US Dollar Exchange rate terms?
(1) US $ 480 billion
(2) US $ 720 billion
(3) US$ 1000 billion
(4) US$ 1220 billion
Ans. (1)
12. In what capacity was P.C. Mahalanobis involved with the formulation of the economic policy of independent India?
(1) As an applied stactician
(2) As Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(3) As a leading industrialist
(4) As a Minister of the Union Cabinet
Ans. (1)
13. Which one of the following is the southernmost major port?
(1) Tuticorin
(2) Mangalore
(3) Ennore
(4) Kochi
Ans. (1)
14. Which one of the following States does not share a border with Orissa?
(1) West Bengal
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (3)
15. Consider the following statements:
1. GATI was succeeded by the World Trade Organization in the year 1995.
2. Headquarters of WTO are in Doha.
3 World Intellectual Property organizations is a specialized agency of WTO
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 on1y
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
16. Which one of the, following Is ‘used as a preservative for foods?
(i) Adipic acid
(2) Butyric acid
(3) Citric acid
(4) Formic acid
Ans. (4)
17. Which one of the following gases contains the greatest percentage of carbon monoxide?
(1) Coal gas
(2) Natural gas
(3) Producer gas
(4) Water gas
Ans. (1)
18. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(1) Zinc
(2) Platinum
(3) Mercury
(4) Arsenic
Ans. (4)
19. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?
(1) Baking soda
(2) Slaked lime
(3) Quick lime
(4) Washing soda
Ans. (1)
20. Why is common salt added to soap during its production?
(1) To decrease the solubility of soap
(2) To increase the solubility of soap
(3) To produce lather with hard water
(4) To provide greater cleansing action
Ans. (3)
21. Which one of the following does not contain copper as constituent?
(1) Phosphor bronze
(2) Solder wire
(3) German silver
(4) Gun metal
Ans. (2)
22. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(1) Iron
(2) Aluminum
(3) Manganese
(4) Magnesium
Ans. (2)
23. Which smelling substance is added to LPG gas cylinders to help in the detection of gas leak age?
(1) Ethyl alcohol
(2) Ethyl mercaptan
(3) Phenol
(4) Benzene
Ans. (2)
24. Which of the following is the main function of a micro processor in a computer?
(1) To convert assembly language to machine language
(2) To convert high level language to machine language
(3) To execute programs stored in the memory of the system
(4) To retrieve information from the Internet
Ans. (3)
25. If v1 is the velocity of light, v2 is the velocity of X-rays and v3 Is the velocity of y- rays, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) V1 > V2 > V3
(2) V1 > V2 = V
(3) V1 = V2 > V3
(4) V1 = V2 =V3
Ans. (4)
26. A liquid crystal acquires which one of the following?
(1) A liquid phase
(2) A solid phase
(3) A phase between solid and liquid
(4) A phase between liquid and gas
Ans. (3)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Puerto Rico is situated in the Caribbean Sea
2. Puerto Rico is an insular area of the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
28. Which one of the following is correct?
Angela Merkel is:
(1) The Prime Minister of Canada
(2) The Chancellor of Germany
(3) The Prime Minister of Australia
(4) The Prime Minister of New Zealand
Ans. (2)
29. Birju Maharaj is a renowned dancer of
(1) Bharatnatyam
(2) Odissi
(3) Kuchipudi
(4) Kathak
Ans. (4)
30. The United Arab Emirates is a federation of how many Emirates?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Ans. (2)
31. Which one of the following is the first State to have both Indian Institute of Technology and Indian Institute of Management?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Karnataka
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (1)
32. Who among the following former Presidents of India did not hold the office of Vice President of India before becoming the President of India?
(1) V. V. Giri
(2) Zakir Hussain
(3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(4) R. Venkatraman
Ans. (3)
33. What is 1 GB equal to?
(1) 10MB
(2) 100MB
(3) 1000 MB
(4) 10000 MB
Ans. (3)
34. Match list-I (Defense Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code give below the lists:
List- I List-II
(Defense institute) (Location)
A. Defense Services Staff College 1. Mhow
B. College of Defense Management 2. Secunderabad
C. Army War College 3. Wellington
D. Military College of Electronics and
Mechanical Engineering
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 2 3
(2) 3 2 1 2
(3) 2 2 1 3
(4) 3 1 2 2
Ans. (2)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. United Kingdom comprises England, Wales and Scotland only
2. Great Britain comprises United Kingdom and Northern Ireland.
Which of the, statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
36. Ankles war is well known for which one of the following?
(1) Steel plants
(2) Chemical industry
(3) Ship building
(4) Carpet manufacture
Ans. (2)
37. Which one of the following is not a member of the European Union?
(1) France
(2) Greece
(3) Portugal
(4) Switzerland
Ans. (4)
38. At which one of the following places has WTO Ministerial Conference not been held?
(1) Davos
(2) Cancun
(3) Doha
(4) Seattle
Ans. (1)
39. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Uttarkashi : River Bhagirathi
2. Tehri : Confluence of River Bhagirathi and Bhilangana
3. Rudraprayag : Confluence of Rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) l and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1and 3 only
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following statements:
1. Sriharikota is an island off the coast of Kerala.
2. Sriharikota houses the Satish Dhawan Space Center
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
41. What is the present level of steel production in India?
(1) 40 – 42 million tones
(2) 50 – 62 million tones
(3) 60 – 62 million tones
(4) 70 -72 million tones
Ans. (1)
42. For the purpose of Census 2001, which one of the following was taken as being literate?
(1) A person aged 10 years and above, who can both read and write in any language.
(2) A person aged 9 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(3) A person aged 8 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(4) A person aged 7years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
Ans. (4)
43. On the basis of Census 2001, which Indian State has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh?
(1) Bihar
(2) West Bengal
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)
44. Which of the following are the goals set in the National Population Policy 2000?
1. Universalisation of primary education and reduction in the drop out rates at primary and secondary level
2. Containing of sexually transmitted diseases.
3. Universal immunization of children against vaccine preventable diseases
4. Reduction in the incidence of marriage of girls below the age of 18 years to zero.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 and 2 only
(2) 2 and 3 only
(3) 1, 2 and 3 only
(4) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (4)
45. A metal element and a non-metal element are obtained in large quantities from seawater are respectively:
(1) Sodium and Iodine
(2) Sodium and Bromine
(3) Magnesium and Chlorine.
(4) Magnesium and bromine
Ans. (1)
46. Which of the following are the units of pressure?
1. Bar
2. Torr
3.mm of Hg
4. Pascal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) l and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (4)
47. Which one of the following towns was captured by the Indian National Army in March 1944?
(1) Agartala
(2) Aizwal
(3) Digboi
(4) Kohima
Ans. (4)
48. Where are the Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization (1SO) located?
(1) Berne
(2) Geneva
(3) Rome
(4) Vienna
Ans. (1)
49. Who among the following developed the first safe, vaccination method?
(1) Alexander Fleming
(2) Edward Jenner
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Robert Koch
Ans. (2)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947.
2. The National Anthem was first, sung on 27th December 1911 at Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1)1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
Solved Model Papers of MP PSC State Service (Pre) Exam
1 Where is the Headquarters of NATO located?
(1) Amsterdam
(2) Brussels
(3) Berlin
(4) Paris
Ans. (2)
2. At which one of the following places is the Liquid Propulsion Systems Center located?
(1) Chandipur
(2) Mahenragiri
(3) Sriharikota
(4) Wheeler Island
Ans. (2)
3. Which one of the following Committees/Authorities is associated with the recommendation of the repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act?
(1) Justice Jeeven Reedy Committee
(2) Rajinder Saccar Committee
(3) R. S. Pathak inquiry Authority
(4) U. C. Banerjee Committee
Ans. (1)
4. Among the following eminent citizens, who is a renowned chemist?
(1) S. N. Subba Rao
(2) C. N. R. Rao
(3) Rani Abhay Singh
(4) Rajinder Singh
Ans. (2)
5. In the recently held 37th IFFI in Goa the film director of which country won the Best Film Award and Golden Peacock?
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Iran
(4) Russia
Ans. (1)
6. in which country does Basque separatist group operate?
(1) Ireland
(2) Italy
(3) Spain
(4) Turkey
Ans. (3)
7. Recently, China made a very large dam to tame which one of the following rivers?
(1) Huang Ho
(2) Mekong
(3) Yarlung Zangpo
(4) Yangtze
Ans. (4)
8. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule by an official proclamation?
(1) Lord Hastings
(2) Lord Cornwallis
(3) Lord Minto
(4) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (4)
9. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(1) Raja Rammohan Roy
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(4) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (1)
10. Who among the following was sent by Lord Hardinge to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(1) B. G. Tilak
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3) M. G. Ranade.
(4) Moti Lal Nehru
Ans. (2)
11. Consider the following pairs:
a. Hyderabad : Musi
b. Lucknow : Gomati
c. Surat : Narmada
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) b and c only
(4) a b and c
Ans. (4)
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List –II
(Place of Religious interest) (State)
A. Sabrima1a 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Shravanabelagola 2. Karnataka
C. Srirangam 3. Kerala
D. Srisailam 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (3)
13. Which one of the following Sequences of rivers is correct from North to South?
(1) Bhima – Manjra -Thungabhadra
(2) Manjra – Bhima -Thungabhadra
(3) Bhima –Thungabhadra -Manjra
(4) Manjra –Thungabhadra -Bhima
Ans. (2)
14. Which one of the following mineral ores is the Shimoga district well-known for?
(1) Bauxite
(2) Manganese
(3) Mica
(4) Zinc
Ans. (2)
15. The Syr Darya and Amu Darya fall into which one of the following?
(1) Caspian Sea
(2) Black Sea
(3) Aral Sea
(4) Lake Baikal
Ans. (3)
16. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(1) Falkland Currents
(2) Canary Current
(3) Labrador Current
(4) Gulf Stream
Ans. (1)
17. Which one of the following Sates does not share boundary with Jharkhand?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Orissa
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (4)
18. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(1) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh only
(2) Chhattisgarh and Orissa only
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(4) Andhra Pradesh .Chhattisgarh and Orissa,
Ans. (3)
19. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(1) Dutch
(2) English
(3) French.
(4) Portuguese
Ans. (4)
20. The efforts of whom of the following led to the ‘Age of Consent Act. 1891’?
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) M. G. Ranade
(3) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(4) Malbari
Ans. (4)
21. What was the name of the party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress?
(1) Congress Socialist Party
(2) Forward Bloc
(3) Indian National Conference
(4) Swaraj Party
Ans. (2)
22. Among the following who was a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) Rajendra Prasad
(4) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (2)
23. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(l) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Abut Kalam Azad
(4) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (1)
24. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(1) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(2) Demonstration of Akali Sikhas at Nabha
(3) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(4) Dandi March
Ans. (4)
25. With which one of the following was Jayprakash Narayan associated?
(1) All lndia a Kisan Sabha
(2) Communist Party of India
(3) Congress Socialist Party
(4) Indian Independence League
Ans. (3)
26. Among the follow1ng which one is a major component of biogas (Gobargas)?
(1) Acetylene
(2) Ethane
(3) Ethylene
(4) Methane
Ans. (4)
27. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?
(1) Baking soda
(2) Quick lime
(3) Slaked lime
(4) Washing soda
Ans. (1)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List-II
(Musician) (Instrument)
A. Amjad Ali Khan 1. Flute
B. Lalgudi G. Jayaraman 2. Sarod
C. Pannalal Ghose 3. Sitar
D. Vilayat Khan 4. Violin
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (2)
29. With which one of the following countries, does India have the longest border?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) China
(3) Pakistan
(4) Myanmar
Ans. (2)
30. Area wise, which one among the fo1lowing is the largest?
(1) Chandigarh
(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(3) Delhi
(4) Puducherry
Ans. (1)
31. For which one of the following States, is Guwahati High Court not its High Court?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Mizoram
(4) Sikkim
Ans. (4)
32. In which of the following is the percentage of haemog1obin maximum?
(1) Infants
(2) Children of around 10 years of age
(3) Men
(4) Women
Ans. (3)
33. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin K
Ans. (2)
34. How many liters of blood pass through kidneys of a normal person in a day
(1) 1.7 liters
(2) 17 liters
(3) 170 liters
(4) 1700 liters
Ans. (4)
35. Which of the following has/have velocity equal to that of light?
(1) X-ray
(2) y-ray
(3) Ultraviolet ray
(4) All of the above
Ans. (4)
36. If f 1, f 2 and f 3 are the frequencies of light in diamond, glass
and water respectively, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) f 1 > f 2 > f 3
(2) f 3 > f2 > f 1
(3) f 1 = f 2 > f 3
(4) f 1 = f 2 = f 3
Ans. (2)
37. Why is one end of a sewing needle made pointed?
(1) To increase the force
(2) To increase the pressure
(3) To decrease the weight
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
38. Consider the following statements:
a. Sodium bicarbonate present In the digestive tablets reacts with gastric juices to reduce acidity in the stomach.
b. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as cooking soda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
39. In which of the following is magnesium present?
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Haemoglobin
Ans. (3)
40. Consider the following statements:
a. Sand is a mixture
b. Diamond is an element
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
41. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN?
(1) Brunei Darussalam
(2) East Timor
(3) Laos
(4) Myanmar
Ans. (2)
42. The pandemic Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) which has been in news frequently is caused by which of the following?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Protozoa
(4) Viruses
Ans. (4)
43. What does Antrix Corporation ltd deal with, that came into the news recently?
(1) Brokering arms deals between India and supplier countries/companies
(2) Mediating between India and Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) countries
(3) Developing genetically modified crop plants
(4) Marketing ISRO’s launch vehicles to fly satellites from abroad
Ans. (4)
44. Consider the following statements:
a. colour blindness is found in men and not in women.
b. Night blindness is found in old and aged, and not in young.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
45. Darfur, which is frequently new, is located in which of the following regions?
(1) Eastern side of Sudan
(2) Western side of Sudan
(3) North-Western side of Ethiopia
(4) Northern side of Kenya
Ans. (2)
46 Which one of the fo1lowing locations does not have a steel plant of SAIL?
(l) Bhilai
(2) Bokaro
(3) Rourkela
(4) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (4)
47. Which one of the following pharmaceutical companies filed writ petitions against Government of India and others, to plead against the rejection of its patent application by a patent office in Chennai?
(1) Aventis
(2) Cipla
(3) Glaxo- Smith Kline
(4) Novartis AG
Ans. (4)
48. Recently, the National Assembly of which one of the following nations had given the President of that nation the authority to pass laws by decree for a period of 18 months?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
49. Which one of the following took over the Anglo-Dutch steel company Corus-?
(l) Jindal Steel
(2) Mittal- Arcelor
(3) Neelanchal lspat Nigam Ltd
(4) Tata Steel
Ans. (4)
50. Consider the following statements:
a. ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) has 40% equity in the Sakhalin-I Project of Russia
b. The Sakhalin -1 Project is operated by OVL
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
1. Consider the following statements:
a. The Commonwealth is an association of 45 countries.
b. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meetings (CHOGM) are held every two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
2. The independent nation Montenegro originated out of the dissolution of which one of the following?
(1) Bulgaria
(2) Czechoslovakia
(3) Romania
(4) Yugoslavia
Ans. (4)
3. Which one of the following countries produces Phalcon airborne warning and control systems (AWACS)?
(1) India
(2) Israel
(3) Russia
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
4. Which one of the following is in correct chronological order?
(1) Surat Split- Partition of Bengal Lucknow Pact-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(2) Partition of Bengal – Surat Split – Lucknow Pact- Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(3) Surat Split – Partition of Bengal – Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy— Lucknow Pact
(4) Partition of Bengal- Surat- Split-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy – Lucknow Pact
Ans. (2)
5. Into how many categories are the Fundamental Rights classified in the Constitution of India?
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight
Ans. (2)
6. When a Court of Law gives an order directing a public authority to perform its duties if its non performance causes injury to the petitioner, it is known by which one of the following writs?
(1) Certiorari
(2) Habeas Corpus
(3) Mandamus
(4) Quo Warranto
Ans. (3)
7. Consider the following statements in respect of be Union Budget of India:
a. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays an Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
b. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of lndia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
8. Consider the following statements:
a. The Constitution of India lays down ten Fundamental Duties for every citizen of India.
b. The Constitution of India provides for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
9. Who appoints the District Judges?
(1) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State
(2) Governor of the concerned State
(3) Public Service Commission of the concerned State
(4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Ans. (2)
10. Recently which one of the following countries built a more than 30 km long bridge which spans sea?
(1) China
(2) South Korea
(3) Japan
(4) Malaysia
Ans. (1)
11. Recently in which one of the following countries did a leak of water with radioactive material at a very large nuclear plant occur?
(1) Australia
(2) Japan
(3) Russia
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
12. Between which of the following is the Guru Govind Singh Refinery Project at Bhatinda a joint venture?
(1) IPCL and ONGC
(2) HPCL and Mittal Energy
(3) IPCL and Mittal Energy
(4) HPCL and Cain Energy
Ans. (2)
13. The Hyde Act which has been very frequently in news is related to which of the following?
(1) An agreement between India and Israel for supply of defense equipment
(2) An agreement between India and Canada for supply of uranium,
(3) An agreement between India and the USA for civil nuclear cooperation
(4) An agreement between India and China for flood control
Ans. (3)
14. How is international personality Zadie Smith well kown as?
(1) Environmentalist
(2) Human Rights activist
(3) Litterateur
(4) Musician
Ans. (3)
15. Among the following States, which one was given full statehood last?
(1) Goa
(2) Sikkim
(3) Haryana
(4) Nagaland
Ans. (2)
16. In the SAARC Summit held in New Delhi in April, 2007, three observer countries sent their Foreign Ministers to the Summit. Which one of the following was not an observer country?
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Myanmar
(4) South Korea
Ans. (3)
17. What is the approximate percentage of generated electricity contributed by NTPC to the total electricity generated during 2006-07 in the country?
(1) 45%
(2) 40%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%
Ans. (3)
18. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the salivary glands?
(1) Pepsin
(2) Ptyalin
(3) Rennin
(4) Trypsin
Ans. (2)
19 Which one of the following crops increases soil fertility by adding nitrates to soil?
(1) Black-gram
(2) Cotton
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Tomato
Ans. (1)
20. Consider the following:
a. Flying squirrel
b. Porcupine
c. Barking deer
Which of the above is/are naturally found in India?
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)
21. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins causes increased loss of calcium ion in urine?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B5
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D
Ans. (4)
22. What is BT cotton that is frequently in the news?
(1) A hybrid of Egyptian and American varieties of cotton
(2) A hybrid of cultivated and wild varieties of cotton
(3) A genetically modified pestresistent cotton
(4) A drought-resistant variety of cotton
Ans. (3)
23. Consider the following vitamins:
a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
b. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
c. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine)
Milk is a source for which of the above?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (4)
24. Which of the following in human body manufacture the antibodies that are responsible for immunity?
(1) Muscle cells
(2) Nerve cells
(3) Red blood cells
(4) White blood cells
Ans. (4)
25. Among the following, who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas?
(1) Rabi Ray
(2) Shivraj Patil
(3) P.A. Sangma
(4) G. M. C. Ba1yogi
Ans. (4)
26. Who among the following received the International Cosmos Prize, 2006?
(1) Mala R. Chinoy
(2) M.S. Narasimhan
(3) Raman Sukumar
(4) Kota Harinarayana
Ans. (3)
27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List-II
(Famous Company) (Country of Origin)
A. Rosneft 1. Malaysia
B. Petronas 2. Russia
C. Volkswagen 3. Germany
D. Wal-Mart 4. USA
A B C D
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (4)
28. Who of the following helped Humayun in recovering his kingdom’?
(1) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(2) Shah Hussain Arghun of Sind
(3) Shah Tahmasp of Persia
(4) Maldeo of Bikaner
Ans. (3)
29. Who was the Governor-General Of the’ East India Company’ when the Revolt of 1857 took place?
(1) Lord Bentinck
(2) Lord Hastings
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord canning
Ans. (4)
30. During, the Indian freedom struggle, what was the purpose of the Simon Commission?
(1) To inquire into events related to Jallianwala Bagli Massacre
(2) To look into the working of the Government of India Act, 19l9
(3) To suggest strategies to promote Western education of India
(4) To design a constitution for India within the framework of ‘Dominion Status’.
Ans. (2)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Ian Wilmut produced the first portable computer.
2. Adam Osborne created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
33. Which one of the following is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India?
(1) Bhakra Nangal Project
(2) Damodar Valley Corporation
(3) Hirakud Multipurpose Project
(4) Thungabhadra Multipurpose Project
Ans. (2)
34. Match list-I with list- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Fertilizer Industry) (State)
A. Aluva 1. Assam
B. Namrup 2. Jharkhand
C. Nangal 3. Kerala
D. Sindri 4. Punjab
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (3)
35.The famous Petronas Twin Towers are located in:
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Malaysia
(4) Indonesia
Ans. (3)
36. Match list-I with list -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Famous Place) (State)
A. Bhimbhetka 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Bhiterkanika 2. Karnataka
C. Pattadakal 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Srikalahasti 4. Orissa
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 4 3
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (4)
37. Bokaro Steel Limited was established with the assistance of:
(1) Germany
(2) Soviet Union
(3) UK
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
38. Which one of the following is not a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
(1) Algeria
(2) Brazil
(3) Ecuador
(4) Nigeria
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following cities:
(1) Bhatinda
(2) Jamnagar
(3) Mangalore
Which of the above has/have oil refineries?
(1) 1 and 2 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (3)
40. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Well known as)
(A) K. V. Kamath 1. Banker
(B) G. M. Rao 2. Environmentalist
(C) Rajendra Pachauri 3. Industrialist
Code:
(a) (b) (c)
(1) 1 2 3
(2) 1 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 3 1 2
Ans. (2)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. The Shivaliks have tropical moist deciduous flora.
2. The Bundelkhand plateau has thorn and scrub forest type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
42. Which one among the following rivers is the longest:
(1) Amazon
(2) Amur
(3) Congo
(4) Volga
Ans. (1)
43.Consider the following statements:
1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature.
2. Convectional rainfall is highly localized and is associated with minimum cloudiness
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2.
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
44. Which of the following is true in the case of Ellen Johnson Sir leaf recently in the news?
(1) First woman who completed non-stop flight around the globe
(2) An African female human rights activist In the Darfur region
(3) Female scientist who deciphered the complete human genome sequence
(4) Africa’s first elected female Head of State
Ans. (4)
45. Consider the following statements:
a. Nitrogen gas can put out fire but is still not used in the extinguishers.
b. Critical temperature of nitrogen is very high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
46. What was the name of the organization founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London to Influence the British public, opinion in India’s favour?
(1) Indian Association
(2) Indian League
(3) British Indian Association
(4) East India Association
Ans. (4)
47. Rakesh Sharma India’s first cosmonaut, was launched from which one of the following places?
(1) Baikanour
(2) Cape Canaveral
(3) Kourou
(4) Tashkent
Ans. (1)
48. Recently which one of the following countries launched a rocket to put a Sun observation satellite in an orbit?
(1) Australia
(2) Canada
(3) Italy
(4) Japan
Ans. (4)
49. Among the following, who was not a co-founder of NAM?
(1) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(2) Josip Broz Tito
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru
(4) Yasser Arafat
Ans. (4)
50. In recent times, which one of the following countries was hit by Typhoon Saomi, the strongest storm to hit that country in the last 50 years?
(1) Australia
(2) China
(3) Malaysia
(4) Thailand
Ans. (2)
.K. & G.S.for Himachal Pradesh (HP) Public Service Commission
HIMACHAL PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION prepare
1. Consider the following pairs:
1. Ilbert Bill : Lord Hastings
2. August Offer : Lord Ripon
Which of the above pairs is are correctly matched?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
2. Who of the following founded the “East India Association”?
(1) C.R. Das
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) V. D. Savarkar
Ans. (2)
3. Who of the following started the newspaper “Bande Mataram”?
(1) Barindra Kumai Ghose
(2) Bipin Chandra Pal
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans. (2)
4. Consider the following famous historical persons:
1. Ashvaghosha
2. Bhavabhuti
3. Nagarjuna
4. Naga sena
Who of the above are Buddhist scholars?
(1) 1 and 3 only
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 1, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (3)
5. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest bio-diversity?
(1) Dry deciduous forest
(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Moist deciduous forest
(4) Mangrove forest
Ans. (2)
6. Among the following rivers, which one is the longest?
(1) Godavari
(2) Krishna
(3) Mahanadi
(4) Narmada
Ans. (1)
7. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank?
(1) Jakarta
(2) Manila
(3) Singapore
(4) Bangkok
Ans. (2)
8. The National River Conservation Directorate is under:
(1) Ministry of Agriculture
(2) Ministry of Environment and Forest
(3) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(4) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans. (2)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Mikhail Gorbachev was the first President of Russian Federation
2 Dmitry MedvedevVs Vs the fifth President of Russian Federation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
10. Who of the. following is the author of the book “My Country, My Life”
(1) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(2) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(3) L. K. Advani
(4) Shashi Tharoor
Ans. (3)
11. Which one of the following beaches is visited by Olive Ridley turtles annually for mass nesting?
(1) Chandipur
(2) Gahirmatha
(3) Gopalpur
(4) Paradip
Ans. (2)
12. The administration of the English East India Company in India came to an end In:
(1) 1857
(2) 1858
(3) 1862
(4) 1892
Ans. (2)
13. Who of the following is not a sports person?
(1) C. B. Bhave.
(2) P. T. Raghunath
(3) Samaresh Jung
(4) Suma Shirur
Ans. (1)
14. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with:
(1) Cairn Energy
(2) Citigroup
(3) PepsiCo
(4) Vodafone
Ans. (2)
15. What is H5N1 recent times?
(1) A new multi-purpose helicopter of Indian Army
(2) A virus causing Bird Flu
(3) The nearest galaxy to our own Milky way
(4) A genetically modified rice plant
Ans. (2)
16. The Jarawa tribe lives in which one of the following States/Union Territories?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Assam
(3) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(4) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans. (3)
17. A very young sportsperson of India, Virdhawal Khade is a:
(1) Boxer
(2) Chess player
(3) Golfer
(4) Swimmer
Ans. (4)
18. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K
Ans. (2)
19. Which one of the following is a pigment?
(1) Albumin
(2) Elastin
(3) Keratin
(4) Melanin
Ans. (4)
20. On which one of the following dates did Jawaharlal Nehru unfurl the tri-color national flag on the banks of the Ravi as the clock struck the midnight?
(1) 31st December, 1929
(2) 26th January, 1930
(3) 31st December, 1931
(4) 26th January, 1933
Ans. (1)
21. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English. forces under:
(1) Lord Cornwallis
(2) Lord Wellesley
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Hastings
Ans. (2)
22. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between:
(1) Marathas and Portuguese
(2) The English and the French
(3) The English. and Portuguese
(4) Marathas and the English
Ans. (2)
23. The author of “Nildarpan” was:
(1) Dinabandhu Mitra
(2) Sivnath Sastri
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) Harishchandra Mukherjee
Ans. (1)
24. The first weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by:
(1) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(2) Dinabandhu Mitra
(3) Marshman
(4) Vidyasagar
Ans. (3)
25. Who among the following Peshswas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb?
(1) Balaji Vishwanath
(2) Baji Rao
(3) Balaji Baji Rao
(4) Madhav Rao I
Ans. (3)
26. Who was responsible for the introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?
(1) Lord Mayo
(2) Lord Lytton
(3) Lord Ripon
(4) Lord Curzon
Ans. (2)
27. Alauddin Khalji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from:
(1) Chanderi
(2) Gujarat
(3) Devagiri
(4) Madurai
Ans. (3)
28. Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(1) Bhadrabahu
(2) Chandragupta Maurya
(3) Parsvanatha
(4) Varadhamana Mahavira
Ans. (4)
30. When Babur Invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagara empire in South India?
(1) Saluva Narasimha
(2) Devaraya II
(3) Krishna Deva Raya
(4) Sadasiva Raya
Ans. (3)
31. Who of the following was a contemporary of Chengiz Khan?
(1) Mahmud of Ghazni
(2) Iltutmish
(3) Alauddin Khalji
(4) Mohammad bin-Tughlaq
Ans. (2)
32. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Aurangzeb in the battle of:
(1) Dharmat
(2) Samugarh
(3) Deorai
(4) Khanua
Ans. (2)
33. Who is the author of the book Glimpses of World History?
(1) Abdul Kalam Azad
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) S. Gopalan
(4) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans. (2)
34. Match List-I with. List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Reservoir) (State)
A. Stanley Reservoir 1. Karnataka
B. Koyna Reservoir 2. Maharashtra
C. Jalaput Reservoir 3. Orissa
D. Bhadra Reservoir 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 3 2 4
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (4)
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
(Irrigation/Power Projects) (Location)
A. Malprabha 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kakrapara 2. Karnataka
C. Srisailam 3.Gujarat
D. Bhima 4. Maharashtra
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (4)
36. Which one among the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?
(1) Australia
(2) Brazil
(3) West Indies
(4) India
Ans. (1)
37. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated in:
(1) The Netherlands
(2) Belgium
(3) Denmark
(4) Germany
Ans. (1)
38. Which one of the following descriptions denotes the phenomenon of El Nino?
(1) A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground
(2) The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemisphere due to the rotation of Earth
(3) The Anomalous widespread warming of the sea-surface of the tropical and central Pacific ocean
(4) The revolving tropical Storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico
Ans. (3)
39. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Country) (Capital City)
A. Argentina 1. Buenos Aires
B. Brazil 2 .Caracas
C. Peru 3.Lima
D. Venezuela 4. Sao Paulo
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 3 4 2
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (2)
40. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Sea) (Country)
A. Adriatic Sea 1. Bulgaria
B. Baltic Sea 2. Italy
C. North Sea 3. Poland
D. Black Sea 4. United Kingdom
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
41. Among the following States, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Karnataka
(4) Orissa
Ans. (4)
42. What Is the name .of the highest summit of Niligri hills?
(1) Coonoor-betta
(2) Anaimudi
(3) Doda-betta
(4) Vellangiri
Ans. (3)
43. Recently which one of the following lost the status of a planet?
(1) Mercury
(2) Neptune
(3) Pluto
(4) Uranus
Ans. (3)
44. Which one of the following countries was hit by the cyclone Nargis recently causing a great destruction and loss of life?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) Myanmar
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Pakistan
Ans. (2)
45. Which one among the following is nearest to Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research?
(1) Chidambaram
(2) Mahabalipuram
(3) Madurai
(4) Thanjavur
Ans. (2)
46. Which of the following arc connected by over 1700 km long BTC oil pipe line?
(1) Arabian sea Mediterranean sea
(2) Aral sea and Caspian sea
(3) Black sea and Mediterranean Sea
(4) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea
Ans. (4)
47. Where is the old and over 20 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’ which attracts tourists from all over the country?
(1) Nilgiris
(2) Krishna Delta
(3) Palk strait
(4) Malabar coast
Ans. (3)
48. Consider the following statements:
1. The monsoon climate is found in Northern Australia.
2. The China type climate is found in Argentina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
49. At which one of the following places is the monkey called Lion-tailed macaque naturally found?
(1) Shivaliks
(2) Pachmarhi
(3) Nallainalal hills
(4) Nilgiris
Ans. (3)
Solved Quiz GK For AAO Jobs in LIC
1 In which one of the following animals is respiration done by skin?
(1) Flying fish
(2) Sea horse
(3) Frog
(4) Chameleon
Ans. (3)
2. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in:
(1) Cats and bogs
(2) Cattle
(3) Poultry
(4) Humans
Ans. (2)
3. Who of the following recognized that large quantity of energy is released as a result of the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form deuterium?
(1) Enrico Fermi
(2) Glenn Seaborg
(3) Hans Bethe
(4) Werner Heisenberg
Ans. (3)
4. Brass is an alloy of which of the following pairs of metals?
(1) Aluminum and Copper
(2) Chromium and Tin
(3) Copper and Tin
(4) Copper and Zinc
Ans. (4)
5. Which one of the following bacteria helps in improving the soil fertility?
(1) Clostridium
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Salmonella
(4) Staphylococcus
Ans. (2)
6. Consider the following statements:
1. In a person suffering from Myopia, the image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
2. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Theory/Law/Principle) (Scientist)
A. Electromagnetism 1.Darwin
B. Principles of Inheritance 2. Faraday
C. Laws of Inertia 3.Mendel
D. Theory of Natura1 Selection 4. Newton
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 4 3 2
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 1 3 4 2
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (2)
8. Which one of the following is a vitamin?
(1) Citric acid
(2) Folic acid
(3) Glutamic acid
(4) Linoleic acid
Ans. (2)
9. Which one of the following varieties of coal is considered the best quality?
(1) Anthracite
(2) Bituminous
(3) Lignite
(4) Peat
Ans. (1)
10. Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits?
(1) Galileo Galilee
(2) Nicholas Copernicus
(3) Johannes Kepler
(4) Isaac Newton
Ans. (3)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The main constituent of LPG is Butane.
2. The main constituent of Biogas is Methane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
12. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel slowest?
(l) Air
(2) Glass
(3) Water
(4) Wood
Ans. (1)
13. Which one of the following is used in preparing match sticks?
(1) Chile saltpetre
(2) Indian saltpetre
(3) Red phosphorus
(4) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans. (3)
14. Consider the following pairs:
1. Rewalsar lake : Himachal Pradesh
2. Nakki lake : Madhya Pradesh
3 Renuka lake : Uttarakhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3only
(4) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
15. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Vishakhapatnam?
(1) NH 4
(2) NH 5
(3) NH 6
(4) NH 8
Ans. (2)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Scientist) (Well known as)
A. Birbal Sahni 1. Mathematician
B. Ramanujan Srinivasa 2. Paleobotanist
C. Sir C.V. Raman 3. Physicist-Botanist
D. Sir J. C. Bose 4. Physicist
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (2)
17. The Phenomenon of ‘total internal reflection” is observed in which one of the following?
(1) Glowing tube light
(2) Light passing through lens
(3) Sparkling diamond
(4) Twinkling star
Ans. (3)
18. From which year did Saka era begin?
(1) 78 B.C.
(2) 78 A.D.
(3) l78 A.D.
(4) 278 A.D.
Ans. (2)
19. Among the following elements, which one is not present in pure sugar?
(1) Carbon
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
Ans. (3)
20. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II
(Organization) (Headquarters)
A. UNESCO 1. Geneva
B. IMF 2. Paris
C. ILO 3. Vienna
D. UNIDO 4. Washington. D.C.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (2)
21. By convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India?
(1) An eminent journalist of India
(2) A senior Civil Services Officer
(3) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
(4) The Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting
Ans. (3)
22. Consider the following statements:
1. No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
23. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by the:
(1) Union Cabinet
(2) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(3) National Development Council
(4) Planning Commission
Ans. (3)
24. In India, the power to increase the number Of judges in the Supreme Court lies with:
(1) The President of India
(2) The Chief Justice of India
(3) The Union Ministry of Law
(4 The Parliament of India
Ans. (4)
25. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the:
(1) Preamble to the Constitution
(2) Directive Pincip1es of State Policy
(3) Fundamental Duties
(4) Ninth Schedule
Ans. (2)
26. Consider the, following statements:
1. The Prune Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
2. The Union Finance Minister Is the ex-officio Chairman of the Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. When Vice-President acts as President of India. he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except where both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 Only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
28. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is:
(1) 400
(2) 450
(3) 500
(4) 550
Ans. (3)
29. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to:
(1) Public sector Understandings
(2) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(3) Private Cooperate Sector
(4) Non-Banking Financial Institutions
Ans. (2)
30. Who is empowered by the constitution of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its term?
(1) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(2) The President of India
(3) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister of India
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (3)
31. In which year was ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana’ launched?
(1) 2004
(2) 2005
(3) 2006
(4) 2007
Ans. (2)
32. The “Uruguay Round” negotiations resulted in the establishment of:
(1) NATO
(2) OECD
(3) WHO
(4) WTO
Ans. (4)
33. With reference to the Union Government, which one of the following does undertake the country -wide Economic Census?
(1) Department of Expenditure
(2) The National Sample Survey Organization.
(3) Planning Commission
(4) The Central Statistical Organization
Ans. (2)
34. Geeta Chandran is well known as a /an:
(1) Bharatnatyam dancer
(2) Classical Carnatic vocalist
(3) Film director
(4) Exponent of Violin
Ans. (1)
35. With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle consider the following statements:
1. P.C. Ray founded the Bengal Chemical Works.
2. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai set up the Steam Navigation Company
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
36. Who of the following was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(1) G. S. Dhillon
(2) G. V. Mavalankar
(3) Hukam Singh
(4) K. S. Hegde
Ans. (2)
37. Who of the following Is associated with Tashkent agreement?
(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Morarji Desai
Ans. (2)
38. Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the:
(1) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(2) Government of India Act, 1909
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans. (3)
39 Which one of the following is a primate?
(1) Bear
(2) Lions
(3) Pangolin
(4) Otter
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following:
1. Potato
2. Radish
3.Turnip
4.Yam
In which of the above are roots used as vegetables?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) l and 3 only
Ans. (2)
41. Which one of the following metals is found in ‘plaster of paris’?
(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Potassium
(4) Sodium.
Ans. (1)
42. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(1) Glucagon
(2) insulin
(3) Somatotropin
(4) Trypsin
Ans. (4)
43. International Date line passes through which of ‘the following?
(1) Atlantic ocean
(2) Black sea
(3) Mediterranean sea
(4) Pacific ocean’
Ans. (4)
44. The deficiency of which one of the following causes a disease called Pellagra?
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Folic acid
(3) Nicotinic acid
(4) Pantothenic acid
Ans. (4)
45, Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Disease) (Type of causative organism)
A. Filaria 1. Bacteria
B. Influenza 2. Fungus
C. Ringworm 3. Nematode
D. Typhoid 4. Virus
Codes:
(a) b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 4 3
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (4)
46. From the evolutionary point of view, which one of the following is closer to man?
(1) Dolphin
(2) Flying fish
(3) Shark
(4) Tortoise
Ans. (1)
47. Who of the following is known as Lokahitavadi?
(1) G. H. Deshmukh
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3) J. G. Phule
(4) M. G. Ranade
Ans. (1)
48. With reference to Indian freedom struggle which one among the following events occurred earliest?
(1) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(2) Lucknow Pact
(3) Cripps Mission Proposals
(4) August offer
Ans. (2)
49. During India’s freedom struggle. which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’?
(1) Protest against Rowlatt Act
(2) Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(3) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Arrival of Simon Commission
Ans. (4)
50 . The Non-Cooperation movement was called off as a result of agitation at which one of the following places?
(1) Calcutta
(2) Champaran
(3) Chauri Chaura
(4) Meerut
Ans. (3)
Free online MCQ Quiz For UPSC (Central Police Forces )
1. The number of times the hands of a watch are at right angle between 4 pm to 10 pm is:
(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
Ans. (4)
2. If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on which day did the first of December of the previous year fall?
(1) Tuesday
(2) Friday
(3) Sunday
(4) Monday
Ans. (4)
3. ‘R’ walks 1 km. to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point?
(1) 3 km.
(2) 4 km.
(3) 5 km.
(4) 7 km.
Ans. (3)
4. If WOMEN is coded as 12345 and SERVANT is coded as 6789450, then VOTERS will be coded as:
(1) 920786
(2) 902876
(3) 978206
(4) 972086
Ans. (1)
5. Which will be the next term in the following?
KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD……
(1) OET
(2) OTE
(3) TOE
(4) EOT
Ans. (2)
6. The missing number in the following table is:
1 7 9
2 14 ?
3 105 117
(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 26
(4) 20
Ans. (4)
7. The following blocks are of the same material. Which is the heaviest one?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All equal
Ans. (3)
8. From the following Venn diagram identify the number of persons who are either good speakers or post graduates or doctors.
GS – Good Speakers
P- Post Graduates
D- Doctors
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 15
(4) 122
Ans. (1)
9. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is:
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.5?
(3) 0.75?
(4) 1.0
Ans. (2)
10.
A square is drawn inside the circle as shown in the figure above. If the area of the shaded portion to 32/7 units then the radius of the circle is:
(1) 2 units
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 4 units
Ans. (2)
11. The following figure shows the displacement time (x – t) graph of a body in motion. The ratio of the speed in first second and that in next two seconds is:
(1) 1:2
(2) 1:3
(3) 3:1
(4) 2:1
Ans. (4)
12. The below Venn diagram shows a city population which read three popular daily newspapers Hindustan Times (HT), The Times of India (TI) and Navbharat Times (NT):
If a person is randomly selected from the city population and it is found that he reads at least one of the three newspapers then the person belongs to which part of the. population?
(1) g
(2) a + b + c
(3) P-h
(4) P-g
Ans. (3)
13. Kamala got married 5 years ago.
Today her age is 1 1/4 times her age at the time of marriage. Her sons age is1/10 times her present age. What is her son’s age?
(1) 2 years
(2) 3 years
(3) 4 years
(4) 5 years
Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following:
1. Every square is a rectangle.
2. Every rectangle is a parallelogram.
3. Every parallelogram is not necessarily a square.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above statements?
(1) All parallelograms are either squares or rectangles
(2) A non-parallelogram figures cannot be either a square or a rectangle
(3) All rectangles are either squares or parallelograms
(4) Squares and rectangles are the only parallelograms.
Ans. (2)
15. Distribution of work hours in a factory is shown in the below given table:
Number of Workers Number of hours worked
20 45-50
15 40-44
25 35-39
16 30-34
04 0-29
What is the percentage of workers worked for 40 or more hours?
(1) 40
(2) 25
(3) 33.33
(4) 43.75
Ans. (4)
16.
From the above graph, who out of the four persons A, B, C and D, saves the least percentage of his monthly income?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (3)
17.
In the above diagram square represents boys, circle represents the tall persons, triangle represents tennis players, and rectangle represents the swimmers. Which one of the following numbers .represents tall boys who are swimmers, but don’t play tennis?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
18.
The carpet area of a room with dimensions shown in the above diagram is:
(1) 10 m2
(2) 12 m2
(3) 13 m2
(4) 14 m2
Ans. (3)
19.
In the figure given above BAC = 90°, EA =2 and AC =6. What is the value of BE?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10
Ans. (3)
20. 8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5 apples as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes as much as 8 pineapples. If 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, then an orange’s cost is:
(1) Rs. 9
(2) Rs. 12
(3) Rs. 6
(4) Rs. 15
Ans. (1)
21. If a + b is defined as a b + b a, then consider:
I. 2 + x = 100
II. 4 + x = 45
III. 3 + x = 145
IV. 6 + x = 100
For which of the above is x smallest?
(1) 1
(2) Il
(3) 111
(4) IV
Ans. (4)
22. In a test a candidate attempted only 15 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all the questions in the test carried equal marks, the number of questions in the test is:
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 27
(4) 30
Ans. (2)
23. The grandfather’s age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. The father’s age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. The age of the grandfather is:
(1) 77 years
(2) 70 years
(3) 67 years
(4) 63 years
Ans. (3)
24. If 4 = 102m and 9 = 102n, then 0.15 equals to:
(1) 10 2m—2n
(2) 10 m + n -1
(3) 10 n-m + 1
(4) 10 n-m-1
Ans. (4)
25. Among the following four diagrams, which one illustrates the relationships among citizens, voters, and males?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans. (3)
26. The mean age of combined group of men and women is 25 years. If the mean age of group of men is 26 and that of group of women is 21, then percentage of men and women in the group respectively is :
(1) 60, 40
(2) 80, 20
(3) 30, 70
(4) 50, 50
Ans. (2)
27. Which two figures out of the following four have the same area (with same units)?
(1) l and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (4)
28. Three circles are concentric as in the diagram given below. If a fourth innermost circle is drawn, what will be the number to be inscribed there?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 1
Ans. (2)
29. The width of a rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length. What are the area and the perimeter of the rectangle respectively?
(1) 16 x2 sq unit and 16x unit
(2) 20 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
(3) 32 x2 sq unit and 64x unit
(4) 64 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
Ans. (4)
30. The following diagram shows a triangle with each of its sides produced both ways:
What is the sum of degree measures of the angles numbered?
(1) 720
(2) 540
(3) 1080
(4) 900
Ans. (1)
31. ‘A’ completes a work in 10 days, while ‘B’ and ‘C’ complete it in 12 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together complete the work?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (2)
UPSC CPO Solved GK
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Term) (Explanation)
A. Arsenal 1. An aerial duel between two or more aircrafts at a close range
B. Battery 2. Compulsory recruitment of personnel for service in the
armed force
C. Conscription 3. A unit of number of artillery guns, mobile or fixed
D. Dogfight 4. Place where arms and ammunition are manufactured and
stored.
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (2)
2. Ratan Thylam, the famous personality from Manipur, is known for his work in the field of:
(1) Sports
(2) Music
(3) Theatre
(4) Social reform
Ans. (3)
3. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the help of the code given below the dance technique referred to in the paragraph:
Originally known as the “backslide” or “walking on your toes” is a dance technique that presents the illusion of the dancer being pulled backwards while attempting to walk forward. A break dancing move, it became popular around the world after Michael Jackson executed it during a performance in 1983. It subsequently became his signature move, and is now one ‘of the best-known dance techniques in the world.
Code:
(1) Vaganova
(2) Cecchetti
(3) Moonwalk
(4) Jazz
Ans. (3)
4. Which one of the following statements about BRIC is not correct?
(1) In the year 2009 the leaders of the BRIC countries held their first summit in Yekaterinburg
(2) According to Goldman Sachs, the global 4hvestment banking and securities firm, he economic potential of BRIC is such that they may become among the four most dominant economies by the year 2050
(3) BRIC countries suggests for the Doha round to be accelerated in order to find compromise solutions for radical reductions for multibillion dollar subsidies in the agricultural sector
(4) Brazil, Russia, India and Canada are the members of BRIC
Ans. (4)
5. Which among the following was given the gold medal in the National Award for e-Governance, 2008-09 in the innovative usage of technology in e-Governance category?
(1) “Jaankari”, Government of Bihar, DAR and PG, Patna
(2) “E-C1’lY’ Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation, e-Governance Department, Ahmedabad, Gujarat
(3) “Sujala Watershed Project”, Government of Karnataka, Watershed Development Department, Bangaluru
(4) “Fire Alert and Massaging System”, Government of Madhya Pradesh, Forest
Department, Bhopal
Ans. (1)
6. There are 12 major ports in India and Port Trust Boards have been setup for the administration, control and management of 11 of these 12 ports. Which one of the following major ports has been incorporated as a company under the Indian Companies
Act, 1956 and not administered by a Port Trust Board?
(1) Haldia
(2) Paradip
(3) Ennore
(4) Kandla
Ans. (3)
7. Consider the following statements:
(J According to IFC/World Bank Doing Business Report, 2009 India is the most difficult country to enforce contracts in a court or otherwise.
(b) According to the UNIDO Report, 2009 in the Competitive Industrial Performance Index India is ahead of China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
8. Which one of the following statements about Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft is not correct?
(1) It is a twin cockpit multi-role all-weather fighter aircraft
(2) It has air-to-air refueling capability
(3) The aircraft being manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (Nasik)
(4) Pune is the latest base for these most potent combat aircraft of the Indian Air Force
Ans. (3)
9. Consider the following paragraph and using the code given below identify the state referred to in the paragraph:
The state has huge potential in carbon trading, thanks to its vast forest reserve. Nearly 88 per cent area of the’ state is covered by forest, against the national average of 33 per cent. In the North-East India, this is the first state of take initiative in carbon trading.
Code:
(1) Manipur
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Mizoram
(4) Nagaland
Ans. (2)
10. Which among the following country is ranked 1st in the Global Peace Index, 2009?
(1) Denmark
(2) Norway
(3) New Zealand
(4) Austria
Ans. (3)
11. Consider the following statements about Ustad Ali Akbar Khan, who died in June, 2009:
(a) He was a Sarod maestro.
(b) He belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
12. Which one of the following is the theme for International Day for Bio-diversity in the year 2009?
(1) Biodiversity and Poverty Alleviation
(2) Biodiversity: Food, Water and health for All
(3) Biodiversity and Climate Change
(4) Biodiversity and Invasive Allen Species
Ans. (4)
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Phone Brand) (Brand Slogan)
A. Nokia 1. Be inspired
B. Samsung 2. Next is what?
C. Panasonic 3. Connecting people
D. Siemens 4. Ideas for life
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (3)
14. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the code given below the town with which the paragraph is associated:
It is basically a traditional centre for cotton. The town accounts for the bulk of India’s cotton knitwear exports to all over the world The Noyyal river runs all across the town, virtually dividing it into two halves.
Code:
(1) Guntur (Andhra Pradesh)
(2) Tirupur (Tamil Nadu)
(3) Erode (Tamil Nadu)
(4) Subarnpur (Orissa)
Ans. (2)
15. Who is Richard Halbrooke?
(1) Producer and Director of Hollywood movies
(2) US pecia1 envoy on Afghanistan and Pakistan
(3) Us ambassador to India
(4) UN observer for overseeing the rehabilitation process of displaced Tamils in Sri Lanka
Ans. (2)
16. Sometimes, the consumption of local made alcoholic beverages may cause blindness or even death. This may be because of contamination of the beverages with:
(1) Vinegar
(2) Carbolic acid
(3) Methyl alcohol
(4) Formic acid
Ans. (3)
17. Which one of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading very small letters printed on a label?
(1) Convex lens of large focal length
(2) Concave lens of large focal length
(3) Convex lens of small focal length
(4) Concave lens of small focal length
Ans. (3)
18. The explanation of, why we get thrown back with a jerk when the stationary bus we are sitting in starts moving forward is
‘given by:
(1) Zeroth law of gravity
(2) Newton’s first law
(3) Newton’s second law
(4) Newton’s third law
Ans. (2)
19. Which among the following is not true about the Swadeshi movement?
(1) It had a wider popular appeal than any other political agitation that preceded it
(2) It enlisted the support of the Muslim masses
(3) It had an economic character
(4) The Swadeshi movement was supported by a section of the radical press in England
Ans. (2)
20. Which Reformer does the following passage relate to?
“He insisted on the cooperation of the Muslims with the British Government arid looked at the all political movements with distrust. Thus, when the Indian National Congress was formed, he opposed it. He regarded education and education alone as, the means of national progress.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) Keshab Chandra Sen
(2) Lord Macaulay
(3) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
(4) Badruddin Tyabji
Ans. (3)
21. Consider the following statements about the press and literature in Colonial India:
(a) The print media enabled the nationalists living in different parts of the country to exchange views with one another.
(b) The British rulers were prepared to tolerate the nationalist criticism of their rule.
(c) The Vernacular Press Act (1878) evoked a nationwide protest against the encroachment on freedom of expression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) b only
(4) a and b
Ans. (1)
22. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Indian cities like Dacca, Murshidabad and Surat were known all over the world as centers of trade and industry in the pre-colonial period.
(b) Such centers of trade and industry went down in the face of foreign competition in the colonial period.
(c) Indian artisans, manufacturers and weavers were ‘provided alternative, employment by the British Indian government after the decline of these center& of trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c only
(4) a only
Ans. (3)
23. Consider the following statements relating to the Bhakti Movement:
(a) The Bhakti and Sufi Saints gradually brought about a better understanding of the fundamental tenets of Hinduism, and Islam underlining the fact that they had a great deal of similarity.
(b) The Bhakti and Sufi Saints also brought-about important changes in the approach to religion, laying greater emphasis on formal Observances and rituals.
(c) They also contributed to the growth of regional languages and literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(1) a and b
(2) b only
(3) b and c
(4) c only
Ans. (2)
24. Consider the following observations relating to the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar:
(a) Akbar strengthened his control on the nobility and the army by introducing the mansabdari system.
(b) Under the mansabdari system, every officer was assigned a rank (mansab)
(c) The ranks were divided into three: zat, sawar and chehra.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) a and c
Ans. (3)
25. Which among the following was not a demand of Mahatma Gandhi to the Government as a condition of settlement before he launched the Non-cooperation movement?
(1) The Government should withdraw the Rowlatt Act
(2) The Government should express regret for the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
(3) The British government should behave leniently with Turkey
(4) The Government should put a better scheme of reforms than that of the Act of 1919
Ans. (4)
26. The ‘Motorana’ and the ‘hathianna’ referred to:
(1) markets where peasants brought their produce
(2) taxes levied by zamindars on their peasants
(3) rent paid by peasants for the use of the motorcar or the elephant of the zamindar
(4) the nickname for those zamindars that possessed a motorcar or an elephant
Ans. (3)
27. Which of the following ideas was/were shared by Raja Rammohan Roy and Rabindranath Tagore?
(1) Internationalism
(2) Opposition to idol worship
(3) Faith in rational and scientific approach
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
28. The Hindustan Republican Association was founded to:
(1) Set up a republican government in Hindustan
(2) Organize armed rebellion in India
(3) Persuade the Indian people to participate in elections
(4) Encourage the Indian youth onto the path of socialism
Ans. (1)
29. Consider the following statements about Indian trade and commerce in the medieval period:
(a) India exported cotton piece goods to the wider world in the medieval period.
(b) India received gold and silver from the wider world in lieu of her cotton goods.
(c) India also supplied raw materials to the European industries in the medieval period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a and b
(2) a only
(3) b and c
(4) c only
Ans. (1)
30. Which of the following statements about Bhadrabahu is/are correct?
(a) He was a Jain Saint.
(b) He was a spiritual teacher of Chandragupta Maurya.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
31. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA) set up by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India in 2006 to undertake a complete health checkup of the country’s financial sector?
(1) Shri Ashok Chawla
(2) Shri Ashok Jha
(3) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
(4) Dr. D. Subba Rao
Ans. (3)
32. Which one of the following causes rainfall in the north-western parts of India during Winter Season?
(1) Cyclonic depression
(2) Retreating monsoon
(3) Western disturbances
(4) South West monsoon
Ans. (3)
33. Tidal range denotes the:
(1) rise of sea water and its movement toward the coast
(2) fall of sea water and its movement toward the sea
(3) rise and fall of sea water due to gravitational forces
(4) difference between high and low tide
Ans. (4)
34. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Damuda series of rock system contain all the metallurgical coal in India.
(b) Tamil Nadu is the chief producer of lignite coal in India.
(c) Tertiary coal is mainly confined to the peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)
35. Which one of the following states of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Tripura
(4) West Bengal
Ans. (3)
36. Through which one of the following continents, do the equator, the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn pass through?
(1) Africa
(2) South America
(3) North America
(4) Australia
Ans. (1)
37. The laboratory from where car bon dioxide measurements have been taken since 1958 AD., which form the basis of present global warming data base is:
(1) Maragheh observatory
(2) Mauna Loa observatory
(3) Griffith observatory
(4) Sydney observatory
Ans. (2)
38. What happens to the soil, where soil water freezes and it tends to form ice layers parallel with the ground surface?
(1) It heaves the soil upward in an uneven manner
(2) It heaves the soil downward in an uneven manner
(3) It heaves the soil both upward and downward in an even manner
(4) Ii remains unaffected
Ans. (1)
39. What happens to the water depth as the Tsunami waves approach the coast?
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Increases and decreases alternatively
(4) Neither increases nor decreases
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Earth receives the Sun’s energy at the infrared end of the spectrum.
(b) The Earth re-radiates the Sun’s heat as ultraviolet energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following is a planetary wind?
(1) Monsoon
(2) Trade
(3) Chinook
(4) Mistral
Ans. (2)
42. Which one of the following does not control climate?
(1) Latitude
(2) Altitude
(3) Longitude
(4) Forest cover
Ans. (3)
Online free resource for SEBI exams
1. Four-fifths of three-eighths of a number is 24. What is 250 per cent of that number?
1)100
2)160
3)120
4)200
5)None of these
2. The average of 17 numbers is 45. The average of first 9 of these numbers is 51 and the last 9 of these numbers is 36. What is the ninth number?
1)14
2)16
3)22
4) 20
5) None of these
3. Amri borrowed a sum of money from Jayant at the rate of 8% per annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next six years and 12% per
annum for the period beyond ten years. If he pays a total of Rs 12,160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much money did he borrow?
1) Rs 8000
2) Rs 10,000
3) Rs 12,000
4) Rs 9,000
5) None of these
4. The average age of 24 students and the class teacher is 16 years. If the class teacher’s age is excluded, the average reduces by one year. What is the age of the class
teacher?
1) 50 years
2) 45 years
3) 40 years
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
5679+1438-2015=?
1)5192
2)5012
3)5102
4)5002
5)None of these
6. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 7: 5. If the perimeter of the plot is 144 metres, what is its area?
1)1320 sq. metres
2)1260 sq. metres
3)1280 sq. metres
4)1380 sq. metres
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-11): In each of the following questions, a question is asked followed by three statements. While answering the question, you may or may not require the data provided in the statements. you have to read the question and the three statements and then decide whether the question can be answered with any one or two of the statements or all the three statements are required to answer the question, The answer number bearing the combination of statements or single statement which is necessary to answer the question is your answer.
7. What is the perimeter of a rectangular garden?
A. The area of the garden is 2400 sq. metres.
B. The diagonal of the gardenia 50 metres.
C. The ratio between the length and the breadth of the garden is3 :2.
1) All A, B and C together are required
2) Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
3) Only A and B are required
4) Only B and C are required
5) None of these
8. What was the rate of compound interest on an amount of money?
A. The amount fetches a total of Rs 945.75 as compound interest at the end of three years.
B. The difference between the total simple interest and the total compound interest at the end of two years with the seine rate of interest was Rs 15.
C. The ratio between the principal amount and the total Simple interest at the end of three years is 20: 3.
1) Only A and are required
2) Only B and C are required
3) All A, B and C together are required
4) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be determined
5) None of these
9. What is the difference between two numbers. X and Y?
A. X is 20 per cent more than another number Z.
B. Y is 20 per cent less than Z.
C. The sum of Y and Z is 72.
1) Only A and B are required
2) Only A and C are required
3) All A, B and C together are required
4) Any two of A, B and C are required
5) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be arrived at
10. What is the monthly salary of Pravin?
A. Pravin earns Rs 1,200 more than Amal.
B. The ratio between Amal and Vimal’s monthly salary is 5 : 3.
C. Vimal earns Rs 1,000 less than Amal.
1) Any two of A, B and C are required
2) Only A and B are required
3) Only B and C are required
4) All A, B and C together are required
5) None of these
11. How much marks was obtained by Mukesh in Geography?
A. The average marks obtained by Mukesh in English, History and Geography was 65.
B. The difference between the marks obtained by Mukesh in English and History was 15.
C. The total marks obtained by Mukesh in Geography and Mathematics was 140.
1) All A, B and C together are required
2) Only A and C are required
3) Only B and C are required
4) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be determined
5) Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
Directions (Q. 12-16): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(In thousand tonnes)
12. In which of the following years was the total of the exports and domestic consumption highest among the given years?
1)1991
2)1993
3)1994
4)1992
5) None of these
13. The difference between the domestic consumption between 1990 and 1991 was exactly equal to the difference in exports between which of the following pairs of years?
1)1991 & 1992
2)1989 & 1991
3)1988 & 1990
4)1991 & 1993
5)1992 & 1993
14. If there was 40 per cent increase in the domestic consumption from 1994 to 1995, what would have been the difference between the domestic consumption and ex ports in 1995 (in tonnes)?
1) 5,000
2) 7,000
3) 8,500
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
15. In which of the following years was the percentage fluctuation (increase/decrease) in exports the maxi mum from the previous years?
1)1989
2)1991
3)1994
4)1992
5)1990
16. What was the difference between the average domestic consumption and the average exports during the given years?
1) 2,000 tonnes
2) 3,000 tonnes
3) 2,500 tonnes
4) 4,000 tonnes
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Marks obtained in six subjects by six students
In the above table shown St. = Students,
Sub = Subjects,
T Marks = Total Marks,
H= History,
S =Science,
G = Geography,
E = English,
Hn = Hindi,
M = Maths.
17. What was the difference between the percentage of marks obtained by student B in History and the percent age of marks obtained by student C in Hindi?
1)25
2)20
3)35
4)30
5)None of these
18. The marks obtained by student A in Maths was how many times the percentage of marks obtained by student F in Science?
1)2.5
2)4.125
3)1.125
4)2.125
5)None of these
19. What was the difference between the percentage of marks obtained by student C in English and average percentage of marks of all the six subjects?
1) 82
2)38.33
3)7
4)14
5) None of these
20. In how many of the given subjects did student D get marks more than seventy per cent?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
21. Approximately, what was the average percentage of marks obtained by the six students in English?
1)67
2) 72
3)80
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
22. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 14 less than one-fourth of 176. What is the middle number?
1) 8
2)10
3) 6
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
23. When 35 per cent of a number is added to another number, the second number increases by its 20 per cent. What is the ratio between the second number and the first number?
1)4:7
2)7:4
3)8:5
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
24. The difference between the digits of a two-digit number is one-ninth of the difference between the original number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits. What definitely is the sum of the digits of that number?
1)5
2)14
3)12
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Answers :
Sl no Answer
1 4
2 5
3 1
4 3
5 3
6 2
7 2
8 5
9 3
10 4
11 4
12 4
13 4
14 4
15 5
16 5
17 2
18 4
19 3
20 1
21 1
22 2
23 2
24 4
General Intelligence & Reasoning
1. Nandini stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km (B) 8 km (C) 16 km (D) 10 km
2. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma (B) Kajal (C) Ankita (D) None of these
3. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK : ?
(A) NUTL (B) NTTJ (C) NTTL (D) LTRS
4. As 'Furniture' is related to 'Bench' in the same way 'Stationary' is related to what?
(A) Godown (B) Room (C) Pen (D) Chair
5. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 25
6. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 :15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30 (B) 6 : 00 (C) 6 : 15 (D) 4 : 20
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24 (B) 57 (C) 58 (D) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be:
(A) 8, 9, 8 (B) 9, 8, 8 (C) 10, 1, 6 (D) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626 (B) 112144 (C) 447355 (D) 869756
10. Introducing a man, a woman says, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the man related to the woman ?
(A) Uncle (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle
11. Air is to atmosphere as water is to
(A) biosphere (B) stratosphere (C) ecosphere (D) hydrosphere
12. Choose the number from the given answers to replace the question mark?
240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2
(A) 480 (B) 240 (C) 180 (D) 420
13. Foot is to hand as leg is to
(A) Elbow (B) Toe (C) Finger (D) Arm
14. Daughter is to father as niece is to
(A) Nephew (B) Cousin (C) Uncle (D) Mother
15. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 27
16. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780 (B) 8354 (C) 4892 (D) 3478
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) March (B) January (C) July (D) June
18. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among M, N, R and Q is the oldest ?
(A) M (B) R ( C) M or R (D) Q
19. Pointing to a lady in photograph, Varma said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is Varma related to the lady?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother
20. Surendra introduces "Raju as the son of the only brother of his father's wife". How is Raju related to Surendra?
(A) Cousin (B) Son (C) Uncle (D) Brother
21. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fist in a certain language, what is the colour of the sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink
22. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576 (B) 895 (C) 783 (D) 394
23. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 2
24. Select an appropriate answer to replace the question mark from among the choices given.
(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 27
25. Complete the series ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
General Knowledge and General Awareness
26. Which government income is included in revenue budget ?
(A) Tax-revenue (B) Non-tax-revenue (C) Both of above (D) None of the above
27. The tomb of Babur is at
(A) Kabul (B) Lahore (C) Multan (D) Larkhana
28. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
(A) Greeks (B) Shakas (C) Persians (D) Kushans
29. The moon is showing its same face to the earth because
(A) It is not rotating about its own axis (B) Its rotation and revolution are opposite
(C) Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same (D) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
30. Devaluation of currency leads to
(A) expansion of export trade (B) contraction of import trade
(C) expansion of import substitution (D) All of the above
31. Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as
(A) Dry deciduous (B) Dry evergreen (C) Tropical moist deciduous (D) Tropical moist evergreen
32. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of
(A) Commercial bills (B) Foreign exchange (C) Gold (D) Government bonds
33. Which one of the following pairs of seas does the Suez Canal connect?
(A) Indian Ocean – Pacific Ocean (B) Mediterranean Sea- Black Sea
(C) Mediterranean Sea – Red Sea (D) Atlantic Ocean – Pacific Ocean
34. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
(A) the speaker (B) the president (C) chairman of Rajyasabha (D) none of these
35. Odissi is the dance style of:
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Andra Pradesh (C) Haryana (D) Orissa
36. Who invented the telephone:
(A) Newton (B) J.L.Baird (C) Alexander Graham Bell (D) Thomas Edison
37. In S.H.G. (Self Help Group) most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
(A) Members (B) Government (C) Bank (D) NGO
38. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
(A) Poland (B) Denmark (C) Finland (D) Norway
39. The Kiel Canal links the ?
(A) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea (B) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Sea and Baltic Sea (D) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
40. The National Institute for Agricultural Marketing is located at
(A) Jaipur (B) New Delhi (C) Nagpur (D) Hyderabad
41. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by
(A) Total population of the country (B) Total working population
(C) Area of the country (D) Volume of capital used
42. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the year ?
(A) 1972 (B) 1973 (C) 1974 (D) 1975
43. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Rajaraja Chola (B) Mahendra Varman (C) Narsimha Varman (D) Narsimha Chola
44. Which of the following is not a bone in thehuman body?
(A) Sternum (B) Humerus (C) Pericardium (D) Tibia
45. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(A) two (B) three (C) five (D) eight
46. Eden Garden (Kolkata) is associated with
(A) Basket Ball (B) Football(C) Cricket (D) Hockey
47. Which one of the following states of India records the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka(C) Meghalaya (D) Tamilnadu
48. Government is going to merge Annapurna Scheme with
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme(B) National Old Age Pension Scheme(C) National Food for Work Programme(D) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
49. When was the first National Forest Policy issued by the Government of India ?
(A) 1952 (B) 1940(C) 1942 (D) 1999
50. What is the maximum Water Vapour content in the atmosphere ?
(A) 2 to 3 percent (B) 3 to 4 percent(C) 4 to 5 percent (D) 5 to 6 percent
Elementary Mathematics
51. A group of boys contributed as many rupees each for their trip as they were in number. The total collection came to Rs. 841. How many boys were there in the group?
(A) 21 (B) 29(C) 31 (D) 41
52. If 'x' men can do a piece of work in 8 days and x+4 men can do the same work in 6 days. Then x is equal to
(A) 10 (B) 6(C) 12 (D) 24
53. In a triangle, two sides of 12 cm and 5 cm are at right angles. If the triangle is revolved along the 12cm side, the curved surface of the cone so formed will be
(A) 156 cm2 (B) 78 cm2(C) 65 cm2 (D) 130 cm2
54. Two men together start a journey in the same direction. They travel 9 and 15 kilometer/ day respectively daily. After traveling for 6 days the man traveling 9 km/day doubles his speed and both of them finish the distance, in the same time. Find the number of days taken by them to reach the destination.
(A) 36 (B) 21(C) 18 (D) 12
55. In an examination it is required to get 40% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 265 marks and is declared fail by 55 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(A) 800 (B) 750 (C) 650 (D) 850
56. A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar
enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(A) Rs. 16 per kg (B) Rs. 8 per kg(C) Rs. 4 per kg (D) Rs. 2 per kg
57. 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(A) 700 (B) 650(C) 600 (D) 550
58. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is:
(A) 11 (B) 13(C) 17 (D) 9
59. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is
(A) 24/5 % (B) 4 %(C) 3 % (D) 10/3 %
60. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is:
(A) 9% (B) 10%(C) 18% (D) 900/ 109 %
61. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 % (B) 5%(C) 1/12 % (D) 5/24 %
62. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is:
(A) 50 (B) 100(C) 150 (D) 200
63. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210C to 380C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50C (B) 270C(C) 300C (D) 320C
64. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 156. what is the value of thrice the larget even number ? (A) 124 (B) 128 (C) 126 (D) 134
65. Train fare between nagpar and Nasik for one child. I f adul’s train fare is Rs.102 how much amount will be paid by 3 adults and 4 children together for travelling the same distance ?
(A) Rs:432 (B) Rs:532 (C) Rs:612 (D) Rs:440
66. 1148 28 1408 32 = ?
(A) 1800 (B) 1804(C) 1814 (D) 1822
67. (A) 51 (B) 59(C) 53 (D) 49
68. 3.2% of 500 2.4% of ? = 288
(A) 650 (B) 700(C) 600 (D) 750
69. In a mixture of 60 liters the ratio of milk and water is 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1: 2, then the quantity of water (in liters) to be further added is
(A) 20 (B) 30(C) 40 (D) 60
70. of of of 490 = ?
(A) 115 (B) 105(C) 108 (D) 116
71. 13.5 16.4 7.2 = ?
(A) 1554.38 (B) 1526.28(C) 1594.08 (D) 1582.18
72. 25% of 424 – ?% of 454 = 37.9
(A) 26 (B) 19(C) 21 (D) 15
73. A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is ?
(A) 15 (B) 12(C) 10 (D) 20
74. Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?
(A) Rs. 300 (B) Rs. 350(C) Rs. 375 (D) Rs. 475
75. A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
(A) Rs. 950 (B) Rs. 980(C) Rs. 1010 (D) Rs. 1040
English
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer.
76. In an effort (A) / to make peace (B) / Priya spoke separately (C) / to both the person. (D)
77. They had a narrow escape (A) / when skating as (B) / roaring avalanche (C) / just missed them. (D)
78. The movie star should not have (A) / allowed the press (B) / at the scene had he (C) / known about the fuss. (D)
Directions : Choose the most appropriate word from the given options to fill up the blank in the sentence.
79. When he reached the doctors house he ....... out already.
(A) Went (B) gone(C) has gone (D) had gone
80. The Government agreed to pay compensation ......... damaged crops, land and catle.
(A) to (B) through(C) for (D) of
Directions : Choose the Antyonym of the following :
81. EXONERATE
(A) Moderate (B) Accuse(C) Watchful (D) Acquire
82. REPLETE
(A) Disentangle (B) Improper(C) Devoid (D) Renovate
Directions : Choose the Synonym of the following :
83. SPORADIC
(A) Epidemic (B) Whirling(C) Occasional (D) Stagnant
84. SOPORIFIC
(A) Flattering (B) Sickening(C) Exciting (D) Sleep-producing
Directions : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.
85. (A) hurried (B) hundered (2)(C) hindrance (D) hatred
86. (A) dance (B) damsal (4)(C) dismal (D) dismisal
87. (A) honour (B) honourable (3)(C) honourary (D) honorarium
Directions : In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
While it may suit adult students very well it is very doubtful whether correspondence education would be qdequate for undergraduates of the usual college age group of sixteen to twenty. Young people in their teems need the discipline and the supervision of a regular college course with all that it involves in the observance of an integrated schedule of work and play the personal association with teachers, and the psychological stimulus provided by competition with other students. There are obvious exceptions of course, such as the physically handicapped, who cannot get full value from a normal college education, but on the whole this distinction between young students and mature scholars is valid enough. It is therefore evident that the correspondence system of education. with provide access to higher. studies to people who would otherwise be danced it, but it will do little to ease the pressure on existing colleges.
88. Correspondence courses are most suitable for :
(A) teenagers(B) villagers(C) Those who are between sixteen and twenty(D) none of the above
89. Correspondence courses are designed in such a way as to :
(A) enforce better discipline in schools and colleges.(B) Stimulate the students for competition.
(C) gain a personal association with teachers through correspondence.
(D) enable those who could not as adults attend colleges to obtain education if they so desire.
90. The difference between the young students and mature scholars is :
(A) that the former are more disciplined than the latter.
(B) that the latter need lesser personal attention than the former.
(C) that the former are more competitive than the latter.
(D) that the latter are psychologically better equipped than the former.
91. A regular college course for youngsters is desirable because :
(A) they cannot carry on with their studies independently.
(B) that ensures a neatly arranged programme of academic work that is proper for their age.
(C) they always need the assistance of teachers to study properly.
(D) otherwise, they will be physically and mentally handicapped.
92. The correspondence system of education is expected to :
(A) reduce the quantum of rush to the colleges existing at present.
(B) bring about no change in the pattern of admissions to colleges.
(C) creat more opportunities for the weaker sections to obtain higher education
(D) increase the number of educated unemployed in the country.
Directions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It called for help from the jackal to get out of the well. But the jackal ran away smiling and with the pride of having …(93)… the poor goat. On the way he met a cat. Most sarcastically he told the cat, “Oh ! You lot is really pitiable. For food you have to …(94)… on left-overs. You have to go to the backside of houses, hotels or garbage dumps for your food. I catch fouls, kill and eat them.” When he was …(95)… like this some hunting dogs came that way. The cat was clever. It jumped up on a tree. But the jackal had …(97)… to go. Even though it tried to run, the hunting dogs …(97)… it and killed it. All his slyness, could not save him, from his doom.
93. (A) won (B) gained(C) ditch (D) cheated
94. (A) depend (B) hunt(C) wait (D) bent
95. (A) whispering (B) moaning(C) boasting (D) crying
96. (A) everywhere (B) nowhere(C) not (D) place
97. (A) avoided (B) catch(C) powered (D) overpowered
Directions: From the four words, identify the one which can be substituted for the senteces in questions.
98. Life history of a person written by another
(A) Autobiography (B) Biography(C) Bibliography (D) Memoir
99. A post without remuneration
(A) Voluntary (B) Sinecure(C) Honorary (D) Involuntary
100.One who cannot die
(A) Stable (B) Immortal(C) Perpetual (D) Perennial
ANSWERS:
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C
15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. B 51. B 52. C
53. C 54. C 55. A 56. C 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. D 70. B 71. C 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. D 77. B 78. A 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. C 83. C 84. D 85. B 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. D 90. B
ENGLISH
(Exam Held on: 05-06-2011)
Directions: In Questions 1 to 5, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
1. Tame (N)
(A) wild(B) savage(C) domesticated(D) silent
2. Mercy(A) merit(B) sympathy(C) loss(D) pain
3. Obscene
(A) beautiful(B) unhealthy(C) unwanted(D) indecent
4. Effect
(A) result(B) warning(C) chance(D) purpose
5. Speculate
(A) think(B) guess(C) argue(D) speak
Directions: In Questions 6 to 10, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark in the Answer Sheet.
6. Tentative
(A) definite(B) insufficient(C) plentiful(D) active
7. Compulsory
(A) easy(B) optional(C) unnecessary(D) mandatory
8. Adamant
(A) satisfied(B) comfortable(C) yielding(D) luxurious
9. Honest
(A) infect(B) cleanse(C) corrupt(D) pollute
10. Oral
(A) written(B) correct(C) mental(D) verbal
Directions: In the following passage (11 to 15), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternative given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
There _ 11__ in the city of Ujjain a poor tailor _ 12__ Ramphal. As he was very poor, he __13__ to live and work in one little with his wife and __14__ three small children. The children fought _ 15__ each other and made so much noise.
11. (A) lived(B) stayed(C) inhabited(D) existed
12. (A) famous(B) named(C) known(D) titled
13. (A) wished(B) liked(C) had(D) wanted
14. (A) few(B) a few(C) their(D) some
15. (A) to(B) upon(C) for(D) wit
Directions: In Question 16 to 20, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by a blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
16. The telephone kept ________ ringing, but no one attended.
(A) off(B) on(C) up(D) up with
17. She is sad, because her father turned _______ her request.
(A) in(B) off(C) out(D) down
18. You should not confide _______ a stranger.
(A) in(B) to(C) with(D) by
19. Poets have compared this word _______ a stage.
(A) with(B) to(C) by(D) on
20. I prevailed _______ him to contest the election.
(A) on(B) off(C) over(D) of
Directions: In Questions 21 to 25, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding (D) in the Answer Sheet.
21. Pacific Ocean is (A)/ the deepest ocean(B) / in the world.(C)/ NO error.(D)
22. You will com(A) / to my sister’s wedding tomorrow,(B) / isn’t it?(C)/ No error(D)
23. I am(A) / your’s(B) / affectionate son.(C)/ No error.(D)
24. Beside Hindi, (A)/ she knew (B)/ Bengali well.(C)/ No error(D)
25. He walks(A)/ as if the earth (B)/ belonged to him.(C)/ No error.(D)
ANSWERS:
1.(C) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(A) 5.(B) 6.(A) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(A) 11.(A) 12.(B) 13.(C) 14.(C) 15.(D)
16.(B) 17.(D) 18.(B) 19.(A) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(A) 25.(D)
1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal(B) Phew Dorajee(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi(D) Yoko Ono
2. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology(B) Chemistry(C) Fluid Mechanics(D) Astrophysics
3. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit(B) V. K. Krishna Menon(C) Jawaharlal Nehru(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
4. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force(B) Rapid Action Force(C) Reverse Action Force(D) Repeat Action Force
5. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga(B) Brahmputra(C) Bhagirathi(D) Yamuna
6. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar(B) Sri Lanka(C) Pakistan(D) Tajikistan
7. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
8. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008
(A) Saumika Mishra(B) Santosh Sen(C) Amit Kumar(D) Pappu
9. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.(B) Canada(C) U.S.S.R.(D) Ireland
10. The three medals that IndiAns won in the Beijing Olympics were in
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
11 There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
(A) Chief Justice of India(B) Chief Justice of a High Court(C) Governor(D) Vice President
12. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer(B) Jodhpur(C) Bikaner(D) Barmer
13. Garba is a dance form of
(A) Gujarat(B) Rajasthan(C) Orissa(D) Assam
14. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh(B) Ajit Pal Singh(C) Joginder Singh(D) Milkha Singh
15. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(A) Bankrupt persons(B) Aliens(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease(D) Political sufferers
16. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
17. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha(D) Five years
18. Consent of the people meAns consent of
(A) A few people(B) All people(C) Majority of the people(D) Leader of the people
19. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha(B) Gram Panchayat(C) Gram Cooperative Society(D) Nyaya Panchayat
20. Match the following—Union Territory with Jurisdiction (High Court)
(A) Puducherry (B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands(C) Lakshadweep(D) Daman and Diu
1. Kerala2. Bombay3. Madras4. Calcutta
(A) 3 4 1 2(B) 1 3 4 2(C) 1 2 3 4(D) 1 4 3 2
21. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4(C) 1, 2 and 3(D) 1 and 4
22. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper(B) Lead(C) Mercury(D) Zinc
23. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as
(A) Neutrophilia(B) Nephrosis(C) Necrosis(D) Neoplasia
24. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.(B) Staphylococcus(C) Bacillus(D) Salmonella typhi
25 Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by
(A) Proteins(B) Fats(C) Minerals(D) Vitamins
26. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as
(A) Sedimentation (B) Filtration(C) Flocculation(D) Water softening
27. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by
(A) Koch(B) HAnsen(C) Fleming(D) Harvey
28. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare2. M. C. Sharma3. Gajendra Singh4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2(B) 1, 2 and 4(C) 1, 2 and 3(D) All the above
29. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(A) Promote heavy industries in India(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine(D) Enable IndiAns to move freely within the country
30. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh(B) R. G. Bhandarkar(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade(D) B. G. Tilak
31. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand(B) Meghalaya(C) Mizoram(D) Jharkhand
32. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal(B) Bihar(C) Orissa(D) Uttar Pradesh
33. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Persons—Events
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3(B) 2 only(C) 1 only(D) 2 and 4
34. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra(B) Kabul(C) Lahore(D) Delhi
35. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is consideredas
(A) Absolute Poverty(B) Relative Poverty(C) Urban Poverty(D) Rural Poverty
36. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector2. Private Sector3. Joint Sector4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4(B) 1, 2(C) 3, 4(D) 2, 4
37. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, accordingto 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra(B) Bihar(C) Uttar Pradesh(D) West Bengal
38. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by
(A) Adam Smith(B) Marshall(C) P. A. Samuelson(D) J. S. Mill Ans : (C)
39. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves
(A) Upward to the right(B) Downward to the right(C) Horizontally(D) VerticallyAns : (A)
40. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar(D) Shri D. SubbaraoAns : (D)
41. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have
(A) Same meaning(B) Different meaning(C) Opposite meaning(D) None of the aboveAns : (B)
42. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is
(A) Saturn(B) Uranus(C) Neptune(D) PlutoAns : (D)
43. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is
(A) Terrestrial telescope(B) Astronomical telescope(C) Compound microscope(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)
44. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in
(A) Inductance(B) Current(C) Resistance(D) CapacitanceAns : (B)
45. It is difficult to cook rice
(A) At the top of a mountain(B) At the sea level(C) Under a mine(D) Same anywhereAns : (A)
46. X-rays were discovered by
(A) Becquerel(B) Roentgen(C) Marie Curie(D) Van LueAns : (B)
47. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in
(A) Mumbai(B) Bengaluru(C) Hyderabad(D) PuneAns : (D)
48. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are
(A) Hormones(B) Nucleic acids(C) Pheromones(D) SteroidsAns : (C)
50. An emulsifier is an agent which
(A) Stabilises an emulsion(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion(D) Homogenises an emulsionAns : (A)
1. A trader bears a loss of 25% by selling 40 needles .for a rupee. How many needles should he sell for a rupee in order to earn a profit of 20%?
(a) 23(b) 20(c) 25(d) 27Ans. (c)
2. A train crosses a 300 m long platform in 20 seconds and a telegraph pole in 10 seconds. The length of the train is—
(a) 100 m(b) 200 m(c) 300 m(d) 400 mAns. (c)
3. Find the cost of paving a rectangular courtyard 30 meters long and 20 meters wide with tiles 12 cm long and 10 cm wide at Rs. 60 per thousand tiles.
(a) Rs. 3000(b) Rs. 4000(c) Rs. 3500(d) Rs. 5000Ans. (a)
4. If the radius of a circle be doubled, its area will be -
(a) four times(b) doubled(c) tripled(d) sameAns. (a)
5. The volume of a wall, 5 times as high as it is broad and 8 times as long as it is high, is 18225 cu.m. Find the breadth of the wall.
(a) 32.5 m(b) 5 m(c) 4.5 m(d) 3.5 mAns. (c)
6. The earth’s surface is covered either by land or by water. The proportion covered by land of that 3/5 covered by water. What fraction of the entire surface of earth is land?
(a) 1/2(b) 3/8(c) 1/3(d) 2/5Ans. (b)
7. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days. B and C can do it in 120 days and A and C can do it in 90 days. In how many days can A alone do it?
(a) 80 days(b) 100 days(c) 150 days(d) 120 daysAns. (d)
8. An electric pump can fill a tank in 3 hours: Because of a leak in the tank, it took 3 ½ hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in -
(a) 21 hours(b) 6 ½ hours(c) 10 ½ hours(d) 12 hoursAns. (a)
9. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 10% pr annum is Rs.15 and paisa 50. The sum is—
(a) Rs. 5000(b) Rs. 550(c) Rs. 500(d) Rs.11500Ans. (c)
10. The first wrong number is 1, second wrong number is 3 and the third wrong number is 5 and so on. What is the 200th number?
(a) 199(b) 299(c) 399(d) 499Ans. (c)
11. A bottle contains 12 ounce’s of a medicine. Doctor advised the patient to take 2 ounces of medicine every half an hour. If the patient starts taking medicine at 7 am, how long will the medicine last?
(a) 9.30 am(b) 12.30 pm(c) 10.00 am(d) 1.00 pmAns. (a)
12. Find the appropriate answer:
1f 56 x 72 = 79, 32 x 4 = 81, 9 x 12 = 34, 25 x 30 = 56 then, 49 x 42 =?
77(c) 76(b) 52(d) 67Ans. (c)
13. When the length of a right angled quadrilateral is increased by 2 units and its breadth is decreased by 2 Units, its area decreases by 28 square units. Similarly, if length is decreased by 1 unit and bread-th is increased by 2 Units, its area increases by 33 sq. units. What will be the area of the right angled quadrilateral?
(a) 352 sq. units(b) 253 sq. units(c) 223 sq units(a) 225 sq. unitsAns. (b)
14. A sells a watch to B at a gain of 20% and B sells it to C at a loss of 10%. If C pays Rs. 216, what does it cost to A?
(a) Rs. 200(b) Rs. 216(c) Rs. 100(d) Rs. 250Ans. (a)
15. What will be the value of 3.5 x 3.5 + 2 x 6.5 x 3.5 + 6.5 x 6.5?
(a) 10(b) 100(c) 200(d) 1000Ans. (b)
16. The sum of a two digit number and the number formed by, interchanging its digits is 110. Then find the number if difference of its digits is 4.
(a) 38(b) 73(c) 48(d) 84Ans. (b)
17. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When the cistern had no leak, it was filled in 9 hours. It now takes an hour longer. If the cistern is full of water how long would it take in leaking itself empty?
(a) 30 hours(b) 90 hours(c) 45 hours(d) 60 hoursAns. (b)
18. There were two candidates in an election. One of -the candidates got 43% of total votes and was defeated by a margin of 420 votes, How many votes were cast in the election?
(a) 860(b) 840(c) 1300(d) 3000Ans. (d)
19. A boat can row 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Also it can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstreamin 13 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 5 km/hour(b) 7 km/hour(c) 8 km/hour(d) 10 km/hourAns. (c)
20. A bookseller sells a book at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 4% less and sold it for 60 paisa more, he would have gained 18 ¾ %. What does it cost to the bookseller?
(a) Rs.1l(b) Rs. 4(c) Rs. 10(d) Rs. 15Ans. (d)
21. My present age is thrice the present age of my son. After five years, my age will be two and half times the age of my son. What is my present age?
(a) 36 yrs(b) 39 yrs(c) 42 yrs(d) 45 yrsAns. (d)
22. If 1. 2:3.9: 2:? then what will be the value of (?) ?
(a) 5.6(b) 6.5(c) 1.8(d) 4.5Ans. (b)
23. A fraction becomes 4/5 when 1 is added to both the numerator and the denominator and it becomes 1/2 when 5 is subtracted from both the numerator and the denominator. What is the fraction?
(a) 2/3(b) 7/9(c) 8/9(d) 4/3Ans. (b)
24. 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, how long will 8 men and 16 women take to reap it?
(a) 14 days(b) 9 days(c) 10 days(d) 12 daysAns. (b)
25. In an examination, 60% of students were successful. The number of unsuccessful students was 400. How many students appeared in the examination?
(a) 400(b) 460(c). 340(d) 1000Ans. (d)
General Knowledge
1. Who was the first Governor-General of free India?
(A) C. Rajgopalachari(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru(C) Lord Mountbatten(D) Sardar PatelAns. (A)
2. In which year new currency ‘Euro’ was introduced?
(A) 1996(C) 1998(B) W99(D) 1997Ans. (B)
5. Who among the following Tomar rulers is credited with founding of city of Delhi?
(A) Anangapal(B) Vajrata(C) Rudrane(D) DevrajaAns. (A)
6. Tri-colour was adopted as the ‘National Flag’ in—
(A) Haripur Congress(B) Lahore Congress(C) Belgaum Congress(D) Allahabad CongressAns. (B)
7. Mahavira was born in kshatriya clan by the name of—
(A) Shakya(B) Janatrika(C) Mallas(D) LichhaviAns. (B)
8. Who is regarded as the founder of the scientific socialism?
(A) Rousseau(B) Engels(C) Karl Marx(D) LeninAns. (C)
9. The first World War broke out in the year?
(A) 1914(B) 1915(C) 1918(D) 1920Ans. (A)
10. During whose reign Chengiz Khan reached the bank of river Indus?
(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak(B) Iltutmish(C) Chandragupta Maurya(D) BindusaraAns. (B)
11. What is the name of German Currency?
(A) Yen(B) Peso(C) Dollar(D) EuroAns. (D)
12. Total World population is about—
(A) 8 billion(B) 5 billion(C) 6 billion(D) 7 billionAns. (C)
13. Which is the largest desert in the World?
(A) Sahara desert(B) Thar desert(C) Gobi desert(D) Great Sand desertAns. (A)
14. Name the sea whose boundaries touch three continents?
(A) Mediterranean Sea(B) Red Sea(C) Caspian Sea(D) Caribbean SeaAns. (A)
15. The largest producer of coffee in the World is—
(A) Brazil(B) Srilanka(C) India(D) MyanmarAns. (A)
16. The state which has developed wind energy—
(A) Gujarat(B) Karnataka(C) Kerala(D) Andhra PradeshAns. (A)
17. Lion is conserved at—
(A) Kaziranga Sanctuary(B) Gir Sanctuary(C) Corbett National Park(D) Manas SanctuaryAns. (B)
18. Which state is bound by Bangladesh on three sides?
(A) Mizoram(B) Meghalaya(C) West Bengal(D) TripuraAns. (D)
19. Which state is associated with both tea and coffee as its main crops ?
(A) Karnataka(B) Assam(C) Kerala(D) MaharashtraAns. (A)
20. India is the largest producer of—
(A) Mica(B) Coal(C) Tin(D) LeadAns. (A)
21. India’s share in the world tourism market is—
(A) Less than 1%(B) between 1% and 2%(C) more than 2% but less than 3%(D) slightly more than 3%Ans. (A)
22. To achieve economic self reliance was the main objective of the following five year plans?
(A) First Plan(B) Second Plan(C) Third Plan(D) Fourth PlanAns. (D)
23. Reserve Bank of India—
(A) Provides direct finance to agriculture(B) Provides finance to primary cooperative societies
(C) Provides finance to state cooperative banks(D) Does not provide finance to agricultureAns. (C)
24. What is the percentage of the total work force employed in agriculture sector in India?
(A) About 50%(B) About 56%(C) About 60%(D) About 64%Ans. (D)
25. The normal temperature of human body is—
(A) 40.5°C(B) 36.9°C(C) 98.4°C(D) 82.4°CAns. (B)
Directions—(Q. 1—5): The words given below are followed by four words or phrases out which only one is a Synonym. Choose the correct word.
1. ACRID—
(A) Sour(B) Bitterly pungent(C) Sweetish(D) HardAns. (B)
2. Temporal—
(A) Priestly(B) Scholarly(C) Secular(D) SleepyAns. (C)
3. Tawdry—
(A) Orderly(B) Showy(C) Reclaimed(D) Proper
Ans. (B)
4. Surfeit—
(A) Excess(B) Drop(C) Estimate(D) Claim
Ans. (A)
5. Reprisal—
(A) Retaliation(B) Assessment(C) Loss(D) Re-evaluation
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 6—10): In each of the sentences below there is a blank to be filled in
with appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are given for each question. Choose the correct alternative.
6. Because the enemy had a reputation for engaging in sneak attacks, we were……… on
the alert.
(A) inevitably(B) frequently(C) constantly(D) evident1y
Ans. (C)
7. It was…………… to everyone that the speaker told the truth.
(A) enigmatic(B) veracious(C) startling (D) patent
Ans. (C)
8. To prevent a repetition of this dreadful occurrence, we must discover the………. element in the food that was served.
(A) unknown(B) toxic(C) benign(D) heinous
Ans. (B)
9. His theories were so………… that few could see what he was trying to establish.
(A) logical(B) crudite(C) nebulous(D) scholarly
Ans. (D)
10. Your………. attitude will alienate any supporters you may have won to your cause.
(A) fascinating(B) humanitarian(C) logical(D) truculent
Ans. (D)
Directions—(Q. 11—15): Choose the word with wrong spellings from each set of four words.
11. (A) Stubborn(B) Pleasant(C) Succassful(D) Difference
Ans. (B)
12. (A) Entertainment(B) Cynicism(C) Deviation(D) Posession
Ans. (D)
13. (A) Legitimete(B) Emigrant(C) Inevitable(D) Inflammable
Ans. (A)
14. (A) Refugee(B) Fugitive(C) Unmaried(D) Prevented
Ans. (C)
15. (A) Begining(B) Superior(C) Dawn(D) Hostile
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 16—23): Each of the following (bold) idioms/phrase is followed by
four meanings of which only one is correct. Pick out the correct meaning.
16. The melting Pot
(A) An earthen vessel(B) An Iron cauldron(C) A cooking utensil(D) Circumstances in which things are being greatly changed
Ans. (D)
17. To feather one’s own nest
(A) To rob others to make oneself rich(B) To work selfishly
(C) To make one’s position safe(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
18. To be ill at ease
(A) To lie in bed with illness(B) To backbite others
(C) To be disturbed in mind
(D) To fell sick as well as comfort
Ans. (C)
19. A wild goose chase
(A) A foolish and fruitless search(B) To tame a wild goose(C) To chase the thief(D) To trap a goose
Ans. (A)
20. A house on fire
(A) Like enemies(B) Always quarreled(C) Hated each other(D) Very well
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 21—25): Fill in the blank spaces by picking out the Preposition from the
choices given below each sentence.
21. He was kind enough to accede……….. his request.
(A) with(B) in(C) to(D) over
Ans. (C)
22. She persisted……… doing the job despite its being uninteresting to her.
(A) on(B) with(C) at(D) in
Ans. (D)
23. These days everybody complains……… corruption in the public life.
(A) about(B) of(C) on(D) against
Ans. (B)
24. In the world of today material values take precedence…….. spiritual values.
(A) at(B) on(C) over(D) above
Ans. (C)
25. I complimented him………… his bright success in the examination.
(A) at(B) on(C) about(D) far
Ans. (B)
1. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Deep-Shikha?
(a) Gora(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(c) Mahadevi Verma(d Ram Naresh Tripathi
Ans. (c)
2. The author of the book “Meri Eqyavan Kavitayen” is—
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee(b) Abul Kalam(c) Dharamveer Bharti(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (a)
3. The Capital of Mizoram is—
(a) Imphal(b) Shillong(c) Kohima(d) Aizawl
Ans. (d)
4. The Book ‘Harry Potter and Goblet of Fire’ is been written by—
(a) Robert Ludlum(b) J.K. Rowling(c) Sidney Sheldon(d) Spencer Johnson
Ans. (b)
5. Which among the fo1lowing is the 28th State of India?
(a) Jharkhand(b) Uttaranchal(c) Chattisgarh(d) Gorkhaland
Ans. (a)
6. Population explosion in a country means —
(a) High birth rate and high death rate(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and high death rate(d) Low birth rate and low death rate
Ans. (b)
7. How the poverty line is calculated?
(a) Their house(b) Nature of employment(c) Calorie consumption(d) Standard of education
Ans. (c)
8. Elasticity of demand is a nature
(a) to increase and decrease on the change of price
(b) to increase the price(c) to decrease the price(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
9. Capital is—
(a) to earn property(b) it is kept in boxes and locker(c) it is earthed(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
10. For a study of the long-term growth of the economy we use—
(a) personal income(b) disposable income(c) money GNP(d) real GNP
Ans. (d)
11. Who is said to be the father of nuclear research in India?
(a) Raja Ramanna(b) U.R. Rao(c) Homi J. Bhabha(d) C.V.Raman
Ans. (c)
12. The- science dealing with the study of phenomena at very- low temperature is known as—
(a) cryogenics(b) frozenics(c) cytogenics(d) Refrigenics
Ans. (a)
13. Constituent Assembly was presided by—
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(b) Dr. Ambedkar(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru(d) Dr. K.M Munshi
Ans. (a)
14. Which two words were added in the Preamble of the Indian constitution by the 42nd Amendment?
(a) Secular and Democratic(b) Secular and Socialist(c) Secular and Republic(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. By which Article of Indian Constitution a citizen can go to the Supreme Court for his Fundamental Rights?
(a) Article-31(b) Article—29(c) Article-32(d) Article-10
Ans. (c)
16. By which constitutional Amendment voter’s age was lowered down to 18 years from 21 years?
(a) 48th(b) 57th(c) 61st(d) 63rd
Ans. (c)
17. Which among the following is now not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right of Equality(b) Right of Property(c) Right to Religion(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
18. In which Five-Year–Plan the poverty line was defined?
(a) Seventh Five-Year-Plan.(b) Sixth Five-Year-Plan(c) Eighth Five-Year-Plan(d) Fifth Five-Year-Plan
Ans. (d)
19. The Eighth Five Year Plan was started on—
(a) 1991(b) 1990(c) 1992(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
20. When the planning Commission was started?
(a) June, 1949(b) October, 1951(c) March, 1950(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. One rupee note in India has the signature of—
(a) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India(b) Finance Secretary
(c) Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India(d) Note of these
Ans. (b)
22. Vikram Era was started in—
(a) 19 B.C.(b) 58 B.C.(c) 78 A.D.(d) 73 A.D.
Ans. (b)
24Who has been referred to as the conscience keeper of Gandhiji?
(a) C. Rajgopalachari(b) R. Tagore(c) V. Patel(d) G.K. Gokhale
Ans. (a)
26. Who was the First Governor General of Independent. India?
(a) Lord Mountbatten(b) C. Rajgopalachari(c) J. L. Nehru(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)
27. Tigris river flows through ‘which of the following countries?
(a) Israel(b) Iran(c) Italy(d) Iraq
Ans. (d)
28. BBC is a
(a) broadcasting corporation(b) news agency(c) banking company(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
29. Kroner is the currency of
(a) Sweden(b) Switzerland(c) England(d) Portugal
Ans. (a)
30. Surinam is the new name of—
(a) Dutch Guyana(b) Cameroon(c) Indonesia(d) Papua Guinea
Ans. (a)
Directions (Q. 31-35): Read the passage given below carefully and answer these questions.
PASSAGE
Self poisoned in this fashion, civilization looks as though it might easily decline into a kind of premature senility. With a mind almost atrophied by lack of use, unable to entertain itself and grown so wearily uninterested in the readymade distractions offered from without that nothing but the grossest stimulants of an ever increasing violence and crudity can move it, the democracy of the future will sicken of a chronic and mortal boredom. It will go perhaps, the way the Romans went the Romans who came at last to lose, precise1y as we are doing now, the capacity to distract themselves; the Romans who like us, lived on readymade entertainment in which they had no participation. Their deadly ennui demanded ever more gladiators, more tight rope-walking elephants, more rare and far fetched animals to be slaughtered. Ours would demand no less, but owing to the existence of a few idealists, doesn’t get all it asks for. The most violent forms of entertainment can only be obtained illicitly, to satisfy a taste for slaughter and cruelty you must become a member of Klu Klux Klan: Let us not despair, however; the force of a boredom clamoring to be alleviated may yet prove too much for the idealists.
31. The main, idea of the passage is —
(a) Mind is degenerated(b) Democracy is spoiled because of boredom
(c) Entertainment are illegal(d) Civilizations may become imbecile because of ennui
Ans. (a)
32. Why will future democracy be diseased?
(a) Because of the lack of distractions(b) Because of the lack of entertainment
(c) Because of the degeneration of the mind(d) Because of idealists
Ans. (c)
33. What does the reference to Romans imply?
(a) Idealists are responsible for degeneration(b) Ennui result in decay
(c) Romans wanted entertainment like the modern man(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
34. What is the reference of the writer?
(a) Boredom will be alleviated(b) There will be more participation
(c) Civilization it seems will decay(d) None Of these
Ans. (c)
35. The example of the Romans—
(a) adds to the force of the arguments(b) makes the passage graphic in description
(c) extends the contention(d) serves as a parallel to the main idea
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 36-37): Fill in the blanks to complete the sentences.
36. He jumped as if the scorpion had………… him.
(a) threatened(b) stung(c) bitten(d) brushed
Ans. (b)
37. The doctor had to………… on him to cure him of the disease.
(a) screen(b) inject(c) operate(d) treat
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 38-39): Choose the portion of the sentence having error, if any
38. (a) Because he is learned /(b) so he is /(c) respected by all /(d) no error.
Ans. (b)
39. (a) Shankar is greater /(b) than /(c) any philosophers /(d) no error.
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 40—41): Pick out the nearest correct meaning or synonym of the words given below.
40. CAPTIVATE
(a) repel(b) subjugate(c) dangerous(d) fascinate
Ans. (d)
41. UNGUENT
(a) ointment(b) detergent(c) remnant(d) dish
Ans. (a)
Directions (Q. 42-43): In each sentence below, a group of words has been underlined. Below each four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given. Pick out the one which can substitute the underlined, group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.
42. The centre has decided to take Enron’s arbitration notice head on and chances of out-of-court settlement have seem ruled out
(a) an out-of-court settlement seems ruled out
(b) an out-of-court settlement seems to have been ruled out
(c) an out-of-court settlement seem ruled out
(d) an out-of-court settlement seems to have ruled out
Ans. (c)
43. The finance ministry has initiated, talks with the low and power ministries on an arbitrator being appointed.
(a) for an arbitrator being appointed(b) on the appointment of an arbitrator
(c) to appoint an arbitratorso that an arbitrator be appointed
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 44-45): Choose the most suitable antonym of the given word.
44. ABOMINATE
(a) love(b) loathe(c) abhor(d) despise
Ans. (a)
45. JOCOSE
(a) humorous(b) regulated(c) brief(d) dull
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 46—50): Substitute single words for the following statements.
46. A sad song is a—
(a) ditty(b) dirge(c) knell(d) lay
Ans. (b)
47. A person who goes on horse back —
(a) epicurean(b) sinecure(c) equestrian(d) connoisseur
Ans. (c)
48. A person who is very fond of sensuous pleasures—
(a) philanderer(b) charlatan(c) philistine(d) epicure
Ans. (d)
49. Below the surface—
(a) subterranean(b) abortive(c) surreptitiou(d) venial
Ans. (a)
50. A person with full discretionary powers to act on behalf of a country—
(a) emissary(b) plenipotentiary(c) ambassador(d) envoy
Ans. (c)
General Knowledge Defence Research and Development Organisation DRDO
1. What is the height of the Kutub Minar?
(1) 188 feet(2) 288 feet(3) 388 feet(4) 488 feet
Ans:2
2. Who formed the Home rule League ?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai(2) Subhash Chandra Bose(3) Mahatma Gandhi(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans:4
3. In which movement Mahatma Gandhi was on fast in March 1919?
(1) Jalianwala Bagh massacre(2) Chauri-chaura massacre
(3) Against Rowlatt Act(4) Non-cooperation Movement
Ans:3
4. Who gave the slogan Dilli Chalo?
(1) Bhagat Singh(2) Jawaharlal Nehru(3) Subhash Chandra Bose(4) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans:3
5. ‘Vitamin’ does not help in.
(1) Formation of enzymes in tissues(2) Metabolism(3) Protection from diseases.(4) Digestion
Ans:1
6. Which of the following is not a contaminated water borne disease?
(1) Typhoid(2) Jaundice(3)Cholera(4) Filariasis
Ans:4
7. The valuable element for the human being which is not found in solar system is:
(1) Oxygen(2) Water(3) Nitrogen(4) Sodium chloride
Ans:4
8. Which of the following take part in the election of the President?
(1) Members of the Lok Sabha and the .Rajya Sabha
(2) Members of the Lok Sabba
(3) Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(4) Members of the -Rajya Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha.
Ans:3
9. What is cooking gas?
(1) Methane and Butane.(2) Ethane and Propane.(3) Propane and Butane.(4) Propane and Methan.
Ans:-3
11. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my birth right is related to:
(1) Mahatma Gandhi .(2) Bal GangadharTilak.(3) Lala lajpat Rai.(4) Rabindra nath Tagore.
Ans:-2
12. Which of the following is not an alloy?
(1) Iron(2) Brass(3) Constantan (4)Bronze
Ans:-1
13. A car driver sees the object behind by the help of
(1) Plane mirror.(2)Convex mirror(3) Cylindrical mirror.(4) None of these
Ans:-2
14. The Elephanta waterfall is situated in.
(1) Manipur(2)Assam3) Meghalaya(4) Mizoram
Ans:-3
15. Saffron is produced in
(1) Meghalaya(2) Mizoram(3) Jammu and Kashmir.(4) Arunachal pradesh
Ans:-3
16. The lunar eclipse is caused when
(1) The earth comes between the sun and the moon.
(2) The sun comes between the moon and the earth
(3) The moon comes between the sun and the earth
(4) None of these
Ans:-1
17. When a paper card is drawn from below the glass of water, water
remains at rest. It is due to
(l).Third law of motion.(2) Inertia(3) Friction(4) None of these.
Ans:-2
18. The weight of a badminton cork is,
(1) 4.74to 5.51 gram(2) 4.74 to6.51gram(3)774 to8,51 gram(4) None of these
Ans:-1
19. When was Nagaland formed a state ?
(1)1973(2) 1983(3)1963.(4 )1961
Ans:-3
20. Ozone protects us from
(1)x—rays(2) b rays(3) Ultra violet rays(4)y -rays
Ans:-3
21. Which of the following helps in burning?
(1)Nitrogen(2) Carbon dioxide(3) Carbon(4) Oxygen
Ans:-4
22. In which year the first electric train was started n India?
(1) 1925(2) 1928(3)1935(4)1965
Ans:-1
23. India’s land area is what per cent, of total land area of the world?
(1)2.42%(2)3.5%(3) 16.4%(4) 19.2%
Ans:-1
24. Hemoglobin contains
(1) Copper(2) Iron(3) Cobalt(4) Nickel
Ans:-2
25. What is Mriana Trench?
(1) The largest bay of. the world(2) A city, in USA.(3) The deepest point of the ocean
(4) None of these
Ans:-3
26. Match the following:
A. kaziranga National ParkB. Simlipal ParkC. Gir National ParkD. Corbett National Park
(1) Elephant(ii) Leopard(iii) One horned rhinocerbs.(iv) Lion .
(1)A -(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)(2)A_ (iii) B—(ii) C—(iv) D—(i)
(3)A- (ii) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(i)(4) A-(iv) .B-(iii) C-(i) D-(ii)
Ans:-2
27. The end of a long bone is connected to another bone by
(1) Ligament(2) Tendon(3) Cartilage(4) Muscle
Ans:-1
28. Mahatma Gandhi made the experiment with Satyagraha firstly at
(1) Bardoli(2) Champaran(3) Dandi(4) South Africa
Ans:-2
29. Iron is found most in.
(1)Banana(2) Green vegetables(3) Milk(4) Apple
Ans:-2
30. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?’
Project State
(1) Hirakud Orissa(2) Jaldhaka West Bengal(3) Tehri Dam Uttar Pradesh(4) Vyas Punjab
Ans:-2
31. Milk of Magnesia is :
(1) MgO(2) Mg(OH)2(3)Cu20(4) Hg Br
Ans:-2
32. Which of the following vitamins is stored in liver?
(1) Vitamin A(2) Vitamin C(3) Vitamin D(4) Vitamin K
Ans:-3
33. Electric mercury contains
(1) Mercury at low pressure(2) Mercury at high pressure(3) Neon and mercury(4) None of these
Ans:-3
34. The angle formed between the hands of a watch at 2 : 30 is:
(1)115°(2) 105°(3) 110°(4)120°
Ans:-2
35. Hydrophyte is called
(1) Plant without water(2) Plant without soil .(3) Plant without carbon di oxide.(4) None of these
Ans:-2
36. National Design Institute is situated at
(l) New Delhi(2) Bangalore(3) Ahamedabad(4)Hyderabad
Ans:-1
37. Match the following:
A.. Himsagar ExpressB. Rajdhani ExpressC. Shatabdi ExpressD. Bullet Express
(I) Fastest speed 140 kmph(ii) Air conditioned and high speed
(iii) Magnetic train(iv) Largest distance covererd
(1) A-(i) B—(ii) C—(iii)D{iv)(2)A (iv) B-(ii) C (i) D(iii)
(3)A (iv)B-(iii)C (i) D (ii)(4) A-(i) B-(iii) C(ii) D-(iv)
Ans:-2
38. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(1) President(2) Members of Parliament(3) Citizens of India(4) Parliament
Ans:-1
39. The highest waterfall of India ‘Jog’ is situated ‘in the state:
(1) Uttar Pradesh(2) West Bengal(S) Karnataka(4) Maharashtra
Ans:-3
40. ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas’ is celebrated on
(1)January 1(2) December31(3) November25{4) January 9
Ans:-4
41. Which of the following is a star?
(1) Moon(2) Earth(3) Sun(4) Venus
Ans:-3
42. The original (old)name of Congo Democratic Republic was
(1) Ghana(2) Rhodesia(3) Tanzania(4) Zaire(5) Tongs
Ans:-4
43. Which of the following leaders was known as ‘Desh Bandhu’ before Independence?
(1) S. C. Bose(2) S. N Banerjee(3) Raja Ram Mohan Roy(4) Vipin Chandra Pal(5) None of these
Ans:-5
44. The first man built satellite sent In orbit was—
(1)Soyutz-I(2) Sputnik-I(3)Sahite—I(4)Aryabhatta(5) Illusin—l
Ans:-2
45. The Council of Ministers is responsible to —
(1) President(2) Lak Sabha(3)Rajya Sabha(4) Parliament(5) None of these
Ans:-2
46. Roop Kanwar is related to -
(1) Sati(2) Sports(3) Textiles Manufacture(4 Singing(5.) News Reading
Ans:-1
47. The country having the longest written constitution is —
(I) India(2) Canada(3) Japan(4) Australia(5) None. of these
Ans:-1
48. SaJag Raho’ (Be vigilant) is an Ideal slogan of —
(1) Red Cross(2) Green Peace(3) Scouts(4) National Cadet Corps(5) United Nations
Ans:-3
49. The deficiency of which vitamin causes flow of blood from gums?
(1) Vitamin A.(2)Vitamin B.(3) Vitamin C(4) Vitamin D(5) None of these
Ans:-3
50. Which sea lies between Jordan and Israel?
(1) Red Sea(2) Caspian Sea(3) Dead Sea(4) Black Sea(5) Mediterranean Sea
Ans:-3
Solved Gk for Armed Paper exams
1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?
(a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre(b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre
(c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre(d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre
Ans. (a)
2. Shobha Gurtu is a—
(a) Padmashree(b) Padmavibbushan(c) Padmabhushan(d) Phalke Award Winner
Ans. (a)
3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year—
(a) 1906(b) 1916(c) 1964(d) 1936
Ans. (d)
4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world?
(a) Leningrad(b) Liver pool(c) Sonepur(d) Kharagpur
Ans. (d)
5. ‘Nunamati’ is famous for—
(a) mines of raw iron(b) mines of coal(c) oil refinery(d) mines of mica
Ans. (c)
6. Energy is measured in the same unit as-—
(a) work(b) power(c) momentum(d) force
Ans. (a)
7 The largest gland in human body is—
(a) endocrine(b) Pancreas(c) liver(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. The universal donor is—
(a) O(b) A(c) B(d) AB
Ans. (a)
9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is—
(a) Raipur(b) Bilaspur(c) Raichur(d) Ranchi
Ans. (a)
10. Sphygmomanometer measures—
(a) blood pressure(b) ocean depth(c) magnetic field(d) electric current
Ans. (a)
11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India?
(a) Judges of Supreme Court(b) Election Commissioner(c) Governor(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c)
12. The author of the book ‘Interpreter of Maladies’ is—
(a) Jhumpa Lahiri(b) Arundhati Roy(c) Vikram Seth(d) Geeta Mehta
Ans. (a)
13. Which among the following is a ‘Morning Raga’?
(a) Sohini(b) Bhairavi(c) Kalawati(d) Sarang
Ans. (b)
14. ‘Guernica’ is a famous painting of—
(a) Leonardo da Vinci(b) Michelangelo(c) Picasso(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
15. ‘Last Supper’ is a world famous painting of—
(a) Paul Gauguin(b) Leonardo da Vinci(c) Raphael(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
16. ‘Bhogali Bihu’ is a festival of—
(a) Assam(b) Orissa(c) Gujarat(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is—
(a) Car Nicobar(b) Port Blair(c) Katchtibu(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
18. What does the term Dactology mean?
(a) Study of finger prints for identification(b) Study of physically handicapped persons
(c) System of new words(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
19. Aizawl is the capital of—
(a) Lakshadweep(b) Nagaland(c) Mizoram(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
20. The term ‘Third World’ is related to—
(a) Asian countries(b) Oil producing countries(c) Developed countries(d) Developing countries
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus(b) Habeas Corpus(c) Quó’Warranto(d) Certiorari
Ans. (b)
22. The anode in a dry cell consists of—
(a) Copper(b) Zinc(c) Carbon(d) Graphite
Ans. (c)
23. In which country ‘Greenwich’ is situated?
(a) USA(b) UK(c) Holland(d) India
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?
(a) Convex(b) Concave(c) Spherical(d) Uniform. thickness
Ans. (a)
25. Sound waves are—
(a) longitudinal(b) transverse(c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse
(d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverse
Ans. (a)
IES General Ability Paper (Objective)
1. The planet called the twin of the earth is—
(a) Venus(b) Jupiter(c) Saturn(d) Pluto
Ans. (a)
2. 15 OHMS, 20 OHMS and 30 OHMS resistance is in parallel, then calculate the equivalent resistance—
(a) 65 OHMS(b) 61 OHMS(c) 9/60 OHMS(d) 60/9 OHMS
Ans. (d)
3. Calculate the number of protons, in the nucleus of hydrogen atom—
(a) zero(b) one(c) three(d) four
Ans. (b)
4. Full form of I.S.R.O. is—
(a) India Scientist Research Organization(b) Indian Space Research Organization
(c) International Space Research Organization(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. Dispersion of which colour of rainbow is maximum?
(a) Violet(b) Yellow(c) Red(d) Blue
Ans. (c)
6. In solar system which planet has maximum speed?
(a) Mars
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Ans. (b)
7. Haley-comets will be seen again in which year?
(a) 2062
(b) 2064
(c) 2060
(d) 2066
Ans. (a)
8. In which country maximum languages are spoken?
(a) U.K
(b) U.S.A
(c) India
(d) France
Ans. (c)
9. Khasi and Garo tribes mainly live in
(a) Kerala
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Chota Nagpur
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
10. Which is the hardest substance?
(a) Platinum
(b) Diamond
(c) Gold
(d) Silver
Ans. (b)
11. Which country is known as ‘Land of Thousand Lakes’?
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Venice
(d) Turkey
Ans. (b)
12. Who. invented Television
(a) W. Ramsay
(b) Robert Mallet
(c) J.L. Baird
(d) Jonson
Ans. (c)
13. Where is maximum jute produced?
(a) Mahrashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Delta region of Bengal
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
14. ‘One Bar’ is equal to—
(a) 10-5 Pascal
(b) 10 7 Pascal
(c) 10 5 Pascal
(d) 10 4 Pascal
Ans. (c)
15. Size of ‘Nucleus’ is—
(a) 10 -10 meter
(b) l0 -9 meter
(c) 10 -5 meter
(d) 10 -15 meter
Ans. (d)
15. Heavy water is—
(a) Sea water (H2O + Salt)
(b) D2O
(c) H2O2
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
16. Formulae of ‘alkaline’ is—
(a) CnH2n
(b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH2n+1
(d) CnH2n-1
Ans. (b)
17. Value of-one million will be—
(a) 10 5
(b) 10 6
(c) 10 8
(d) 10 7
Ans. (a)
18. Value of one Avogadro million will be—
(a) 6.023 x 10 -23
(b) 6.023 x 10 6
(c) 6.023 x 10 8
(d) 6.023 x 10 19
Ans. (b)
19. 1 mole is equal to—
(a) 6 x 10 23
(b) 8 x 10 10
(c) 5 x 10 4
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
20. At the N.T.P in any gas volume of one mole is equal to—
(a) 63.5 liter
(b) 10 x 10-5 liter
(c) 22.4 liter
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
21………….. is known as the chief element of core of earth
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Silicon
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
22. What is the formulae of bleaching powder?
(a) CaOCl2
(b) CaOH
(c) Ca (OCl) Cl
(d) CaCl2
Ans. (c)
23. Lunar eclipse happens when—
(a) the sun comes between he moon and the earth
(b) the moon comes between the earth and the sun
(c) the earth comes between the moon and the sun
(d) the mars comes between the earth and the moon.
Ans. (c)
24. The lightning of thunder is seen before hearing its roaring because—
(a) thunder is more near than roaring.
(b) the light can pass through vacuum.
(c) speed of light is more than speed of sound.
(d) peed of sound is more than speed of the light.
Ans. (c)
25. In photosynthesis which gas is left by green plants?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water-vapour
(d) Carbon-dioxide
Ans. (a)
26. Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in, which direction?
(a) North-West direction
(b) North-South direction
(c) North-East direction
(d) South-West- direction
Ans. (b)
27. How far the axis of earth is bowed of its orbital surface?
(a) 23 ½ °
(b) 66 ½ °
(c) 180°
(d) It is not bowed
Ans. (a)
28. Difference to longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15°. What will be the difference in its local time?
(a) No difference
(b) 1 hour
(c) 2 hours
(d) 15 hours
Ans. (a)
29. Air makes pressure—
(a) only downward
(b) only upward
(c) in all direction
(d) it does not make pressure.
Ans. (a)
30. Which of the following is only a star?
(a) Moon
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Sun
Ans. (d)
31. Water that does not make foam quickly with soap is—
(a) soft water
(b) natural water
(c) mineral water
(d) hard water
Ans. (d)
32. Which artery chiefly carries blood from different parts of our body to heart?
(a) Nerves
(b) Arteries
(c) Cells
(d) All these
Ans. (a)
33. According to which Article in the Indian Constitution, Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status?
(a) 368
(b) 370
(c) 371
(d) 356
Ans. (b)
34. Dudhwa National Park is located in—
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (a)
35. Them Dam has been constructed on the river—
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Alaknanda
Ans. (c)
36. Diabetes is a disease affecting—
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Ans. (a)
37. Lightning’s conductor was discovered by—
(a) Graham Bell
(b) Lord Lister:
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Einstein
Ans. (c)
38. Width of Broad Gauge Track on Indian Railways is—
(a) 1000 mm
(b) 1676 mm
(c) 862 mm
(d) 1500mm
Ans. (b)
39. ‘Pongal’ is celebrated in the month of—
(a) March
(b) September
(c) October
(d) January
Ans. (d)
40. ‘Manometer’ is the instrument used to measure –
(a) air pressure
(b) Velocity of sound
(c) Humidity of atmosphere
(d) Speed of a vehicle
Ans. (a)
41. Indian Railways manufactures Wheels and Axles at—
(a) Chittaranjan
(b) Hussainpur (Punjab)
(c) Yelahanka (Bangalore)
(d) Perambur (Chennai)
Ans. (c)
42. In these national awards, with which award Amir Khan honored?
(a) Padma Vibhushan
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Shree
(d) Ashok Chakra
Ans. (c)
43. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
(a) B.N. Kripal
(b) V.N. Khare
(c) S.N. Phukan
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
44. High temperature and low pressure over the Indian subcontinent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian Ocean leading to the in-blowing of the—
(a) south-east monsoon
(b) south-west monsoon
(c) trade winds
(d) westerlies
Ans. (b)
45. During the Indian freedom movement the first great experiment in Satyagraha came in 1917 in—
(a) Bardoli
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Champaran
Ans. (d)
46. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Satyagraha Movement in 1919—
(a) as a protest against atrocities committed at Jallianwala Bagh
(b) as a protest against Rowlatt Act
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans. (c)
47. The Dandi March was undertaken by Gandhi to—
(a) start Satyagraha
(b) break the salt law
(c) press the demand for Poorna Swaraj
(d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
48. Which part of a p1ant respires?
(a) Root
(b) Leaf
(c) Seed
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
49. Convulsions in infants is caused due to the deficiency of—
(a) idoine
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B-6
(d) vitamin C
Ans. (d)
50. How many seats have been allotted to Sikkim in the Lok Sabha?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (d)
1. The ratio of the areas of the in circle and circumcircle of an equilateral triangle is—
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:9
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:3
Ans. (b)
2. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price to the printed price of the book is—
(a) 99 : 125
(b) 55 : 69
(c) 50: 61
(d) 45 : 56
Ans. (d)
3. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are scholarship holders, the percentage of the school students who are not scholarship holders, is—
(a) 78
(b) 80
(c) 56
(d) 70
Ans. (a)
4. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together. If C alone can finish the work in 12 days, then together all will finish the work in—
(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (b)
5. Taps A and B can fill a bucket in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both are opened and A is closed after 3 minutes, how much further time would it take for B to fill the bucket?
(a) 8 mm. 5 sec
(b) 8 mm. 25 sec
(c) 7 mm. 45 sec
(d) 7 mm. 15 sec
Ans. (c)
6. A train -110 m long passes a man, running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that of the train in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is—
(a) 54 km/hr
(b) 72 km/hr
(c) 60 km/hr
(d) 66 km/hr
Ans. (c)
7. A boat takes 4 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to point A upstream. If the velocity of the stream is 2 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 4 kmph, whit is the distance between A and B?
(a) 8 km
(b) 9 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 6 km
Ans. (d)
8. A man covered a-distance of 2000 km in 18 hours partly by bus at 72 kmph and partly by train at 160 kmph. The distance covered by bus is—.
(a) 860 km
(b) 640 km
(c) 1280 km
(d) 720 km
Ans. (d)
9. The difference between simple interest and compound. Interest on Rs. 1200 for one year at 10% per annum, reckoned half yearly is—
(a) Rs. 8.80
(b) Rs. 3
(c) Nil
(d) Rs. 13.20
Ans. (b)
10. When simplified, the product
(2 – 1/2) (2 – 3/5) (2- 5/7)…….(2 -997/999) is equal to
(a) 5/999
(b) 1001/999
(c) 1001 /3
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
11. The 1eastperfect square number which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6,and 8 is—
(a) 900
(b) 1600
(c) 2500
(d) 3600
Ans. (d)
12. If cost of oil is increased by 25% then a house should decrease by what percent her consumption of oil so that it does not affect her expenditure in this commodity?
(a) By 20 %
(b) By 25 %
(c) By 16 %
(d) By 20 %
Ans. (d)
13. Ratio of Ram and Shyam’s income is 7:17 and ratio of Shyam and Sohan’s income is
7:17. If Ram’s income is Rs. 490 then what is the income of Sohan?
(a) 490
(b) 2890
(c) 2790
(d) 1190
Ans. (b)
14. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one rupee note, five rupee notes and ten rupee notes. The numbers of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 75
(d) 45
Ans. (b)
15. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculate, 50% of the remaining are graduates and, remaining 180 are post- graduates. How many employees are graduates?
(a) 360
(b) 240
(c) 180
(d) 300
Ans. (d)
16. What must Be added to each term of the ratio 49:68 so that it become3:4?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
17. A, B and C enter into a partnership with a capital in which A’s contribution is Rs. 10,000. If out of a total profit of Rs. 1000, A gets Rs. 500 and B gets Rs. 300, then C’s capital is —
(a) Rs. 4000
(b) Rs. 5000
(c) Rs. 6000
(d) Rs. 9000
Ans. (a)
18. The smallest whole number which is divisible by 3 and also by the next two greater prime numbers is—
(a) 15
(b) 21
(c) 60
(d) 105
Ans. (a)
19. Rs. 1980 are divided among A, B, C so that half of A’s part, one- third of B’s part and one-sixth of C’s part are equal. Then, B’s part is—
(a) Rs. 660
(b) Rs. 360
(c) Rs. 1080
(d) Rs. 540
Ans. (d)
20. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 47000 for a business. If A subscribes Rs. 7000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C then out of a total profit of Rs. 9400, B receives—
(a) Rs. 1737.90
(b) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 3000
(d) Rs. 4400
Ans. (c)
21. Karnataka Express leaves Bangalore at 5 p.m. and reaches Dharmavaram at 9 p.m. Kurla Express leaves Dharmavaram at 7 p.m. and reaches Bangalore at 10.30 p.m. What time do the trains cross one another?
(a) 8.26 p.m.
(b) 8 p.m.
(c) 7.36 p.m.
(d) 7.56 p.m.
Ans. (a)
22. If the height of the cone is doubled then its volume is increased by—
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
Ans. (a)
23. The value of [log 3/5 +log 5/36 +log 12] is equa1 to —
(a) log 5
(b) log 3
(c) log 2
(d) log 0
Ans. (d)
24. Two years ago a man was 6 times as older as his son. In 18 years, he will be twice as
Older as his son. Their present ages are—
(a) 32 years, 7 years
(b) 34 years, 9 years
(c) 36 years, 11 years
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
25. If (x—2) is a factor of x2+3qx— 2q then the value of q is—
(a) 2
(b) —2
(c) 1
(d) —1
Ans. (d)
26. A dishonest dealer sells his goods at the cost price and still earns a profit of 25% by under weighing. What weight does he use for a kg?
(a) 750 gms
(b) 800 gms
(c) 825 gms
(d) 850 gms
Ans. (b)
27. A Railway Refreshment Room of a station has provisions for 20 weeks for catering to 750 passenger’s daily average.. If at the end of 4 weeks daily average of passengers is increased by 450, how long will remaining provision last?
(a) 10 weeks
(b) 15 weeks
(c) 11 weeks
(d) 16 weeks
Ans. (a)
28. If a train runs at 40 kmph, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes but if it runs at 50 kmph, it is late by 5 minutes only. The correct time for the train to complete its journey is—
(a) 13 min.
(b) 15 mm.
(c) 19 mm.
(d) 21 mm,
Ans. (d)
29. A merchant marks his goads at Rs. 300 and allows a discount of 25%. If he still gains 12.5% then the cost of article is—
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 240
(c) Rs. 200
(d) Rs. 260
Ans. (c)
30. If four examiners can examine a certain number of answer books in 8 days by working 5 hrs a day, for how many hours a day would 2 examiners have to work in order to examine twice the number of answer books in 28 days?
(a) 6. hours
(b) 7 ½ hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 9 hours
Ans. (a)
31. Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 4 kmph and 4.5 kmph respectively What time will they take to be 8.5. km apart, if they walk in the same direction—
(a) 12 hrs
(b) 14 hrs; 15 mi
(c) 17 hrs.
(d) 12 hrs. 55 mm.
Ans. (c)
32. If 8 tan x = 15, then value, of (sin x — cos x) is—
(a) 8/17
(b) 17/7
(c) 1/17
(d) 7/17
Ans. (d)
33. A man sold goods at a profit of 20%. If he buys it for 20% less and’ sells it for Rs. 5 less, then he gets 25% profit. Find the cost price of the goods.
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 25
(d) Rs. 40
Ans. (c)
34. What is the H.C.F. of a2b2 c6 b3 c8a4 and a8b6c2?
(a) a4b4c4
(b) a2b2c2
(c) a2b3c2
(d) a2b3c3
Ans. (b)
35. In the mixture of 20 kg milk and water, 15% is water. If 5 liters water is added to it, then what will be percentage of milk in the mixture?
(a) 10 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 15 %
(d) 32 %
Ans. (d)
36. If income of x is more than 20% of y’s income, then income of y is what per cent lesser than x’s income?
(a) 25 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 16 2/3 %
(d) 33 1/3 %
Ans. (c)
37. A man sold two horses for Rs. 6000 each, in this transaction he gets 10% profit in first horse and 10% loss in second horse. What does he get in the whole transaction?
(a) No profit no loss
(b) 1 % profit
(c) 1 % loss
(d) 0.1 % loss
Ans. (c)
38. 22x = 256, then what, is the value of x?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(b) 3
Ans. (a)
39. If addition of roots is, 11 and multiplication of roots are 30, and then calculate the quadratic equation?
(a) x 2—11 x—30 = 0
(b) x 2—11 x + 30 = 0
(c) x 2—30 x + 11 = 0
(d) x 2 + 11 x + 30 = 0
Ans. (b)
40. Find the difference in compound interest and simple interest of Rs. 400 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years.
(a) Re. 1
(b) Rs. 2
(c) Rs. 3
(d) Rs. 4
Ans. (a)
41. Equation 2x2 — 5x + 30 = 0, find the root?
(a) Root is teal and dissimilar
(b) Not real root
(c) Root is real and equal
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
42. If log 2 = 7, then the value of log 80—
(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 22
(d) 14
Ans. (c)
43. Find the distance between the dots (1,2) and (3,5) —
(a) 6
(b) 13
(c) 24
(d) 13
Ans. (d)
44. In the given equation 5x + 3y -19 = 0, then find the value of slope—
(a) +5/3
(b) – 5/3
(c) -3/5
(d) – 5/4
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following has the lowest value?
(a) 3/4
(b) 5/6
(c) 7/9
(d) 11/13
Ans. (a)
46. In what time at the rate of 5% per annum from simple interest any principal will be increased by 40 %?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 8 years
Ans. (d)
47. A train running at the speed of 60 kmph crosses a pole in 15 seconds.
The length of the train is—
(a) 120 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 250 m
(d) 200 m
Ans. (c)
48. The diameter of a circle is 8 cm. A quarter part of the circle is folded as a cone The height of. cone is—
(a) 6cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 2cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
49. 55% of a sum of money is Rs. 1.1. The sum of money is:
(a) Rs. 20
(b) Rs. 2
(c) Rs. 11
(d) Rs. 110
Ans. (b)
50. 33 ½ % of A= l.5 of B= 1/8 of C. Then A: B: C: is:
(a) 24:2:9
(b) 2:9:24
(c) 9:2:24
(d) 9:24:2
Ans. (c)
b goods guard previous exam papers
RRB Exam Previous Year model Question papers with Answers
Directions (1—8): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested. one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word In each case.
In the thirties and forties Geography was subject in schools. Children spent hours tracing maps and about strange places, peoples and customs. Harvard University its Geography department after World War I I. A string of leading universities in the United States 4 .the suit. Geography has been traced with the racist brush and no one wants to be .
David S Leander, Professor of History and Economics at Harvard University makes a forceful for Geography in his book “The Wealth and, Poverty of Nations”. Geography. h argues. tells the unpleasant truth that nature is unfair, unequal in Its! and that its unfairness are not easily 8. For, Leander there is nothing racist in a Geography that temperature of the air, the volume or timing of rainfall or the topography.
1. (1) resourceful (2) decent (3) boring (4) famous
Ans:-3
2. (1) knowledge (2) drawings (3) ignored (4) learned
Ans:-2
3. (1) established (2) nurtured (3) developed . (4) abolished
Ans:-1
4. (1) followed (2) cleared
(3) prepared (4) wore
Ans:-1
5. (1) learned. (2) Contaminated
(3) Neglected (4) prepared.
Ans:-3
6. (1) decision (2) impeachment
(3) lesson (4) plea
Ans:-4
7. (1) behaviour (2) favours
(3) Sources (4) deal
Ans:-3
8. (1) sensed (2) recycled (3) over-ruled (4) undress
Ans:-1
9. Which of the following has the jurisdiction to hear about Fundamental Rights ?
(1) Supreme Court (2) High court
(3) Subordinate Court
(4) None of these
Ans:-1
10. Solar eclipse, occurs when
(1) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.
(2) The Sun comes between the Earth and moon.
(3) The Earth comes between the Sun and moon,
(4) None of these.
Ans:-1
11. What was the main occupation of the early Aryans in Rig Vedic period?
(1 ) Sculpture
(2) Animal husbandry
(3) Agriculture (4) Trade
Ans:-2
12. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Goitre is caused due to deficiency. of— Vitamin D.
(2) Diabetes Is caused due to deficiency of — insulin
(3) Rickets is caused due to deficiency of – Vitamin A
(4) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of— Iodine
Ans:-3
13. Six coins of gold and silver of equal weights are melted and new coins are cast. The ratio of gold and silver in one of the coins is 2: 1, in another two coins 3 : 5 and 7:5 In the remaining corns. What will be the ratio between gold and silver respectively in the new coins?’
(1) l2:11 (2)1:1 (3) 19: 17 (4) 42 : 25
Ans:-3
14. Which of the following does not contain carbohydrate?
(1) Potato (2) Maize (3) Banana (4) Pea
Ans:-4
15, Where is Namdafa Wild life Sanctuary located which is full of flora, fauna and avian with surprising dangers?
(1) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans:-4
16. The largest river island in the world. Majuli is located, in which of the following districts of Assam?
(1) Jorht (2) Dibrugarh
(3) Dhemaji (4) Tinsukia
Ans:-1
17. A person cannot see an object placed at a distance’ of less than
25 cm. The person suffers from.
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Myopia
(3) Longsighted ness
(4) None of these
Ans:-3
18. In photosynthesis light
(1) Is converted into kinetic energy
(2) Is converted into chemical energy
(3) Does not react with CO2 add water directly
(4) Acts as a catalyst -.
Ans:-2
19. Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” during
(1) Non-Cooperation Movement
(2) Civil Disobedience Movement
(3) Quit India Movement
(4) Industrial Satyagraha
Ans:-3
20. A black body emits
(1) Radiations of all wavelengths.
(2) No radiation.
(3) Radiation of one wavelength.
(4) Radiation of long wavelength .
Ans:-2
21. The depth of seals measured in:
(1) Feet (2) fathom (3) nautical (4) mile
Ans:-2
22. Erie silk is produced by Philosemia Resina silk worm.The worm is cultured in the plant of:
(1) castor (2)oak
(3) papaya (4) silk cotton.
Ans:-1
23. Which of the following rights is a political right?
(1)the right to be elected
(2) The right to life
(3) The right to have education
(4) The right to form association
Ans:-1
24. Which of the following two places are connected by the road in India, which is constructed on the highest altitude in the world?
(1) Leh and Manali (2) Jammu and Srinagar (3) Sikkim and Darjeeling (4) Srinagar and Leh
Ans:-1
25. Which part of the camera is equivalent to the retina of human eye?
(1) Lens, (2) Film
(3) Aperture (4) Shutter
Ans:-2
26. The largest island of the Asian Continent is:
(1) Indonesia (2) Borneo
(3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar
Ans:-3
27. When one ascends in the atmosphere the air becomes—-gradually.
(1) Rarer (2) dense
(3) Hot (4) obvious’
Ans:-1
28. During respiration carbohydrate is disintegrated into:
(1) Glycogen
(2) Carbon dioxide and water
(3) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
(4) Glucose
Ans:-1
29. When the door of refrigerator is opened in a closed room, then:
(1) Room turns to be cooler
(2) The temperature of room falls
(3) The temperature of room is not affected
(4) The room becomes hotter gradually
Ans:-4
30. Who is called the First Citizen of India?
(1) President of India
(2) Prime Minister of India
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Dr. BR Ambedkar
Ans:-1
31. Panini was a famous scholar of:
(1) Language and grammar
(2) Ayurveda
(3) Astronomy (4) Biology
Ans:-1
32. Which of the following is not a mineral?
(1) Slate (2) Limestone
(3) Coal (4) Calcite
Ans:-4
33.The state -of rising prices due to an enhancement in the quantity of money in circulation, termed as:
(1) Inflation
(2) Deflation -
(3) Demonetization
(4) Devaluation
Ans:-1
34. Name the minerals that are essential for hone and teeth formation in human:
(1) Calcium-and Phosphorus (2) Magnesium and Potassium
(3) Sodium and Iron (4) Iodine and Sulphur
Ans:-1
35. Ripe mangoes contains:
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E
Ans:-3
36. In which one of the following places, the boiling point of water is the highest?
(1) Dead Sea (2) Mt. Everest (3) Nile Delta (4) Sunder ban Delta
Ans:-2
37. The primary colours used in a colour TV are: -
(I) Green, Yellow, Violet
(2) Violet, Red, Orange
(3) Blue, Green, Red
(4) Blue, Green, Violet
Ans:-3
38. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
(1) Freedom to manage religious- affairs.
(2) Free and compulsory education up to primary stage.
(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories.
(4) freedom to propagate religion.
Ans:-2
39. The chief merit of a federal government is that It:
(1) Ensures a strong government at the centre
(2) Integrates national unity with regional autonomy
(3) Keeps a check on the multiparty Systems
(4) Is very less expensive
Ans:-2
40. The First Assamese to become the President of India was-:
(1) Satyeda Anowara Talmur.
(2) Gopinath Bordoloi .
(3) Fakaruddln Ali Ahmed.
(4) Syed Abdul Malik .
Ans:-3
41. Match List – I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List—I
a. Amjad Ali Khan
b.Ali Hussain
c.Hari Prasad Chaurasia
d. Alla Rakha
List—II
1. Flute
2. Sarod
3. Tabla
4. Shehnai
Codes
A b e d
(1)2 1 3 4
(2)4 2 1 3
(3)2 4 1 3
(4)1 2 3. 4
Ans:-3
42. A dentist’s mirror is a:
(1) Cylindrical mirror (2) plane mirror
(3) Convex mirror (4) concave mirror
Ans:-4
43. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?
(1) Assam (2) Karnataka (3) Andhra Pradesh(4) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans:-2
44. The Gandhara School of Sculpture was a blend of:
(1) Indian and Greek styles (2) Indian and Persian styles
(3) Purely Indian in origin (4) Indian and South East Asian style.
Ans:-1
45. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura?
(I) Hindi (2) Mizo (3) Khasi (4) Bengali
Ans:-4
46. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?
(1) Eight (2)Ten
(3) Twelve (4) Fourteen
Ans:-2
47. In which year was the Capital of Assam shifted to Dispur from Shillong ?
(1) 1974 (2)1978
(3) 1985 (4) 1960
Ans:-1
48. Identify the man-made element:
(1) Carbon (2) Gold
(3) Californium (4) Calcium
Ans:-3
49. A man- borrows Rs. 200 at 5% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs. 50. At the end of 4 years he owes:
(1) Rs. 27.59 (2) Rs. 28.10.
(3) Rs. 27.81 (4) Rs. 28.14.
Ans:-1
50. The three temples, the Shivadol, the Vishnudol and the Devldol are situated at which place of Assam?
(1) Silghat (2) Sibsagar (3)Sadiya (4)Sarthebari
Ans:-2
solved numerical ability test
MODEL QUESTIONS NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
Mathematics, Quantitative Aptitude and numerical ability objective questions
1. A man’s working hours a day were increased 20% and his wages per hour were increased by 15%. By how much per cent were his daily earning increased?
A. 38%
B. 35%
C. 5%
D. 40%
Ans. (A)
Directions (2-3): Refer to the information below and answer the questions that follow:
85 children went to an amusement park where they could ride on Roller- coaster, Giant wheel and Toy train. 20 of them took all the three rides and 55 of them took at least two of three rides. Each ride cost Rs. 10 and total receipt of the amusement park from children was Rs. 1,450.
2. How many children did not try any of these rides?
A. 5
B.10
C. 12
D. 15
Ans. (D)
3. How many children took exactly one ride?
A. 20
B. 18
C. l5
D. 10
Ans. (C)
4. One typewriter marked for sale at Rs. 480, dealer allows discount of 10% and yet makes profit of 8%. What should his gain be if no discount were allowed?
A. Rs. 80
B. Rs. 38.40
C. Rs. 20
D. Rs. 48
Ans. (A)
5. 25 men with 10 boys can do in 6 days as much work as 21 men with 30 boys can do in 5 days. How many boys must help 40 men to do the same work in 4 days?
A. 5 boys
B. 40 boys
C. 20 boys
D. 10 boys
Ans. (D)
6. A and B enter into partnership with capitals as 5:6. At the end 8 months A withdraws. If they receive profit in the ratio of 5:9, find how long B’s capital was used?
A. 4 months
B. 8 months
C. 12 months
D. None of these
Ans. (C)
7. A man invested Rs. 14,400 in the hundred rupees shares of a company at 20% premium. If the company declared 5% dividend at the end of the year how much does he get?
A. Rs.720
C. Rs. 500
B. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 650
Ans. (B)
8. A train started with 540 passengers. At the first station 1/ 9 of them got down and 24 got up. On its second station 1/8 of the passengers then existing got down and 9 got up. With how many passengers it reached the third station?
A. 500
B. 450
C. 540
D. 550
Ans. (B)
9. If the rate of dividend is 5%, find the income by purchasing 20 shares of Rs. 50 each at Rs. 50.
A. Rs. 60
B Rs. 50
C. Rs. 40
D. Rs. 30
Ans. (B)
10. The price of sugar is increased by 10%. By what percentage one must cut down his consumption of sugar, so that no extra amount has to be spent on it?
A 9 1/11 %
B. 11 1/9 %
C. 10 %
D. 12 %
Ans. (A)
10. (11.6 + 0.8) (13.5 ÷ 2) = ?
A. 98
B. 99
C. 100
D. None of these
Ans. (D)
11. If in any year, other than leap year, the 28th of February is a Monday, what will be the day on 2nd January?
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Sunday
D. Friday
Ans. (A)
12. The air consists of 79.2% of Nitrogen, 20.7% of Oxygen, 0.08% of other light gases and the remaining gas is Argon. Find out the volume of the air consisting one cubic meter of Argon.
A. 500 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 5 m3
D. 5000 m3
Ans. (D)
13. A cyclist rides 24 km at 16 kmph and further 36 km at 15 kmph. Find his average
speed for the journey.
A. 15.38 kmph
B. 16 kmph
C. 15.5 kmph
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
14. A sum of Rs. 1,550 was lent partly at 5% and partly at simple interest. The total interest received after 3 years was Rs. 300. The ratio of Money lent at 5% to 8% is:
A. 5:8
B. 8:5
C. 31:6
D. 16:15
Ans. (D)
15. A father left a will of Rs. 16,400 for his two sons aged 17 and 18 years. They must get equal amounts when they are 20 years. at 5% compound interest. Find the present share of the younger son.
A. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 8,200
B. Rs. 8,400
D. Rs. 10,000
Ans. (A)
16. What will be the value of 47/10,000?
(a) 0.00047
(c) 0.0470
(b) 0.0047
(d) 0,4700
Ans. (b)
17. In 15 years, a sum of money put on simple interest trebles itself, the rate of interest per annum would be—
(a) l6 2/5 %
(b) 13 1/3 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 50 %
Ans. (b)
18. The selling price of 12 articles is equal to the cost price of 15 articles. The gain per cent is—
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
Ans. (a)
19. What will be the value of (9856 x 856 + 9856 x 144)?
(a) 985600
(b) 98560
(c) 956000
(d Non’ of these
Ans. (c)
20. The price of a commodity is first increased by 30% and then decreased by 30%. What will be the effect on its price?
(a) 9% decrease
(b) Data inadequate
(c) 9% increase
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. If 5 men and 8 women can do a piece of work in 5 days and 6 men and 3 women can also do the same work in 5 days then 2 men and 5 women will do this. work in—
(a) 2 3/11 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 11 days
(d) 15 days
Ans. (c)
22. A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B alone can do it in 10 days. B works at it for 5 days and then leaves. A alone can finish the remaining work in—
(a) 6 ½ days
(b) 7 ½ days
(c) 8 days
(d) 9 days
Ans. (b)
23. Find the HCF of (9x2 – 4) and (6x2 -5x-6)
(a) 3x+2
(b) 4x+5
(c) 2x+3
(d) 3x-2
Ans. (a)
24. The diameter of a circular wheel is 168 cm. How far will it travel in 100 revolutions?
(a) 52800 cm
(b) 264 cm
(c) 4620 cm
(d) 9800 cm
Ans. (a)
25. If 1/x+1/y=5, 1/x+1/y=6,1/y+1/z=7, then find the values of x, y and z respectively.
(a) 1/2, 1/3, -1/4
(b) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4
(c) -1/2, 1/3, 1/4
(d) 1/2, 1/3, 1/4
Ans. (d)
26. The present age of Sohanlal is four times the present age of his son. Four years hence, the sum of their age’s wil1 be 43. What is the present age of his son?
(a) 15 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 12 years
Ans. (c)
27. Find the product of the roots of the equation – 3 – 7x + 6x2 = 0
(a) -2
(b) ½
(c) 2
(d) – 1/2
Ans. (d)
28. 9×16+224-56+1/2 -1/4 =?
(a) 37 23/28
(b) 312 1/4
(c) 1473/4
(d) 1481/4
Ans. (b)
29. 0.05 x 0.05 x 0.05 — 0.04 x 0.04 x 0.04 =
0.05 x 0.05 ÷ 0.002 + 0.04 x 0.04
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.09
(d) 0.9
Ans. (a)
30. Out of the numbers given below, by which least number should 176 be multiplied so that it will be a perfect square?
(a) 8
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
31. How many days are there from 2nd January, 1995 to 15th March, 1995?
(a) 73
(b) 74
(c) 71
(d) 72
Ans. (a)
32. The two sides of a right triangle containing the right angle are 15 cm and 8 cm. The radius of its circumcircle is—
(a) 4.75 cm
(b) 2.375 cm
(c) 8.5 cm
(d) 11.5 cm
Ans. (c)
33. The angles of a heptagon are in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6:7: 8. The smallest angle is—
(a) 30 °
(b) 22 ½ °
(c) 12°
(d) 24°
Ans. (a)
34. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at E such that AE= 2.4 cm, BE = 3.2 cm and CE = 1.6cm. The length of DE is—
(a) 4.8 cm
(b) 6.4tm
(c) 1.6 cm
(d) 3.2 cm
Ans. (a)
35. An edge of a cube measures 10 cm. If the largest possible cone is cut out of this cube, then the volume of the cone is—
(a) 261.9 cm3
(b) 262.7 cm3
(c) 260 cm3
(d) 260.9 cm3
Ans. (a)
36. Mac has £3 more than Ken, but then Ken wins on the horses and trebles his money, so that he has now £2 more than the Original amount of money that the two boys’ had between them. How much money did Mac and Ken have between them before Ken’s win?
(a) £13
(b) £15
(c) £9
(d) £11
Ans. (a)
37. Each boy contributed rupees equal to the number of girls and each girl contributed rupees equal to the number of boys in a class of 60 students. If the total contribution thus collected is Rs. 1600, how many boys are there in the class?
(a) 50
(b) Data inadequate
(c) 30
(d) 25
Ans. (b)
38. Kamal got married 6 years ago.
Today her age is 1/10 times her age at the time of marriage. Her son’s age is 1/10 times her age. Her son’s age is—
(a) 4 yrs
(b) 5 yrs
(c) 2 yrs
(d) 3 yrs
Ans. (d)
39. The current birth rate per thousand is 32, whereas corresponding death rate is 11 per thousand. The net growth rate in terms of population in per cent is given by—
(a) 21%
(b) 2:1% .
(c) 0.021%
(d) 0.0021%
Ans. (b)
40. If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log210 is—
(a) 3.3220
(b) 5
(c) 0.3322
(d) 3.2320
Ans. (a)
1. Metro Rail was launched in December 2002 in New Delhi between which two Stations?
(a) Shahadra – Tis Hazari
(b) I.S.B.T -Shahadra
(c) Centra1 Secretariat- I.S.B.T.
(d) Tis Hazari -Central Secretariat
Ans. (a)
2. Which is the Capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli?
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Daman
(d) Silvassa
Ans. (d)
3. Durand Line is the International Boundary between—
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) India and China
(d) U.S.A. and Mexico
Ans. (b)
4. Panchatantra was written by—
(a) Jaidev
(b) Ved Vyas
(c) Bhavbhuti
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (d)
5. The headquarter of North Western Railway zone is—
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jaipur
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
6. J&K leader , Sri Mufti Mohammad Sayeed belongs to which political party?
(a) People’s Democratic Party
(b) Congress
(c) Jammu Kashmir
(d) All Party Hurriyat Conference
Ans. (a)
7. Famous Indian Cartoonist, who died in December, 2002 was—
(a) R.K. Laxman
(b) Pran
(c) Abu Abraham
(d) Sudhir Dar
Ans. (a)
8. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is standing between F and C, A is standing between E and D, F is standing to the left of D. Who is standing between A and F.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Ans. (c)
9. P walks forward 10 m and then walks 10 m right. Again turning to the left and again he walks 5, 15 and 15m respectively.
At present time how far is he standing from his starting place?
(a) 20 m
(b) 23 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 5 m
Ans. (d)
10. Which name will come at last in telephone directory?
(a) Sita
(b) Sikand
(c) Sarveshwar
(d) Shyam
Ans. (a)
11. If in word ‘DISTURBANCE’ first letter is interchanged with last letter, second with tenth and others according to this rule are changed then in new word which 1ette will come after ‘T’?
(a) I
(b) S
(c) U
(d) N
Ans. (b)
12. In .a class of 49 students Ramesh’s rank is 18th. What is his rank from bottom?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 32
Ans. (d)
13. In the numbers from 100 to 1000 how, many times digit ‘1’ comes at tens place?
(a) 9
(b) 900
(c) 10
(d) 90
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 14—16): Six slabs of a cube is coloured as black, brown, red and white and blue that
1. Red is in front of black
2. Green is in between red and black
3. Blue is near to white
4. Brown is near to blue
5. Red is in bottom
Ans. (a)
14. .Which colour is, in front of brown?
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
15. Which colour is in front of green?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Brown
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
16. Which three colours of the following meet on the corner of cube?
(a) Red, Black, Green
(b) Black, White, Blue
(c) White, Green, Red
(d) Brown, White, Blue
Ans. (b)
17. Kailash indicating to an old ‘man told, “His son is my Son’s uncle.” How is Kailash related to that old man?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Son
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
18. If X is the brother of the son of” Y’s son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Nephew
(d) Grandson
Ans. (d)
19. If x means ÷ , means x, ÷ means + and + means —, then value of
(3—15÷l9) x 8+6?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) – 1
Ans. (c)
20. Arrange the fol1owing in a logical order.
(1) Col1eege
(2) Child
(3) Salary
(4) School
(5) Employment
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
21. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the same day next week is a festival. Today is. Sunday. What will be the day just after festival?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 22—26): Find the missing terms.(?) in the series.
22. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127
(a) 30
(c) 47
(b) 31
(d) 52
Ans. (b0
23. 0, ?, 8, 15, 24
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
24. 6, 12, 21,?, 48
(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 33
Ans. (d)
25. 7, 11, 13, 17,?, 23, 25
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 18
Ans. (a)
26. 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, 48?
(a) 58
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 66
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 27—31): Find the odd one:
27. Bear, kola-drink, Soda water, Milk
(a) Bear
(b) Kola-drink
(c) Soda, water
(d) Milk
Ans. (d)
28. Snake, Lizard, Whale fish, Crocodile
(a) Snake
(b) Lizard
(c) Whale
(d) Crocodile
Ans. (b)
29. Ranchi, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bangalore
(a) Ranchi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Nagpur
(d) Bangalore
Ans. (c)
30. 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686
(a) 2346
(b) 5686
(c) 4566
(d) 1236
Ans. (b)
31. Fingers, Palms, Wrist, Knee
(a) Fingers
(b) Palms
(c) Wrist
(d) Knee
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 32—36): Three words have been given in the following questions. First two words to the left : : is related in a way. Find that word from the given alternatives who in relation as same to the right of
32. Carpenter : Saw : Tailor ?
(a) Cloth
(b) Needle
(c) Sewing
(d) Measurement
Ans. (b)
33. Butter : Milk : Book ?
(a) Paper
(c) Printing
(b) Chapter
(d) Writer
Ans. (b)
34. Court : Justice : School :
(a) Teacher
(b) Headmaster
(c) Student
(d) Education
Ans. (d)
35. Laugh : Enjoyment : Weep: ?
(a) Baby
(b) Punishment
(c) Remorse
(d) Grief
Ans. (d)
36. Patrolling : Safety : Insurance:?
(a) Money
(b) Protection
(c) Policy
(d) Finance
Ans. (b)
37. Study the trend in columns and identify the missing (?) number
6 8 15
3 2 5
4 3 ?
8 12 9
(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 3
(d) 6
Ans. (c)
38. If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will he written in that language?
(a) 455978
(b) 544978
(c) 554978
(d) 733961
Ans. (a)
39. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
40. If in a language eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, then With what a child will write n that language?
(a) Eraser
(b) Box
(c) Pencil
(d Sharpener
Ans. (d)
41. If in language finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle, ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, then in that language, what an illiterate man will put to mark his signature?
(a) Thumb
(b Ankle
(c) Knee
(d) Toe
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 42—46): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1. Five friends P, Q, R, . S and T traveled to five different cities
Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
2. The person who traveled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
3. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
4. S traveled by boat whereas T traveled by train.
5. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
42. Which of the following combinations of persons and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) P-Bus
(b) Q-Aeroplane
(c) R-Car
(d T-Boat
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following destinations is correct for ‘S’?
(a) Chennai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following combination place and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) Delhi-Bus
(b) Calcutta-Aeroplane
(c) Hyderabad-Bus
(d) Bangalore-Car
Ans. (a)
45. The person travelling to Delhi went by which transport?
(a) Bus
(b) Train
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Car
Ans. (b)
46. Who travelled to Delhi?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (c)
47. A person travels by his bicycle a distance of 50 km. He travels with the speed of 12.5 km/hr. After every 12.5 km., he takes a rest for 20 minutes. How much time will he take to complete the distance?
(a) 4 hours 20 minutes
(b) 5 hours 20 minutes
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
Ans. (c)
48. A and B walks on a circular path whose circumference is 35 km. They started walking from same place in the same direction with a uniform speed of ‘A’ is 4 km. per hour and speed of ‘B’ is 5 km. per hour. After how much time will they meet again?
(a) 15 hours
(b) 21 hours
(c) 35 hours
(d) 42 hours
Ans. (c)
49. Radius of a wheel is 6.5 m. How many spin will it take to complete the distance of 11 km?
(a) 28000
(b) 7000
(c) 4000
(d) 5500
Ans. (b)
50. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km. per hour?
(a) 7.2
(b) 3.6
(c) 10
(d) 8.4
Ans. (a)
NDA Papers Free Download Sample Paper
1. Ashok started a business investing Rs.25, 000. After three months Vinod joined him with a capital of Rs.30, 000. If at the end of the year they make a profit of Rs. 19000, what will be Ashok’s share in it?
(a) Rs.5, 000
(b) Rs.10, 000
(c) Rs.9, 000
(d) Rs.8, 000
Ans. (b)
2. A boat takes 9 hours to travel a distance upstream and takes 3 hours to travel the same distance downstream. If the speed of the boat is 4 km per hour in still water, what is the velocity of the stream?
(a) 4 km/hour
(b) 3 km/hour
(c) 6 km/hour
(d) None .of these
Ans. (d)
3. Twelve men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (a)
4. The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest earned on a. sum of money at the end of the second year at the rate of 4% per annum is Rs.16. What is the principal?
(a) Rs.l0, 000
(b) Rs.16, 000
(c) Rs.20, 000
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. The average monthly salary of 20 employees in an organization is Rs.1500. If the Manager’s salary is added the average monthly salary increases by Rs.l00. What is the Manager’s monthly salary?
(a) Rs.2000
(b) Rs.2400
(c) Rs.3600
(d) Rs.4800
Ans. (c)
6. In a library, 40% books are in English, 40% of the remaining books are in Hindi and the remaining books are in regional languages. If there are 4800 books in Hindi, what is the total number of books in the library.
(a) 12,000
(b) 24,000
(c) 28,000
(d) 20,000
Ans. (d)
7. A circular cylindrical iron’ piece of radius 14 cm and height 20 cm is moulded into a solid cone with the same radius of the base. What is the height of the cone?
(a) 36 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 60 cm
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
8. A person invests money in three different schemes for 6 years, 10 years and 12 years at 10%, 12% and 15% respectively. At the completion of the duration of each scheme, he gets the same amount. What is the ratio of his investments?
(a) 6:3:2
(b) 2:3:4
(c) 3:4:6
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
9. The rectangle has width a and length. If the width is decreased by 20% and the length is increased by 10%, then what is the new area?
(a) 0.88 ab
(b) 0.92 ab
(c) l. 1 ab
(d) 1.04ab
Ans. (a)
10. A shopkeeper gives 12% additional discount after giving an initial discount of 20% on the labelled price of a radio. If the sale price of the radio is Rs 704, what is the labelled price of the radio?
(a) Rs.844.80
(b) Rs.929.28
(c) Rs.1044.80
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
11. The cost of fencing around a. rectangular garden at Rs.5 per meter is Rs.2506.32. if the length of the garden is one and a half times its breadth, approximately, what will be the breadth of the garden?
(a) 100 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 250 m
Ans. (a)
12. The ratio of my spending to saving is 3: 4. By what percentage must my spending rise for the ratio to become 4 : 3?
(a) 25
(b) 35.55
(c) 26:66
(d) 33.33
Ans. (d)
13. The sum of the ages of A and B at present is 7 times the difference in their ages after 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 9 times the difference in their ages. The present age of the elder of the two therefore is—
(a) 10 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 35 years
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
14. A train takes 3 hours to run froth one station to another. If it reduces its speed by 12 km/hour, it takes 45 minutes more for the journey. The distance between the stations is—
(a) 220 km
(b) 210 km
(c) 180 km
(d) 160 km
Ans. (c)
15. One side of a right angled triangle is 126 cm. The difference between the hypotenuse and the other side is 42 cm. The length of the hypotenuse is—
(a) 168 cm
(c) 210 cm
(b) 189 cm
(d) 378 cm
Ans. (c)
16. The radius of a circle is increased by 100%. What will be the percentage increase in its area?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 300
Ans. (d)
17. Metals are heated by—
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Radiation and Convection
Ans. (a)
18. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring humidity of air?
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Episometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Ans. (c)
19 The temperature at which water possesses maximum density is—
(a) 0°C
(b) 4°C
(c) — 4°C
(d) 0°F
Ans. (b)
20. If a horse starts suddenly, the rider may fall due to—
(a) moment of inertia
(b) law of conservation of mass
(c) inertia of rest
(d) third law of motion
Ans. (c)
21. A place of iron does not float on water because—
(a) the mass of water displaced is less than that of iron
(b) the mass of water displaced is more than that of iron
(c) the mass of water displaced is equal to that of iron
(d) it displaces no water
Ans. (a)
22. Which type of mirror is used by dentists to concentrate light on the tooth to be examined?
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Plane
(d) Planeoconvex
Ans. (b)
23. Brass is an alloy whereas air is a
(a) gas
(b) mixture
(c) compound
(d) solution
Ans. (b)
24. If a man weight 600 N on the earth, then his weight on the. moon will approximately be—
(a) 6000 N
(b) 60 N
(c) 1000 N
(d) l00 N
Ans. (d)
25. The apparent depth of a quantity of a liquid in a vessel is 15 cm. If it’s real depth is 20 cm, then the refractive index of the liquid
(a) 0.75
(c) 300
(b) 21.33
(d) 1.33
Ans. (d)
26. The inner back surface of the eye is called—
(a) Pupil
(b) Retina
(c) Choroid
(d) Cornea
Ans. (c)
27. At hills, water boils at a temperature of—
(a) Less than 100°C
(b) More than 100°C
(c) 100°C
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
28. Boyle’s Law is applicable at—
(a) Constant pressure
(b) Constant temperature
(c) Constant pressure and temperature
(d) Constant pressure but variable temperature
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following properties a fuse wire for normal electrical appliances should have?
(i) Thick wire
(ii) Thin wire
(iii) Low melting point alloy
(iv) High melting point alloy
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
30. Three bulbs with power ratings of 40W, 70W and 100W are connected in series to a 200 V mains. The energy consumption will be—
(a) highest for 100 W bulb
(b) highest for 60 W bulb
(c) highest for 40 W bulb
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
31. A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to—
(a) viscosity
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) small weight
(d) surface tension
Ans. (d)
32. Which of the following instruments converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
(a) Transformer
(b) Motor
(c) Electrometer
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
33. Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water from 30°C to 80°C is—
(a) 1 kilo — calories
(b) 30 kilo — a1ories
(c) 80 kilo — calories
(d) 50 kilo — calories
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Blood is acidic
(b) Bile juice is secreted by liver
(c) Gastric juice contains HCI
(d) Bile juice is alkaline
Ans. (a)
35. Fish breathes with the help of—
(a) lungs
(b) skin
(c) gills
(d) fins
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
(a) Small pox
(b) Dysentery
(c) Influenza
(d) Cholera
Ans. (d)
37. Which of the following is NOT a function of kidneys?
(a) Regulation of blood pressure
(b) Secretion of antibiotics
(c) Removal of urine
(d) Regulation of acidity of body fluids
Ans. (b)
38. An electron carries—
(a) a unit negative charge
(b) a unit positive charge
(c) two units of negative charge
(d) two units of positive charge
Ans. (b)
39. Corborandum is used as—
(a) a fertilizer
(b) a paint
(c) a medicine
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) An acid must contain at least one hydrogen atom
(b) Some acids contain more than 20 hydrogen atoms
(c) The number of replaceable hydrogen atoms of an acid is called its basicity
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
41. Why dry sand looks bright while
wet sand appears dark?
(a) It. is optical illusion
(b) It is due to reflection
(c) It is due to refraction
(d) It is due to transmission
Ans. (b)
42. Solar eclipse is formed when—
(a) The sun comes in between the earth and the moon
(b) The moon comes in between. the sun and the earth
(c) The earth comes in between the sun and the moon
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
43. The most harmful radiations for man are—
(a) alpha rays
(b) beta rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) ultraviolet rays
Ans. (d)
44. Which of the following planets has its orbit closest to that of earth?
(a) Saturn
(b) Mercury
(c) Jupiter
(d) Venus
Ans. (d)
45. Why does a cricket player catches the speeding ball by gradually pulling his arms back with the ball?
(a) The ball may come to rest
(b) The ball may continue to accelerate
(c) He may need to apply less force
(d) He may get time to apply more force
Ans. (d)
46. There are four gas jars containing O2, C02, H2 and N2 respectively.
Which of the following tests would identify the four gases?
(a) Inserting burning splinters into the jars
(b) inserting a piece of burning magnesium
(c) Passing the gas through lime water
(d) Dissolving the gas in water
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 47—50): Read the following information and answer these questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and U are employees in a factory. There are two engineers, one lawyer, one doctor, one salesman, and one accountant. P is the brother of U who is a salesman. R’s sister is a lawyer and married to Q who is a doctor. No lady is engineer. S is the lady accountant in that group. There are two ladies in the group and one of them is T.
47. Who is the lawyer?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) R
(d) Q
Ans. (b)
48. What is R’s profession?
(a) Lawyer
(b) Salesman
(c) Engineer
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (c)
49. Who is Q’s wife?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (c)
50. Who is T’s brother?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) U
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Solved verbal Reasoning Questions For LIC GIC oriental insurance job recruitment exams
Verbal reasoning tests of intelligence for insurance jobs
Reasoning model quiz for LIC vacancies
LIC JOBS EXAM PRACTICE TEST
Directions (1—5): What will be the next term- in each of the following number series?
1. 95, 90, 80 65?
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 45
(d) 55
Ans. (c)
2. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25?
(a) 36
(b) 60
(c) 42
(d) 49
Ans. (a)
3. 4, 9, 20, 43?
(a) 133
(b) 90
(c) 96
(d) 86
Ans. (b)
4. 6, 7, 9, 13, 21?
(a) 25
(b) 32
(c) 29
(d) 37
Ans. (d)
5. AZ, CX, EV?
(a) HR
(b) GT
(c) GS
(d) BT
Ans. (b)
6. In a certain code language TRAINS is written as RTIASN.
How will PISTOL be written in that code language?
(a) IPTSLO
(b) IPSTLO
(c) SIPTOL
(d) SITLOP
Ans. (a)
7. In a certain code language FEED is written as 6554. How will BREAD be written in that code language?
(a) 284115
(b) 218514
(c) 339574
(d) 39524
Ans. (b)
8. In a certain code language RPQWF is written as STEAM and RGZQ is written as MORE. How will FQPZQ be written in that code 1anguage?
(a) TEAMS
(b) MEETS
(c) METRE
(d) METER
Ans. (c)
9. Select the quality common to the three given words—
Rockies: Appalachian: Andes
(a) peaks
(b) hills
(c) ranges
(d) slopes
Ans. (c)
10. Select the pair of numbers having a relation similar to the given pair—
8: 256
(a) 10: 500
(b) 5: 75
(c) 7: 343
(d) 9: 243
Ans. (d)
11. Select the odd man out—
(a) LMVOX
(b) FSYLD
(c) VYAKB
(d) MIGHZ
Ans. (b)
12. Select the odd one out—
(a) UPKFA
(b) OMIDB
(c) VTOJE
(d) USNID
Ans. (a)
13. Fill in the blanks— 2, 5, 9, (….), 20, 27
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 14
(d) 16
Ans. (c)
14. Find the wrong terms in the series.
1, 3, 7, 15, 27, 63, 127
(a) 27
(b) 63
(c) 7
(d) 15
Ans. (a)
15. If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can EHARATHI be coded?
(a) 96575368
(b) 96855368
(c) 37536689
(d) 57686535
Ans. (a)
16. If in a certain language, ok a peru’ means ‘fine cloth’, metal lisa means ‘clean water’ and ‘dona lisa peru’ means ‘fine clear weather’ which word in that language means ‘weather’?
(a) meta
(b) dona
(c) peru
(d) oka
Ans. (b)
17. Arun said, ‘This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mothers.
Who is Arun to the girl?
(a) Husband
(b) Father-in-law
(c) Father
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (b)
18. Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was ranked higher than Dinesh. Kamal’s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was ranked highest?
(a) Dinesh
(b) Kamal
(c) Sanjay
(d) Vikas
Ans. (c)
19. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically fol1o’ prom the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : : Conclusions
All apples are oranges. I. Some apples are papayas.
Some oranges are papayas. II. Some papayas are apples.
Give answer—
(a) if neither I nor II follows
(b) if both I and II follow
(c) if only conclusion I follows
(d) if only conclusion II follows
Ans. (a)
20. Choose the action that certifies the reality of the following statement—
This morning, when we went exactly towards the south on the left side, on top of a mountain, the sun shows like a golden ball.
(a) always
(b) sometimes
(c) never
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
21. Which among the following options is similar to the group AZ, EV, GT, DW?
(a) WZ
(b) UD
(c) HS
(d) BW
Ans. (c)
22. Complete the series— 2 A 9 B, 6, C, 13, D…..
(a) 12
(b) 19
(c) 10
(d) 9
Ans. (c)
23. If’ P+Q means P is father of Q, P x Q, means P is brother of Q, P – Q means, P is mother of Q then which of the following is true for C – A + B?
(a) C is mother of B
(b) B is father of A
(c) A is son of C
(d) B is son of A
Ans. (c)
24. In the word PROJECTION 3rd, 5th, 7th, and 10th letters together can make a meaningful word. Write the third 1etter of that word. If it is not possible to
make a meaningful word then give the answer as X and if it is possible to make more than one word then give the answer as M.
(a) T
(b) N
(c) M
(d) X
Ans. (c)
25. As ‘pushing’ is related to ‘carrying’ in the same way ‘throwing’ is related to—
(a) standing
(b) distance
(c) jumping
(d) gathering
Reasoning solved question paper for SSC jobs
1. Choose the number set similar to the number set (5, 6, and 22)
A. (4, 8, 2)
B. (3, 8, 26)
C. (8, 9, 34)
D. (7, 9, 48)
Ans. (C)
2. Choose the odd one out:
A. Goat
B. Dog
C. Hare
D. Cow
Ans. (B)
3. Choose the odd one out:
A. Chair
B. Table
C. Bench
D. Stool
Ans. (B)
4. Which of the following words can’t be formed by the letters of the word CARPENTER?
A. Car
B. Painter
C. Carpet
D. Repent
Ans. (B)
5. Find the missing term 17, 2, 34, 3, 102, 4, (….)
A. 204
B. 408
C. 256
D. 456
Ans. (B)
Directions (Qs. 6 to 8): Find the odd one out.
6. A. Geography
B. Physics
C. Chemistry
D. Zoology
Ans. (A)
7. A. Kuruksheträ
B. Haldighati
C. Sarnath
D. Panipat
Ans. (C)
8. A. March
B. December
C. July
D. September
Ans. (D)
Directions (Q. 9—11): In the given series which one number wrong. Find out that wrong number
9. 6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 37
(d) 40
Ans. (d)
10. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 24
(d) 384
Ans. (c)
11. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(a) 165
(b) 153
(c) 142
(d) 130
Ans. (a)
12. At quarter to three, the minute hand of a clock is in South-East direction. The hour hand will be in which direction?
(a) North – West
(b) South – East
(c) South – West
(d) North-East
Ans. (a)
13. If HINDU is coded as 61257, and MAN is 924, INDIRA will be coded as:
(a) 454626
(b) 594921
(c) 452787
(d) 884572
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 14—18): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on them
(i) Six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T and U are Psychologist, Manager, Advocate, Jeweler, Doctor and Engineer but not in the same order.
(ii) Doctor is the grand father of U, a Psychologist.
(iii) Manager S is married to P
(iv) R, who is a Jeweler, is married to Advocate
(v) Q is the mother of T and U
(vi) There are married couples in the family.
14. How is P related to T?
(a) Father
(b) Grandmother
(c) Wife
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (d)
15. Who are two couples in the family?
(a) PS and RQ
(b) PQ and RS
(c) PU and ST
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
16. What is the profession of P?
(a) Manager’
(b) Doctor
(c) Advocate
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
17. What is the profession of T?
(a) Manager
(b) Psychologist
(c) Engineer
(d) Doctor
Ans. (c)
18. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (d)
19. If DOME is coded as 2541, SHOP as 8956 and WORK as 3570, then SMOKE shall be coded as:
(a) 85401
(b) 83075
(c) 84051
(d) 84501
Ans. (d)
Directions (20-24): Study the following sequence of numbers and answer the questions based an it:
896739378399563969398
20. How many 9’s are there which are preceded by 3 but not immediately followed by 9 in the above set of numbers?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
Ans. (D)
21. Which digit has least frequency in the above set of numbers?
A.8
B.9
C.5
D.6
Ans. (C)
22. Which digit has the highest frequency leaving digit 9 in the above set of numbers?
A.8
B.7
C.5
D.3
Ans. (D)
23. There are pairs of adjoining figures which add upto 12. How many such pairs are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Ans. (D)
24. How many 3’s are there not proceeded by 9 but immediately followed by 9?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 5
Ans. (B)
Directions (25-28): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on them.
Some friends are sitting on a bench; Sunil is sitting next to Sunita and Sanjay is next to Bindu. Bindu is not sitting with Sumit. Sumit is on the left end of the bench and Sanjay is on second position from right hand side. Sunil is on the right side of Sunita and also to the right side of Sumit. Sunil and Sanjay are sitting together.
25. Sunil is sitting between:
A. Sunita and Bindu
B. Sumit and Bindu
C. Sunita and Sanjay
D. Sanjay and Sumit
Ans. (C)
26. Who is sitting in the center?
A. Sunil
B. Bindu
C. Sanjay
D. Sunita
Ans. (A)
27. Sanjay is sitting between:
A. Bindu and Sunita
B. Sunil and Sumit
C. Sumit and Bindu
D. Sunil and Bindu
Ans. (D)
28. Bindu is sitting on the:
A. extreme left side
B. extreme right side
C. second from left side
D. third from left side
Ans. (B)
29. If ‘MODERN’ and ‘ORTHO DOX’ are coded as’ YOUNGS’ and ‘OGBAOUOM’ ‘respectively, how will ‘REMOTE’ is coded in the same code?
A. GNOYBN
B. NOYM
C. GYNONB
D. GNYOBN
Ans. (D)
30. In a certain code language SOCIAL is written as TQFMFR.
How will Dock be written in that code language?
(a) EQFN
(b) EPDL
(c) FQFN
(d) EQFO
Ans. (d)
General Knowledge Solved Model Paper
Solved Paper Of General Awareness
GK – Solved Question Paper
Solved Paper – GK Series
1. ‘Gun metal’ is a mixture of metals—
(a) Cu, Sn and Zn
(b) Cu, Fe, and Mg
(c) Fe, Al and Mn
(d) Ar, Fe and Mg
Ans. (a)
2. ‘Candilla’ is unit of—
(a) Light flux
(b) Light effect
(c) Light bar
(d) Light intensity
Ans. (d)
3. What is the percentage of Nitrogen in atmosphere?
(a) 21 %
(b) 70 %
(c) 71 %
(d) 78 %
Ans. (d)
4. Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. If pressure is increased, to double, then what will be speed of sound?
(a) 332 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c) 166 m/s
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. If 1ength of simple pendulum is increased by 4% then its periodic time—
(a) increases by 8 %
(b) increases by 2 %
(c) increases by 4 %
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. Polarization in incident light proves that light waves are—
(a) interfering
(b) longitudinal
(c) transverse
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
7. Smoke which comes out from chimney has in it present minimum mass of ashes—
(a) through electrical absorption
(b) by passing smoke through chimney
(c) by passing smoke through water
(d) through chemical substances
Ans. (a)
8. ‘Lichen’ is a type of dual plant, which is an example of commensalism by two different groups of plants, in which the two groups of plants are—
(a) fungus and moss
(b) fungus and bacteria
(c) algae and fungus
(d) algae and moss
Ans. (c)
9. During photosynthesis oxygen is obtained from where?
(a) From CO2
(b) From H20
(c) From both
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
10. ‘Cinnamon’ is -gathered from which part of the tree?
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Bark
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following plants is ‘xerophyte’?
(a) Mustard
(b) Amarbel
(c) Kareel
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
12. Short sighted persons use the spectacle of —
(a) concave lens
(b) convex lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
13. What will be minimum length of the mirror to show total reflection of a 1.5 long person?
(a) 3 meter
(b) 5 meter
(c) 0.75 meter
(d) 4 meter
Ans. (c)
14. Vaccine of MMR is given for—
(a) small-pox, mumps, rabies
(b) measles, mumps, aids
(c) mumps, measles, rabies
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
15. Maximum Iron is found in which of the following?
(a) Banana
(b) Apple
(c) Milk
(d) Green leaf vegetables
Ans. (d)
16. In which of the following is Protein not found?
(a) Meat
(b) Milk
(c) Rice
(d) Pulse
Ans. (c)
17. If you have an M.Sc degree in Biotechnology, then what will you do?
(a) Heart transplantation
(b) Plastic surgery
(c) Produce potato-onion
(d) Will have knowledge based on computers
Ans. (c)
18. In isotope atoms—
(a) number of protons is equal
(b) number of neutrons is equal
(c) number of nucleons is equal
(d) all of these are true
Ans. (a)
19. To increase 25% velocity of kinetic energy what will be the effect on Kinetic energy?
(a) Increase by 56.25%
(b) Increase by 156.25%
(c) Decrease by 56.25%
(d) Decrease by 156.25%
Ans. (a)
20. What is ‘Telescope’?
(a) To see long distance object
(b) To see near distance object
(c) To measure depth of the water
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. If 10 bulbs of 100W burn 1 hour per day, then what will be the consumption of electric energy?
(a) I unit
(b) 100 kWh
(c) 10 unit
(d) 10 kWh
Ans. (a)
22. Which is the most ductile amongst Au, Ag, Cu and Fe?
(a) Au
(b) Ag
(c) Cu
(d) Pc
Ans. (a)
23. What crop is cultivated in mountain region of Nilgiri?
(a) Tea
(b) Rubber
(c) Coffee
(d) Cardamom
Ans. (c)
24. Hardness of water is due to presence of which of the following?
(a) Magnesium Bicarbonate
(b) Bleaching powder
(c) Sodium
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
25. Which is wrong about hard water?
(a) Doesn’t make foam
(b) Use maximum soap
(c) Magnesium Bicarbonate is present
(d) Iron Pyrites are present
Ans. (d)
26. Which organ is affected by “Diphtheria’ disease?
(a) Neck
(b) Eye
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas
Ans. (a)
27. When any bubble of air comes to surface of the lake, then—
(a) it widens like cloth
(b) it increases in size
(c) it decreases in size
(d) its size as same stay
Ans. (b)
28. Which of the words will come at the first place?
(a) Concentration
(b) Concentre
(c) Concentrative
(d) Concentrated
Ans. (d)
29. Who discovered ‘Positron’?
(a) Rutherford
(b) J. J. Thomson
(c) Chadwick
(d) Anderson
Ans. (d)
30. Atomic weight of heavy water is -
(a) 20
(c) 40
(b) 18
(d) 34
Ans. (a)
31. Insulin is found in—
(a) tuber of potato
(b) rhizome of ginger
(c) in the root of dahlia
(d) bulb of onion
Ans. (c)
32. Vitamin ‘C’ is—
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Sulphuric acid
Ans. (b)
Objective GK General Knowledge Current Affairs
1. Where is Humayun tomb located?
(a) In Delhi
(b) In Agra
(c) In Kabul
(d) In Sikandara
Ans. (a)
2. Who among the following was given ‘Jari Kalam’?
(a) Mohammed Hussain
(b) Mukammal Khan
(c) Abdussmad
(d) Mir Syed Ali
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is not found in space?
(a) Pulsar
(b) Crystal Star
(c) Black Hole
(d) Quasar
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following is important for the growth, development and reformation of body tissues?
(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
5. Which crop has the largest interval between sowing and reaping it?
(a) Wheat
(b) Barley
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Maize
Ans. (c)
6. All living objects consume oxygen for their respiration. Oxygen is replenished by plants during—
(a) evening
(b) night
(c) morning
(d) day time
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following is not immunized by ‘triple antigen’?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Tetanus
(d) Whooping cough
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following vitamins is soluble in water?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin E
Ans. (c)
9. The chemical name of laughing gas is—
(a) nitrogen dioxide
(b) nitrogen oxide
(c) nitrogen pentaoxide
(d) nitrous oxide
Ans. (d)
10. Pulkeshin II, the Chalukya ruler, defeated Harsha Vardhana on the bank of river—
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Tapti
(c) Narmada
(d) Godavari
Ans. (c)
11. Guru Arjun Dev was the contemporary of—
(a) Babur
(b) Jehangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Akbar
Ans. (b)
12. Idols in Ajanta Caves depict
(a) Lord Shiva in different pose
(b) Lord Buddha and his life history
(c) Lord Mahavira
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
13. When a copper ball is heated its density—
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. Match the following—
A. Lemons 1. Alginic acid
B. Seaweeds 2. Acetic Acid
C. Grapes 3. Tartaric acid
D. Vinegar 4. Citric acid
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (b)
15. Goutamiputra Satkarni was the King of?
(a) Sunga
(b) Kushan
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) Satwahan
Ans. (d)
16. For going from Zaire to Netherlands which of the following climatic region’s series is correct?
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Tropical desert climate
(d) Western European climate
Ans. (a)
17. Goitre disease is related to –
(a) ear
(c) neck
(b) eye
(d) mouth
Ans. (c)
18. Lumen is unit of—
(a) light wall
(b) wavelength
(c) light flux
(d) none of. these
Ans. (c)
19. When train reaches the station, then it sounds different from its original sound frequency. Why?
(a) Reflection
(b) Doppler’s effect
(c) Refraction
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20 Which is called ‘Suicidal bag’?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosome
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Purity of Gamete rule was propounded by-
(a ) Darwin
(b) Mendel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Mendleleef
Ans. (b)
22. Which is called ‘blood bank’?
(á) Spleen
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
23. In the sunlight, which colour has maximum scattering?
(a) Red
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) Violet
Ans. (d)
24. Meaning of Hypermetropia is—
(a) short-sightedness
(b) long-sightedness
(c) astigmatism
(d) pressbyopia
Ans. (b)
25. First Indian to go into space is—
(a) Yuri Gagrin
(b) Santosh Yadav
(c) Rakesh Sharma
(d) Kalpana Chawla
Ans. (c)
26. Washing Soda is—
(a) sodium bicarbonate
(b) sodium sulphate
(c) sodium carbonate
(d) bleaching powder
Ans. (c)
27. Which liquid is used in manufacturing dynamite?
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Olic acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Malic acid
Ans. (a)
28. ‘Cerebrum’ is related to—
(a) liver
(b) heart
(c) brain
(d) vein
Ans. (c)
29. The atoms in which atomic number is equal but atomic mass is different is called—
(a) isobars
(b) isotones
(c) isotopes
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
30. Which is used in bleaching and manufacturing of food?
(a) Caramel
(b) Carnalite
(c) Brazing
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
31. Epidermic disease is related to —
(a) neck
(b) ear
(c) skin
(d) nose
Ans. (c)
32. Which is used in binary System?
(a) 0 and 9
(b) 0 and 1
(c) 1 and 9
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (b)
33. Mahabaleshwar is situated in-
(a) Gujarat
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Himachal. Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b)
34. Temple of Ayappa is situated in -
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
35. Meaning of ‘A red letter day’ is—
(a) red day
(b) an important day
(c) correspondence day
(d) black day
Ans. (b)
36. Which river was important in building Punjab?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Vyas
(c) Jhelam
(d) Indus
Ans. (d)
37. ‘Ophthalmic’ is related to—
(a) nose
(b) mouth
(c) tongue
(d) eye
Ans. (d)
38. Zinedin-Zidane is related to which country?
(a) Germany
(b) Brazil
(c) France
(d) Italy
Ans. (c)
39. ‘Dyslexia’ is related to—
(a) problem of reading odd letters
(b) heart
(c) a disease in children
(d) old person’s disease
Ans. (a)
40. Indian Standard Time line passes through which town?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Kolkata
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Allahabad
Ans. (d)
41. Where is headquarter of ‘Forest Research Centre’ situated?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Shimla
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Dehradun
Ans. (d)
42. Golconda is situated at -
(a) Bijapur
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Mysore
(d) Chennai
Ans. (b)
43. Open Museum of ‘Hampi’ is in which state?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
44. The International Court of Justice holds its session at its headquarters in—
(a) Lake Success
(b) Amsterdam
(c) Hague
(d) Paris
Ans. (c)
45. Where is ‘Bhabha Atomic Research Centre’ situated?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
46. What is the percentage of Indians dependent on agriculture in the present age?
(a) 90 %
(b) 70 %
(c) 65 %
(d) 80 %
Ans. (b)
47. India wants to achieve what per cent of Gross Domestic Product?
(a) 5%—6%
(b) 7% — 8%
(c) 13% 15%
(d) 9% — 10%
Ans. (b)
48. Which of these gases is used to fill the tyre of aeroplane?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Neon
Ans. (b)
49. Ratio of acids in ‘Aquaregia’ is —
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:1
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following is a water borne disease?
(a) Malaria
(b) T.B
(c) Plague
(d) Typhoid
Ans. (d)
Model Paper General Awareness STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION
1. M. F. Hussain is a famous—
(a) painter
(b) singer
(c) musician
(d) politician
Ans. (a)
2. The battlefield of Plassey is Situated in——
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (b)
3. Who introduced ‘Permanent Settlement’ in Bengal?
(a) Lord Bentick
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Hastings
Ans. (c)
4. E C G is used for the diagnosis of ailment of the—
(a) brain
(b) kidneys
(c) heart
(d) lungs
Ans. (c)
5. The shortest bone in the human body is—
(a) vertebrate
(b) phalanges
(c) stapes
(d) metacarpals
Ans. (c)
6. Night blindness is caused by the lack of which vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin D
Ans. (a)
7. ‘National Police Academy is situated in—
(a) Bangalore
(b) Dehradun
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Delhi
Ans. (c)
8. The period of tenth five—year plan was
(a) 200l — 2006
(b) 2002 — 2007
(c) 2000 — 2005
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
9. The first Indian lady to be miss world ?
(a) Susmita Sen
(b) Aishwarya Rai
(c) Reita Faria
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
10. Koyana project is situated in—
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (b)
11. Red Blood formed in—
(a) spleen
(b) liver
(c) bone
(d) marrow
Ans. (d)
12. The normal temperature of human body is—
(a) 96.8° F
(b) 97.8° F
(c) 98.6°F
(d) 99.7°F
Ans. (c)
13. Hirakud Dam has been built on the river—
(a) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (d)
14. The paintings of Ajanta depicts….
(a) Ramayana
(b) Jatakas
(c) Mahabharata
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15.The longest irrigation canal in the world is?
(a) Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Suez canal
(c) Sarhind Canal
(d) Panama Canal
Ans. (a)
16. Main part of national income of India is gained from
(a) Sales tax
(b) Income tax
(c) Agriculture
(d) Projunction tax
Ans. (a)
17. Which is India’s best natural port?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradeep
(c) Mangalore
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
18. Charminar is in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Gulbarga
(d) Fatehpur Sikri
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution ensures freedom of press in India?
(a) Art. 356
(b) Art. 19
(c) Art. 327
(d) Art. 22
Ans. (b)
20. From which dynasty, Raja Bhoj was related?
(a) Parmar
(b) Tuluva
(c) Karkota
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
21. The Great Bath was found at—
(a) Harappa
(b) Ropar
(c) Mohenjodaro
(d) Lothal
Ans. (c)
22. The question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statements : Arguments
Should India stop missile I. Yes. The U.S.A desires so.
developments? II. No. The nation must always remain up-to-date in its
defense preparedness.
Give answer—
(a) if neither I nor II is strong
(b) if both I and II are strong
(ç) if only argument I is strong
(d) if only argument II is strong
Ans. (d)
23. Observatory was not made by king of Jaipur Sawai Jai Singh at—
(a) Delhi
(b) Ujjain
(c) Kolkata
(d) Jaipur
Ans. (c)
24. Which one of the following is an Anti-tank Missile?
(a) Prithvi
(b) Trishul
(c) Nag
(d) Agni
Ans. (c)
25. Almati Dam is being constructed on which river and state?
(a) Krishna — Karnataka
(b) Godavari — Mahrasli4ra
(c) Yamuna — Uttar Pradesh
(d) Cauvery — Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
26. Present Vice President of India, belongs to which state?
(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(a) Kerala
Ans. (c)
27. Acupuncture is—
(a) servicing of tubes and tyres
(b) a treatment method with needle
(c) a crop culture
(d) a disease of heart
Ans. (b)
28. The abbreviation UND? stands for—
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) United Nations Democratic Press
(c) Union of North Developing Province
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
29. An economy in which the public sector exists side by side with the private sector is called—
(a) socialism
(b) capitalism
(c) mixed economy
(a) planned economy
Ans. (c)
30. Iron Pillar situated near Qutub Minar was constructed by—
(a) Chandra Gupta II
(b) Harsha
(c) Ram Gupta
(d) Samudra Gupta.
Ans. (a)
31. Human’s ear can comfortably bear decibel of sound
(a) 118
(b) 125
(c) 120
(d) 130
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following in cleans environment with its maximum polluter?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c)t Rain
(a) Air
Ans. (c)
33. Mess of an atom is expressed in—
(a) ki1ogram
(b) gram
(c) a.m.u.
(a) Carat
Ans. (c)
34. The average density of the earth in gm/cc is—
(a) 4.3
(c) 2.1
(b) 5.5
(a) 3.2
Ans. (b)
35. Which among the following is the main constituent of L.P.G. gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Butane
(d) Propane
Ans. (c)
36. Seismography is related to—
(a) earthquake
(b) humidity
(c) speed of wind
(d) temperature
Ans. (a)
37. Which of the following metals can be easily drawn into the wire?
(a) Tin
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Ans. (b)
38. Which of the following is called strategic metal?’
(a) Si1icon
(b) Titanium
(c) Germanium
(d) Uranium .
Ans. (d)
39. What kind of energy is stored in a dry cell?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Electrical
(c) Chemical
(d) Heat
Ans. (c)
40. Petroleum is found in—
(a) igneous rocks
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
41. Which element is essential for the functioning of thyroid gland?
(a) Sodium
(c) Iodine
(b) Potassium
(d) Calcium
Ans. (c)
42. Who is the author of the book “Wings of Fire”?
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Narsimha Rao
(c) R.K. Narayan
(d) V.S.Naipaul
Ans. (a)
43. The largest producer of sugar in the worlds is—
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Mexico
(d) Cuba
Ans. (a)
44. The motion of the Earth in it orbit is—
(a) from west to east
(b) from north to south
(c) from east to west
(d) from south to north
Ans. (a)
45. Deficiency of insulin causes—
(a) beriberi
(b) diabetes
(c) cancer
(d) anaemia
Ans. (b)
46. Energy generated by food is measured in which unit?
(a) Calorie
(b) Kelvin
(c) Joule
(d) Erg
Ans. (a)
47. The movement of earth on its imaginary axis is called—
(a) revolution
(b) orbit
(c) rotation
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
48. Circular shaped, satellite to be launched first by USSR was—
(a) Sputnik
(b) Rohini
(c) Apollo
(d) SLV-3
Ans. (a)
49. India’s first satellite Aryabhatta was launched in which year?
(a) 1965
(b) 1947
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following is most important in the digestion of food in the stomach?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Enzyme
(d) Mineral
Ans. (c)
Online Practice Test GK for ITBP exams general Knowledge
1. Doldrums is area of—
(a) low temperature
(b) low rainfall
(c) low pressure
(d) low humidity
Ans. (c)
2. The headquarters of SAARC is in—
(a) Colombo
(b) Dhaka
(c) New Delhi
(d) Katmandu
Ans. (d)
3. Who invented the ‘Gobar gas plant?
(a). C. B. Desai
(b) Robert Wilhelm
(c) C. B. Pascau
(d) Gigar
Ans. (a)
4. Dry ice is—
(a) Solid Carbon Dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Chlorine
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following is surrounded by river Narmada and Tapti?
(a) Vindhya mountains
(b) Satpura mountains
(c) Rajmahal mountains
(d) Aravali mountains
Ans. (b)
6. The largest lake in India is—
(a) Dal lake
(b) Pushkar lake
(c) Wular lake
(d) Chilka lake
Ans. (c)
7. Garba is a folk dance of—
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (d)
8. Mahendra Singh Dhoni is related to—
(a) Football
(b) Hockey
(c) Cricket
(d) Baseball
Ans. (c)
9. World population day is celebrated on—
(a) 10 December
(b) 11 July
(c) 11 May
(d) 11 October
Ans. (b)
10. Which among the following minerals is found in Khetri?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following is not an original particle?
(a) Electron
(b) Neutron
(c) Proton
(d) Deutron
Ans. (d)
12. Mac-Mohan line demarcates—
(a) India and China
(b) India and Afghanistan
(c) India and Nepal
(d) India and Bhutan
Ans. (a)
13. Kathak is a dance style of—
(a) North India
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
14. ‘Scurvy’ is caused due to the deficiency of…..
(a). vitamin A
(b) vitamin C
(c) vitamin B
(d) vitamin D
Ans. (b)
15. Where is the oldest oil refinery of India located?
(a) Haldia
(b) Barauni
(c) Digboi
(d) Cochin
Ans. (c)
16. Akbar’s maiso1eum is situated at—
(a) Agra
(b) Sikandara
(c) Delhi
(d) Sasaram
Ans. (b)
17. Members of Rajya Sabha have a term of—
(a) four years
(b) seven years
(c) five years
(d) six years
Ans. (d)
18. Who founded the Servants of India Society?
(a) J. P. Narayan
(b) O. K. Gokhale
(c) Lajpat Rai
(d) Annie Besant
Ans. (b)
19. Who controls the cabinet secretariat?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice—President
(c) The Prime. Minister
(d) The Parliament
Ans. (c)
20. Who is ex—officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice — President of India
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Leader of Opposition.
Ans. (b)
21. The Vijaya Nagar empire owes its origin to—
(a) Krishnadeva Raya
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Harihar and Bukka
(d) Raja Raja Chola
Ans. (c)
22. Article 356 Of the constitution of India provides for—
(a) reservation of jobs for backward classes
(b) protection of religious monuments
(c) a special status for Jammu & Kashmir
(d) imposition of president’s rule in a state
Ans. (d)
23. The ‘Sea of Tranquility’ is located in—
(a) South — East Africa
(b) on the West Coast of Russia
(c) on the Moon
(d) on the West Coast of India
Ans. (c)
24. Rh factor is a term that we hear in connection with—
(a) space travel
(b) air pressure
(c) blood transfusion
(d) blood pressure
Ans. (c)
25. The U. N. Day is observed on—
(a) 24th October
(b) 24th July
(c) 24th November
(d) 24th August
Ans. (a)
26. The time difference between I.S.T. and GMT is—
(a) 5 ½ hours
(b) 6 ½ hours
(c) 8 ½ hours
(d) 7 ½ hours
Ans. (a)
27. What are drugs used for relieving pain called?
A. Tranquilizer
B. Antipyretics
C. Analgesics
D. Smallpox
Ans. (C)
28. Suez navigation canal links up Mediterranean sea with—
(a) Atlantic Ocean.
(b) North Sea
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) Red Sea
Ans. (d)
29. Symbol of sodium is—
(a) S
(b) So
(c) Na
(d) K
Ans. (c)
30. Alberuni was a historian during the period of—
(a) Muhammad Ghazni
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Balban
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
31. The fourth Buddhist council was held during the reign of—
(a) Ashoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta
(d) Harsha
Ans. (b)
32. Who was the first president of Indian National Congress?
(a) A. O. Hume
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) W. C. Bannerjee
(d) B. G. Tilak
Ans. (c)
33. Chalukya ruler Pulkeshin II, defeated—
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Dharampala
Ans. (b)
34. international date line passes through—
(a) 0° Greenwich
(b) 90° Greenwich
(c) 180° Greenwich
(d) 270° Greenwich
Ans. (c)
35. Rabindra Nath Tagore renounced the Knighthood in 1919 as a protest against—
(a) Mob violence that took place
(b) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(c) Racial violence between Hindus and Muslims
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
36. The image formed on the retina of the eye is—
(a) real and inverted
(b) upright and real
(c) virtual and upright
(d) enlarged and real
Ans. (a)
37. Which of the following passes through India?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of cancer
(c) Equator
(d) 0° longitude
Ans. (b)
38. Device used to rectify far sightedness is—
(a) concave lens
(b) spherical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) plane glass
Ans. (c)
39. Chandigarh was designed by—
(a) Edward Lutyens
(b) Wren
(c) Michelangelo
(d) Le Corbusier
Ans. (d)
40. Nasik is situated on the bank of——
(a) Krishna
(b) Cauvery
(c) Godavari
(d) Narmada
Ans. (c)
41. High Altitude Research Laboratory is situated in—
(a) Srinagar
(b) Gulmarg
(c) Laddakh
(d) Pehlgam
Ans. (c)
42. RDX is—
(a) an instrument
(b) a gene
(c) a fertilizer
(d) an explosive
Ans. (d)
43. Mahatma Gandhi started his first Satyagraha on the Indian soil in 1917 at
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Champaran
(d) Bardoli
Ans. (c)
44. World environment day is celebrated every year on—
(a) 5th June
(b) 7th June
(c) 6th June
(d) 8th June
Ans. (a)
45. Which of the following is not a unit of time?
(a) Nano second
(b) Light year
(c) Micro second
(d) Second
Ans. (b)
46. India House is located in—
(a) London
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Ans. (a)
47. The Indian Independence League was set up by—
(a) Subhash Bose
(b) S. M. Joshi
(c) Rash Bihari Bose
(d) Aruna Ashaf Ali
Ans. (c)
48. When a ship crosses date line from west to east—
(a) it loses one day
(b) it gains one day
(c) it loses half a day
(d) it gains half a day
Ans. (b)
49. Authors of the book, ‘The Good Earth” is:
(a) Norman Angell
(b) Charles Dickens
(c) Margaret Mitchell
(d) Pearl S. Buck
Ans. (b)
50. The most important divinity in Rig-Veda is?
(a) Indra
(b) Agni
(c) Mitra
(d) Varun
Ans. (a)
SAMPLE PAPER: GK Sample paper for BSF ASI exam
1. What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere?
(a) 25%
(c) 21%
(b) 35%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following creatures fights with snakes?
(a) Monkey
(b) Mongoose
(c) Tiger
(d) Jackal
Ans. (b)
3. Land of “White Elephants” is the surname assigned to
(a) Thailand
(b) Japan
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
Ans. (a)
4. Whose scientific name is ‘Homo Sapiens’?
(a) Tiger
(b) Frog
(c) Man
(d) Rose
Ans. (c)
5. Which country’s flag has a double triangle in it?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
Ans. (d)
6. Where is Mohenjodaro located?
(a) Punjab
(b) Gujarat
(c) Sindh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c)
7. Next to Hindi, the second largest spoken language is—
(a) Bengali
(b) Tamil
(c) Telugu
(d) Marathi
Ans. (c)
8. ‘Bihu’ is the festival of which state?
(a) Orissa
(b) Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (c)
9. Who is the Chief Minister of Chattisgarh?
(a) Raman Singh
(b) S. R.. Singh Chauhan
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Kailash Singh
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following towns does not have I.I.T.?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Kolkata
(ç) Guwahati
(d) Roorkie
Ans. (b)
11. Oasis is related to
(a) Glaciers
(b) Islands
(c) Mountains
(d) Deserts
Ans. (d)
12. Match the following pairs according to the chemical
A. Natural gas (i) CO2
B. Laughing gas (ii) N2O
C. Dry-ice (iii) NH3
D. Ammonia (iv) CH4
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4,’D-l
Ans. (c)
13. The headquarters of International Red Cross Committee is in
(a) Berlin
(b) Prague
(c) Paris
(d) Geneva
Ans. (d)
14 Joule is the unit of which of the following?
(a) Energy
(b) Force
(c) Pressure
(d) Temperature
Ans. (a)
15. The grass of Asia and Europe is called
(a) Pampas
(b) Savannah
(c) Steppes
(d) Welds
Ans. (d)
16. In which of the following pairs region and state is not correctly matched?
(a) Saurashtra — Gujarat
(b) Bundelkhand — Rajasthan
(c) Telangana — Andhra Pradesh
(d) Vidarbha — Mahrashtra
Ans. (a)
17. B.O.P. is related to
(a) Only Export and Import
(b) All business policies in the world
(c) Capital flow principle
(d) Invisible gain and giving principle
Ans. (c)
18. The bone named Tibia is found in the
(a) Skull
(b) Leg
(c) Arm
(d) Mouth
Ans. (b)
19. The name from which the Raman Magsãysay award name has been taken, belonged to the former president of which country?
(a) Thailand
(c) Indonesia
(b) Philippines
(d) Singapore
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following books was written by Jawahar Lal Nehru?
(a) A Passage to India
(b) My Experiment with truth
(c) India wins freedom
(d) Discovery of India
Ans. (d)
21. We get Lime through which of the following?
(a) By adding hydrochloric acid to calcium
(b) By adding calcium to hot water
(c) By adding Sulphuric acid to calcium
(d) By heating limestone in furnace formulae
Ans. (d)
22. Match the state and its capital pair correctly
A. Mizoram 1. Imphal
B. Nagaland 2. Itanagar
C. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Kohima
D. Manipur 4. Aizawl
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-i
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-l, D-2
Ans. (c)
23. Swami Vivekananda became famous because of a religious summit in which of the following places?
(a) London
(b) Paris
(c) Chicago
(d) Berlin
Ans. (c)
24. Which of the following statements is true related to the Indus Valley Civilization?
(a) Their houses were made of bricks.
(b) Meeting building was discovered in Mohenjodaro.
(c) In the house building scheme open chowk was the main criteria
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
25. Rajendra Agriculture University, Pusa is situated at?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar
Ans. (d)
26. In which part of the original constitution was the theory of a welfare state established?
(a) In the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) 4th Schedule of the Constitution
(c) 3rd Schedule of the Constitution
(d) Directive Principles of the state
Ans. (d)
27. Who was associated with Anushilan Samiti?
(a) Vir Savarkar
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Chandrasekhar Azad
(d) Dada Bhai Naoroji
Ans. (a)
28. Albuquerque snatched Goa from?
(a) King Jamorine
(b) Sultan of Bijapur
(c) France
(d) England
Ans. (b)
29. Which park is famous for elephants?
(a) Nagarhole National Garden
(b) Boribelli National Garden
(c) Dudhwa National Garden
(d) Kaziranga National Garden
Ans. (d)
30. Where is ‘Hanging Minar’?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) England
Ans. (a)
31. Who was the King of Bengal at the time of the King Harsha of Kannauj?
(a) Shashank
(b) Dhrubsen
(c) Pulkeshin II
(d) Bhaskarvarma
Ans. (a)
32. People of Indus Valley Civilization depicted which God in their coins?
(a) Shiva
(b) Agni
(c) Vishnu
(d) Varun
Ans. (a)
33. What does a Seismograph record?
(a) Heart beat
(b) Atmospheric Pressure
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
34. Where is headquarters of South Eastern Coalfield Limited?
(a) Korba
(b) Bilaspur
(c) Raipur
(d) Ambikapur
Ans. (b)
35. During the reign of Aurangzeb which of the following led the Bundelas?
(a) Champat Rai
(b) Jujhar Singh
(c) Vir Singh
(d) Chhatrasal
Ans. (a)
36. Which one of the following marks the eastern extent of the Harappan culture?
(a) Lothal
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Alamgirpur
(d) Dabarkot
Ans. (c)
37. Who among the following is not associated with the INA?
(a) Gurdayal Singh Dhillon
(b) Shah Nawaz Khan
(c) General Mohan Singh
(d) R.C. Dutta
Ans. (d)
38. The most important feature of the Government of India Act of 1919 was the introduction of —
(a) Dyarchy
(b) Separate electorates
(c) Provincial Autonomy
(d) Adult Franchise
Ans. (a)
39. The Indian States that were annexed by invoking the Doctrine of Lapse included—
(a) Jhansi, Nagpur and Mysore
(b) Jhansi, Nagpur and Satara
(c) Jhansi, Satara and Manipur
(d) Mysore, Satara and Bhavnagar
Ans. (b)
40. Lala Lajpat Rai did not write in—
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Punjabi
(d) Urdu
Ans. (b)
41. Those that joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran struggle included—
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel and Vinoba Bhave
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narayan Singh
(d) Mahadev Desai and Maniben Patel
Ans. (c)
42. Christian population is the highest in which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (b)
43.’ Who completed the construction of Qutub Minar?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Razia
(d) Balban
Ans. (b)
44. When was the Swaraj Party founded?
(a) 1919A.D
(b) 1920A.D.
(c) 1922AD
(d) 1923AD
Ans. (d)
45. Who built Charminar?
(a) HaiderAli
(b) Tippu Sultan
(c) Kuli Kutubshah
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans. (c)
46. Which is a natural harbor?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Haldia
(d) Kandla
Ans. (b)
47. In whose rule was gold coins first introduced?
(a) Gupta
(b) Kushan
(c) Maurya
(d) Brahmin
Ans. (b)
48. Rashtiakuta dynasty was eradicated by which of the following?
(a) Jai Singh
(b) Pulkeshin II
(c) Vikramaditya VI
(d) Tailap II
Ans. (d)
49. Cemetery of ‘Bibi Ka Makbara’ is of?
(a) Mumtaj Mahal
(b) Dilras Bano Begum
(c) Gulbadan Begum
(d) Hamida Bano Begum
Ans. (b)
50. During whose reign was the prominent Maratha Sambhaji given a death sentence by hanging?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Shah Jehan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
Ans. (a)
RRB General Awareness Questions fully solved
General Knowledge Question Paper for Competitive Exams RRB
1. Which of the following statements is not correct about sound waves?
(a) It is a straight line
(b) It has energy
(c) It is in wave form
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
Ans. (d)
2. The drop of water is spherical in shape due to—
(a) Surface tension
(b) Viscosity
(c) Gravitation
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. The speed of sound wave is increased due to—
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Increase then decrease in temperature
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. Railway earns mare in carrying—
(a) Passengers
(b) Goods
(c) Construction work
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following generates highest income?
(a) Software
(b) NRI remittance
(c) RBI-interest rate
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
6. The Telugu-Ganga project is related to—
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
7. The time required to reach the sunlight to the earth is—
(a) 6 minutes 40 seconds
(b) 8 minutes 20 seconds
(c) 7 minutes 20 seconds
(d) 9 minutes 10 seconds
Ans. (b)
8. The chlorine gas turns iodine—
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Orange
Ans. (a)
9. The maximum intensity of earthquake on Richter Scale is
(a) l
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) l0
Ans. (d)
10. The non-metal which conducts both heat and electricity is—
(a) iodine
(b) chlorine
(c) phosphorus
(d) graphite
Ans. (d)
11. The cities Halebid and Belur were constructed by
(a) Cholas
(b) Hoyasalas
(c) Kakatiyas
(d) Pállavas
Ans. (b)
12. Covalent bond is formed by—
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
13. Carbon forms more compounds because—
(a) carbon is easily available
(b) valency of carbon is more
(c) of covalent bond and ionic bonds
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. The language specially used for Database Management is—
(a) Visual-basic
(b) Standard Query Language
(c) Fortran
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. The principle of dynamo is—
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) magnetic effect of current
(c) heating effect of current
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
16. Mohr Scale is used to measure—
(a) hardness of minerals
(b) hardness of water
(c) viscosity of gases
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. In ‘Skandpuran’ Garhwal is known by the name of—
(a) Kedarkhand
(b) Kurmachà l
(c) Jallandhar
(d) Gadhdesh
Ans. (a)
18. Who is the director of film 36 Chaurangi Lane’?
(a) Satyajeet Ray
(b) Shyam Benegal
(c) Prakash Jha
(d) Aparna Sen
Ans. (d)
19. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Tharu — Bihar
(b) Semang — Yeman
(c) Mesai — Mountain of East Africa
(d) Badu — Malaya
Ans. (a)
20. Author of ‘Post Office’ is—
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mulkraj Anand
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following metals is the worst conductor of electricity?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Carbon
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sale Tax — State Government
(b Income Tax — State Government
(c) Excise Duty — Central Government
(d) Chungi — Municipal Corporation
Ans. (b)
23. Finance Commission is formulated by—
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following affects the Indian Administration?
(a) Unionism
(b) Parliamentary Democracy
(c) Planning
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
25. World Health Day is celebrated on the date of—
(a) 7th April
(b) 15th March
(c) 9th April
(d) 10th April.
Ans. (a)
26. Which one of the following poets belongs to royal family?
(a) Kamban
(b) Bharati
(c) Ilangoadigal
(d) Chengundanar
Ans. (c)
27. Atomic Number is equal to the number of—
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) either electron or proton
Ans. (d)
28. Phosphorus can be preserved in -
(a) kerosene
(b) water
(c) petrol
(d) ether
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following substances is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum at 260-350°C?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Petrol
(c) Naphtha
(d) Diesel
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Fern
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
Ans. (c)
31. Major difference between animal and plant cells is—
(a) cell membrane
(b) chloroplast
(c) nucleus
(d) cell wall
Ans. (d)
32 Fall of Bastille is related to
(a) Hundred Year War
(b) Napoleon War
(c) French Revolution
(d) England War
Ans. (c)
33. Rockfort passes between—
(a) Chennai and Trichinopoly
(b) Madurai and Tirunelveli
(c) Chennai and Bangalore
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
34. CERCL is located in—
(a) Chennai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) Karaikudi
Ans. (d)
35. Birth place of Bharathiyar is—
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Thiruchengode
(c) Madurai
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
36. Shiva Temple in Tanjore was built by—
(a) Pallava
(b) Chola
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Rashtrakuta
Ans. (b)
37. Numismatics is related to the study of—
(a) coins
(b) inscriptions
(c) epigraph
(d) sherds
Ans. (a)
38. Tamil version of Ramayana was written by—
(a) Kamban
(b) Valmiki
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Ilango
Ans. (a)
39. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with—
(a) economy and politics
(b) inter-State relations
(c) ethics
(d) statecraft
Ans. (a)
40. Sarnath was an important place in the life of the Buddha where he—
(a) was born.
(b) gave his first sermon
(c) attained enlightenment
(d) died
Ans. (b)
41. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ba1 Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (a)
42. Mirage is based on the principle of—
(a) double refraction
(b) total reflection
(c) scattering
(d) refraction
Ans. (b)
43. Set Top Box is related to—
(a) CAP
(b) CAS
(c) Cable Networking
(d) Internet
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Exploitation
(b) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(c) Right o Freedom
(d) Equality before Law
Ans. (b)
45. Chennai Head Post Office is the name of—
(a) St. George Fort
(b) Rippon Building.
(c) Kuralagam
(d) Rajaji Hall
Ans. (b)
46. What is the share of India in global trade?
(a) 1.7%
(b) 1.4%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)
47. Transformer is used to-
(a) convert AC into DC
(b) convert DC into AC
(c) step up or step down D.C.
(d) step up or step down A.C.
Ans. (d)
48. The function of hemoglobin is
(a) transport oxygen
(b) release oxygen
(c) transport CO2
(d) release CO2
Ans. (a)
49. Which words were added to the Preamble to the Constitution of India by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Democratic and Socialist
(b) Secular and Sovereign
(c) Socialist and Secular
(d Democratic and Republic
Ans. (c)
50. Forty-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India is related to—
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right.
(c) Directive Principles were made at par with the Fundamental Rights.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Online practice paper for BPSC prelims
1. Match the leaders in List I with the movements they led in List II.
List I List II
A. Tomma Dore 1. Savara Rebellion
B. Shambhunath Pal 2. Munda Revolt
C. Birsa Munda 3. Koya Rebellion
D. Radhakrishna Dandasena 4. Pabna Uprising
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (a)
2. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. William Bentick 1. Establishment of Public work
B. Charles Metcalfe 2.Annexation of Sindh
C. Ellen borough 3. Abolition of Persian as Court Language
D. Dalhousie 4. Signing of the treaty with Ranjit Singh
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (c)
3. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. S.C Bose 1. Chairman of Radical Congress
B. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. Lal Kurti Andolan
C. Abdul Gaffar Khan 3. Bardoli Andolan
D. Sardar Pte1 4. In Lahore Conference Congress proposed whole revolution
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (b)
4. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Rowlett Act 1. Indian magistrate can also give the decision on subject
of British matter
B. Mountford Improvement 2. Gave the power thinking on political affairs without jury
C. Ilbert Bill 3. Clear division on Government work between centre and
state
D. Indian Council 4. Used the process of election, though in vague way.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (a)
5. Which blood – group is the universal donor?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
Ans. (c)
6. London is situated on the banks of river
(a) Thames
(b) Tyne
(c) Avon
(d) Clyde
Ans. (a)
7. From the sun rays we get
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans. (d)
8. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. HaiderAli 1. Road and land development
B. Krishna Deva Rai 2. Construction of Mackbara and goal
C. Shershah Suri 3. Telugu Sahitya
D. Afghan and Turk 4. Arts of war
The correct answer code is
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (c)
9. Match List -I symptoms of founder with dynasty List- II
List -I List- II
A. Parts of big stone and minimum 1. Lodi dynasty
B. Pure Aperture 2. Slave dynasty
C. Half Gumbaj Mahadware 3. Mughal dynasty
D. Dohre Gumbaj 4. Tughlaq dynasty
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (d)
10. Match the Maratha Chiefs (List- I) with their respective seats of power (List- II)
List -I List- II
A. Peshwa 1. Gwalior
B. Gaekwad 2. Poona
C. Scindhia 3. Nagpur
D. Holker 4. Baroda
E. Bhons1e 5. Indore
The correct answer code is:
A B C D E
(a) 2 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 5 1 3 4
(c) 1 5 3 2. 4
(d) 5 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)
11. Match important court poets / scholars. (List -I) with their patrons (List -II)
List- I List- II
A. Jaidev 1. Vikramaditya I
B. Bilhana 2. Lakshaman Sena
C. Amarsimha 3. Yashovarman of Kannauj
D. Vakpatiraja 4. Chandragupta 11
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)
12. Match List -I (Inventor) with List- II (Ways)
List- I List- II
A. Christopher Columbus 1.Near the travelling of southern parts of South Africa
B. Bartholomen Diaz 2. Travelling from Spain and crossing the Atlantic and
going through west region by seaway.
C. Magellan 3. Reaching the Malabar Soil after circulating the
southern parts of South Africa
D. Vasco-de- Gama 4. Travelling by sea-way of all countries.
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following songs was so melodious for Mahatma Gandhi, who wrote in this regard. ‘If I forget Bhagwatgita, this only song gives me strength and promotes……
(a) Jan Gan Man Adhinayak….
(b) Raghupati Raghav Raja Ram….
(c) Vaishnav Jan to Tene Kahie….
(d) Iswar Allah Tero Nam..,.
Ans. (b)
14. Match List -I with List -II
List -I List- II
A. Nagarjuna 1.Knowlèdge is the primary means of Salvation
B. Shankaryacharya 2. Woman Saint
C. Andal 3. Tried to assimilate Bhakti to the tradition of the Vedas
D. Ramanuja 4. Played an important role in the spread of Buddhism
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)
15. Match. List I with List II
List –I List -II
A. Kane cave temples 1. Mahayana
B. Khandagiri rock cut halls 2. Shaivite
C. Bagh caves 3. Hinayana
D. Badami cave temp1es 4. Jain
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (a)
16. ‘Milk’ is an example of:
(a) Collidal
(b) Gel
(c) Imulsion
(d) Foam
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following trees gains the oil of Tarpin?
(a) Netum
(b) Mycuss
(c) Devdar
(d) Chir
Ans. (d)
18. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Carbohydrate 1. Pepsin
B. Enzyme 2. Starch
C. Hormone 3. Kerotin
D. Protein 4. Projestron
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 l 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b)
19. Herbarium is
(a) collection of herb in a dry place
(b) one of the centers where different types of herbs are there
(c) a centre where the medical herbs are kept
(d) a centre where the dry botanical elements are conserved
Ans. (a)
20. The widely used antibiotic, penicillin, is produced by
(a) an algae
(b) a bacterium
(c) a fungus
(d) chemical means
Ans. (b)
21. Lichen is considered to be a symbiotic association of two organisms. Which organisms are involved in it?
(a) Algae and bacteria
(b) Algae and fungi
(c) Algae and bryophytes
(d) Fungi and bryophytes
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following is a microelement?
(a) Chlorine
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (b)
23. Match the Scientific Discoveries in List- I with the Scientists in List- II
List- I List-II
A. DNA structure 1. Jacob and Monod
B. ABO blood groups 2. Barbara McClintock
C. Jumping genes 3. Watson and Crick
D. Regulatory genes 4. Land Steiner
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
24. Match List -I with List-II
List- I List -II
(Herb) (Resources)
A. Kunain 1. Leaves
B. Digitlis 2. Fruits
C. Roubolfia 3. Epidermis
D. Heroin 4. Root
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)
25. After few distance the television signal is not adopted by T.V. set because of-
(a) weak signal
(b) weak receiver antenna
(c) absorption of signal by air
(d) aperture of earth
Ans. (d)
26. In respect of D.C. A.C. is profitable
(a) In A.C. maximum of electric energy are present
(b) A.C. voltage is free from increase or decrease
(c) Cost of A.C. production is less
(d) A.C can send in maximum distance without less power consumption
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the planets have not any satellite, more around the planets?
(a) Venus and Mars
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mars and Venus
(d Neptune and Pluto
Ans. (b)
28. In cold regions, where temperature may fall below 0°C, farmers fill their fields with water to protect their crops from damage because
(a) water is abundantly available in cold regions
(b) water has low specific heat capacity and volume of water increases when temperature falls below 4°C
(c) water has high specific heat capacity
(d) plenty of water is absorbed by soil in cold regions
Ans. (c)
29. A rocket and a jet engine differ because
A. their working principles are entirely different
B. a rocket uses only liquid fuels whereas a jet can use solid fuels as well
C. while a rocket carries its own oxygen supply, a jet draws its air out of the atmosphere
D. a rocket can propel vehicles into outer space whereas a jet cannot
The correct combination is:
(a) C, D
(c) A, B.
(b) B, C, D
(d) A, C, D
Ans. (d)
30. Name the Constitutional Amendment by which three new states Chattisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand have been created.
(a) 81st Constitutional Amendment, 1999
(b) 82nd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(c) 83rd Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(d) 84th Constitutional Amendment, 2000
Ans. (b)
31. Who is the author of the book ‘My Girlhood: An Autobiography’?
(a) Arundhati Roy
(b) Taslima Nasreen
(b) Medha Patkar
(d) Sobha De
Ans. (b)
32. Liquefied Petroleum Gas consists of mainly
(a) Methane, Ethane, Hexane
(b) Ethane, Hexane, Butane
(c) Methane, Butane, Propane
(d) Methane, Butane, Hexane
Ans. (a)
33. After defeat of which Hindu emperor Vijayanagar Dynasty ended?
(a) Krishnadeva Rai
(b) Ram. Raja
(c) Harihar Rai
(d) Bukka Rai
Ans. (c)
34. Match List I with List II
List- I List- II
A. Hirakud barrage l. Vyas
B. Thin barrage 2. Chenab
C. Salal project 3. Ravi
D. Ponga barrage 4. Mahanadi
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
35. In music seventh ‘Sa’, ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(a) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is less than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(b) the frequency of pronunciation ‘Sa’ is greater than the frequency of ‘Re’, ‘Ga’
(c) frequencies re decreasing respectively
(d) frequencies are equal of all pronunciations
Ans. (d)
36. If two persons are talking in space of moon then-
(a) in respect to earth, the sound is listened by each other on moon after maximum time.
(b) the time taken in listening to the sound are equal at both places.
(c) sound cannot be heard on moon.
(d) sound of echo can be heard by each other again and again.
Ans. (a)
37. Though water is transparent to visible light yet it is not possible to see distant objects in the fog which consists of fine drops of water suspended in air.
The reason for this is that-
(a) fog affects our vision adversely.
(b) most of the light is scattered and hence this appears invisible.
(c) the light rays suffer total internal reflection and cannot reach directly the eyes of the observer.
(d) fine drops of water are opaque to visible light.
Ans. (d)
38. Producer gas is used as a fuel and also as a source of nitrogen.
The gas is obtained by
(a) spraying oil into hot retorts.
(b) passing a mixture of steam and air over incandescent coke
(c) passing air through a bed of incandescent coke.
(d) passing steam over incandescent coke
Ans. (b)
39. The earth moves round ‘the sun an elliptical path. The speed of the earth in its orbital path around the sun
(a) is uniform
(b) decreases when the distance between them increases
(c) increases when the distance between them decreases
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
40. Zimbabwe was formerly known as —
(a) Rhodesia
(b) Mali
(c) Namibia
(d) Zanzibar
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Bonn — Danube
(b) Baghdad — Tigris
(c) Rome — Seine
(d) Paris — Tiber
Ans. (b)
42. The canal joining Baltic Sea to North Sea is—
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Suez Canal
(c Panama Canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following rivers does not form any delta at its mouth?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Tapti
Ans. (d)
44. Srinagar is situated on the bank of river—
(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Jhelam
(d) Chenab
Ans. (c)
45. The Shompens are the tribal people of—
(a) Andaman
(b) Nicobar
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
46. Match the following—
Column I Column II
A. Manas 1. Hangul
B. Dachigam 2. Elephant
C. Mudumalai 3. Tiger
D. Kaziranga 3. Rhinoceros
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (b)
47. In India Plan holiday was after—
(a) China -India war of 1962
(b) Drought of 1966
(c) Pakistan War of 1971
(d) Pakistan War of 1965
Ans. (b)
48. Which of the following is not a ‘Free Trade Zone’?
(a) Kandla
(b) Mumbai
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Trivandrum
Ans. (a)
49. ‘Butterfly’ word is related to—
(a) basketball
(b) snooker
(c) swimming
(d) boating
Ans. (c)
50. ‘Astigmatism’ is a disease of—
(a) ears
(b) eyes
(c) nose
(d) throat
Ans. (b)
sample gk paper for Trainee vacancy in Heavy Water Board
1. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Encephalitis — Brain
(b) Colitis — Colon
(c) Hepatitis — Liver
(d) Jaundice — Throat
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following, types of clothes is manufactured by using petroleum product?
(a) Rayon silk
(b) Terylene
(c) Silk
(d) Cotton
Ans. (b)
3. The function of hemoglobin in body is—
(a) Transport of oxygen.
(b) Destruction of bacteria
(c) Prevention of anaemia
(d) Utilization of iron
Ans. (a)
4. Which disease is more common among agricultural workers as compared to urban population?
(a) Lung’s disease
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) Hookworm infection
(d) Cancer
Ans. (c)
5. Biological fixation of nitrogen occurs most commonly in which of the following crops?
(a) Pulses
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the following grows under the tree?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Bengal gram
(c) Peanuts
(d) Castor
Ans. (c)
7. Which of the following is an example of a plant which bears seeds but no fruits?
(a) Cotton plant
(b) Peepal plant
(c) Eucalyptus tree
(d) Pine tree
Ans. (a)
8. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is—
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Ans. (a)
9. The image formed on the retina of a human eye is—
(a) Real and upright
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Imaginary and upright
(d) Imaginary and inverted
Ans. (b)
10. In increasing sequence, the major elements, present in the human body are—
(a) Calcium, iron, sodium, phosphorus
(b) Calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur
(c) Calcium, iron, sodium, sulphur
(d) Calcium, potassium, phosphorus, iron
Ans. (c)
11. A light sensitive compound used in photography is—
(a) Silver chloride
(b) Silver sulphide
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Silver oxide
Ans. (c)
12. Protective foods in our diet are?
(a) fats and vitamins
(b carbohydrates and minerals
(c) vitamins .and minerals
(d) proteins and carbohydrates
Ans. (c)
13. The ancient name of Bengal was—
(a) Kamrupa
(b) Vasta
(ç) Gauda
(d) Vallabhi
Ans. (c)
14. Ahilyabai was the queen of?
(a) Gwalior
(b) Malwa
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bijapur
Ans. (a)
15. Moorish traveller, Ibn Batutah, came to India during the time of -
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Balban,
(d) Muhammed Bin Tughlaq
Ans. (d)
16. The main occupation of Harappan civilization was—
(a) agriculture
(b) cattle rearing
(c) commerce
(d) hunting
Ans. (c)
17. The Mahabalipuram temples were built by the King of dynasty?
(a) Gupta
(b) Chola
(c) Pallavas
(d) Kushans
Ans. (c)
18. The first telegraph line between Calcutta and Agra was opened in—
(a) 1852
(b) 1853
(c) 1854
(d 1855
Ans. (b)
19. The first discourse of Buddha in Sarnath is called—
(a) Mahabhiniskranan
(b) Mahaparinirvana
(c) Mabamastakabhishekha
(d) Dharmachakrapravartan
Ans. (d)
20. The political and cultural centre of the Pandyas was—
(a) Vengi
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Mahabalipuram
Ans. (b)
21. What is the correct chronological order in which the following invaded India?
(1) Huns
(2) Kushans
(3) Aryans
(4) Greeks
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (b)
22. Who wrote Mitakshara, a book on Hindu law?
(a) Nayachandra
(b) Amoghavarsa
(c) Vijaneswara
(d) Kumban
Ans. (c)
23. Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of—
(a) Chalukya raids
(b) Greek invasion
(c) Hun invasion
(d) Pallava raids
Ans. (c)
24. Who founded the Hindu Shah dynasty of Punjab?
(a) Vasumitra
(b) Kallar
(c) Jayapala
(d) Mahipala
Ans. (b)
25. The main external threat to the Sultanate of Delhi was posed by the—
(a) Mongols
(b) Afghans
(c) Iranians
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
26. Who among the following was a Leading exponent of Gandhian thoughts?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) M.N. Roy
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan.
Ans. (c)
27. Who were the immediate successors of the Imperial Mauryas in Maghádha?
(a) Kushans
(b) Pandyas
(c) Satvahanas
(d) Sungas
Ans. (d)
28. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached during the reign of—
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Nandivardhan
(d) Uday
Ans. (b)
29. Jahangir Mahal is located in—
(a) Delhi
(b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Agra Fort
(d) Sikandara
Ans. (c)
30. The percentage of glucose present in normal urine is—
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 9.5%
(d) 0%
Ans. (d)
31. The magnetic effect of electric current was first observed by—
(a) Henry
(b) Oersted
(c) Faraday
(d) Volta
Ans. (c)
32. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(a) 4.5%
(b) 2.7%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 5.8%
Ans. (b)
33. The black hole theory was discovered by—
(a) S. Chandrasekhar
(b) Har Govind Khurana
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujam
Ans. (a)
34. The main contribution of Chola dynasty in the field of administration lies in—
(a) systematic provincial administration
(b) a well planned revenue system
(c) a well organized central government
(d) an organized local self government
Ans. (d)
35. Who founded the philosophy of Pustimarga?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Nanak
(c) Surdas
(d) Ballabhacharya
Ans. (d)
36. Which of the following-battles changed the destiny of a Mughal ruler in India?—
(a) Haldighati
(b) Panipat II
(c) Khanua
(d) Chausa
Ans. (d)
37. ‘The Vedas contain all they truth; was interpreted by—
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Dayananda
(c) Ram Mohan Rai
(d) S. Radhakrisnan
Ans. (b)
38. Match the columns—
Column I Column II
A. Second battle of Panipat 1. Decline of Vijaya Nagar
B. Second battle 2. British rule in India
C. Battle of Talikota 3. Turkish rule in India
D. Battle of Plassey 4. Mughal rule in India
5. Slave dynasty in India
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)
39. Babar entered India for the first time from the west through—
(a) Kashmir
(b) Sindh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
40. Which was first among the following?
(â) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Double Government
Ans. (d)
41. The name of Lord ‘Cornwallis is associated with the—
(a) Dual government
(b) Maratha wars
(c) System of subsidiary alliances
(d) Permanent settlement
Ans. (d)
42. Sir Charles Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 dealt with—
(a) administrative reforms
(b) social reforms
(c) economic reforms
(d) educational reforms
Ans. (d)
43. The sea route to India was discovered by the—
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following pairs is correct?
(a) Ashvaghosa — Vikramaditya
(b) Banabhatta — Harshavardhana
(c) Harisena — Kanishka
(d) Kalidasa — Samudragupta
Ans. (b)
45. 4th July, 1776 is important in world history because of—
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Sea route to India was discovered
(c) English King Charles II was executed
(d) American Congress adopted the Declaration of Independence
Ans. (d)
46. Rowlatt Act was passed in the year—
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) 1932
Ans. (b)
47. Communal electorate in India was introduced through which of the following acts?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1921
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
48. Abhinav Bharat was organized by—
(a) Bhai Parmanand
(b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Vir Savarkar
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
49. On 22nd December which of the following places has the largest day and shortest night?
(a) Melbourne
(b) Moscow
(c) Madrid
(d) Madras
Ans. (a)
50. High pressure subtropical calm belts known as ‘Horse Latitudes’ lie between—
(a) 0° and 15°
(b) 20° and 25°
(c) 30° and 35°
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
India GK Solved Objective Questions
1. Colour of sky is often blue—
(a) because of reflection
(b) because of scattering
(c) because of refraction
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
2. If you mix red and peacock blue colour which colour will be made?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
Ans. (b)
3. Which are primary colours?
(a) Blue + Green + Red
(b) Yellow + Magenta Peacock blue
(c) White + Green + Yellow
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
4. What is the work of ‘Iris’?
(a) To balance mass of light this goes into the eye
(b) To return mass to light this goes in eye
(c) To send figure to reflective lens
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. Light wave is —
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) both
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
6. The work of carbon rod is dry shell is—
(a) as anode
(b) as cathode
(c) as both
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
7. If electric motor electric energy is transformed into which energy?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) mechanical energy
(c) potential energy
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. ‘Fluorspar’ is an ore of—
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium
(c) copper
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
9. Aluminum sulphate is used—
(a) in printing of textile
(b) in fire extinguisher
(c) in both
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
10. Main work of R. N.A. is—
(a) to help in digestion
(b) to help in protein synthesis
(c) in both
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
11. Which part of papaya is edible?
(a) Fleshy thalamus
(b) Seeds
(c) Both
(d) Petal
Ans. (a)
12. If you pressurize two pieces of ice together, then they adhere to each other because—
(a) as pressure increases, melting point of ice increases
(b) as pressure increases, melting point of ice decreases
(c) as pressure increases, melting point of ice first decreases then increases
(d) there is no relation between pressure and boiling point
Ans. (b)
13. In full glass of water a piece of ice is swimming, after the entire piece of ice melts down, level of water will—
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) unchanged
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. If you put sodium in water which gas is formed?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following is normally not necessary in growing of a plant?
(a) Water
(b) Light
(c) Air
(d) Temperature
Ans. (b)
16. Acid changes—
(a) blue litmus into red
(b) red litmus into blue
(c) no change in colour of litmus
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. Atomic number of an element is 35 and number of electrons is 18 then what will be number of protons in the element?
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 15
Ans. (b)
18. For 1 gram weight of a substance to undergo a change of 1°C temperature what is the necessary mass of heat required called?
(a) Energy
(b) Specific heat
(c) Latent heat
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
19. Atomic weight of the element is determined in—
(a) gram
(b) miligram
(c) a.m.u.
(d) kilogram
Ans. (c)
20. Lunar eclipse occurs on a—
(a) new moon day
(b) full moon day
(c) half moon day
(d) (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
21. The meetings of the Rajya Sabha are presided over by the—
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
Ans. (b)
22. ‘Black Pagoda’ is in—
(a) Egypt
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Konark
(d) Madurai
Ans. (c)
23. Wodeyars were rulers of—
(a) Mysore
(b) Vijaynagaram
(c) Travancore
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
24. What is meant by myopia?
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Short-sightedness
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Night blindness
Ans. (b)
25. Non conventional source of energy best suited for India is —
(a) solar energy
(b) wind energy
(c) tidal wave energy
(d) nuclear energy
Ans. (a)
26. Who is the recent Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awardee?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Rahul Dravid
(c) Anju George
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
27. The international court of justice has—
(a) 10 judges
(b) 15 judges
(c) 20 judges
(d) 25 judges
Ans. (b)
28. Why do diamonds shine at night?
(a) Diamonds are radioactive, so there are radiations
(b) On account of high refractive index, the rays of light get internally reflected•
(c) Diamonds shine because they have a tetrahedral molecular structure
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
29. Process of breeding fish In ponds, artificial reservoirs is known as—
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Fishing
(c) Apiculture
(d) Piscicultue
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following is dissimilar?
(a) Resistance
(b) Capacitor
(c) Calorie
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
31. Which of the following does not possess a railway headquarters?
(a) Hubli
(b) Hajipur
(c) Bilaspur
(d) Ahmedabad
Ans. (d)
32. In which of the following places railway items are not manufactured?
(a) Varanasi
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai
Ans. (d)
33. ‘Küchipudi’ is a dance of which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Ans. (c)
34. Which of the following is true about wheat crops?
(a) Growing in October — November and harvest in March
(b) Harvest in January — February and growing in June — July
(c) Growing in June — July and harvest in March — April
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
35. In which city did Virendra Shewag make 300 runs and become one of the best players of India?
(a) Karachi
(b) Islamabad
(c) Multan
(d) Lahore
Ans. (c)
36. If you go from Kolkata to Kanyakumari then you do not pass which place?
(a) Bhubaneshwar
(b) Chennai
(c) Solapur
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (c)
37. Cherrapunji and Jaintia tribes are related to which state?
(a) Manipur
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (c)
38. A stable magnet always shows—
(a) North-North and South- South
(b) North-South and South -North
(c) East-East and West-West
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
39. Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma is related to which of the following?
(a) Sitar
(b) Santoor
(c) Flute
(d) Tabla
Ans. (b)
40. When brake is applied to a bus in motion, the passengers in the bus lean forward. Which of the following laws explains this phenomenon?
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(c The rule of momentum
Ans. (a)
41. If a man’s temperature is 40°C, then what will be the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(a) 104°F
(b) 120°F
(c) 130°F
(d) 98°F
Ans. (a)
42. Who is the Director of film ‘Road to Laddakh’?
(a) Mrinal Sen.
(b) Aswani Kumar
(c) Satyajit Ray
(d) Shriram Lagu
Ans. (c)
43. Intensive subsistence farming is the characterists of the area of
(a) high density of population and high technology.
(b) low density of population and high technology.
(c) low density of population and low technology.
(d) high density of population and low technology.
Ans. (b)
44. Monoculture is a typical characteristic of
(a) shifting cultivation
(b) subsistence farming
(c) commercial grain farming
(d) speeia1ised horticulture
Ans. (b)
45. Where do Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form Ganga?
(a) Karan Prayag
(b) Dev Prayag
(c) Rudra Prayag
(d) Gangotri
Ans. (b)
46. What causes the difference of time between two places?
(a) Latitude and Longitude
(b) Longitude
(c) Longitude and distance from equator
(d) Latitude, Longitude and distance from equator
Ans. (b)
47. Which of the following types of soils has surface accumulation of organic matter?
(a) Peaty soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Red soil
Ans. (d)
48. Which crop requires a large amount of rainfall and no standing water?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Tea
(d) Groundnut
Ans. (d)
49. Match List- I with List- II
List –I List- II
A. Coal 1. Hazaribagh
B. Iron 2. Neyveli
C. Lignite 3. Rourkela
D. Mica 4. Jharia
The correct answer code is
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (a)
50. “Isokron” is the line which joins such places which are equal in
(a) point of travelling time
(b) period
(b) rain
(c) mean height of sea level
(d) fog
Ans. (d)
general Awareness for State Civil Services Exam, State Public Service Commission
1. Where is the ‘Leaning Tower’ of Pisa is situated in?
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) America
(d) Switzerland
Ans. (b)
2. The light with wave length in spectrum is—
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (a)
3. ‘Petroleum’ is a compound mixture of—
(a) Propane and Butane
(b) Ethylene and Ethane
(c) Symozene and Ethylene
(d) Regolene and Hexane
Ans. (a)
4. For which reason clouds do not rain in desert?
(a) Reason of maximum air velocity
(b) Reason of minimum temperature
(c) Reason of minimum air velocity
(d) Reason of minimum humidity
Ans. (a)
5. In which international championship ‘Thomas Cup’ is given?
(a) Football
(b) Cricket
(c) Badminton
(d) Tennis
Ans. (c)
6. Which person is known as ‘Grand Old Man’ of India?
(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Vallabhai Patel
Ans. (a)
7. The famous book ‘Geet Govind’ is written by—
(a) Banabhatta
(b) Jaidev
(c) Mirabai
(d) Kalidas
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following persons related to T.E. Lawrence?
(a) The people of China
(b) Inhabitants of Mongolia
(c) The, persons of Afghanistan
(d) The persons of Arabia
Ans. (b)
9. Who was the founder of Vijaya Nagar state?
(a) Raj Raja
(b) Narsimha Varman
(c) Han Hara and Bukka
(d) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans. (c)
10. Who was the famous ruler of Ancient India, who adopted Jain Dharam at the last movement?
(a) Chandra Gupta
(b) Ashoka
(c) Samudra Gupta
(d) Bindusar
Ans. (a)
11. Which of the following writers wrote at the time of restoration of Italy?
(a) Homer
(b) Rossetti
(c) Dante
(d) Virgil
Ans. (c)
12. Find the wrong arrangement—
(a) J. L. Baird : Television
(b) J. Parkinson : Penicillin
(c) James Watt : Steam Engine
(d) A. G. Bell : Telephone
Ans. (b)
13. Who is the author of ‘Bharat Bharati’?
(a) Maithilisharan Gupta
(b) Suryakant Tripathi ‘Nirala’
(c) Mahadevi Verma
(d) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’
Ans. (a)
14. ‘Gambit’ is related to which of the following sports?
(a) Carom
(b) Bridge
(c) Chess
(d) Billiards
Ans. (c)
15. Siachen is—
(a) Limiting glacier zone between India and Pakistan
(b) Limiting desert zone between India and Pakistan
(c) Limiting zone between China and Pakistan
(d) Limiting zone between India and Myanmar
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Listor — Treatment of Leprosy
(b) Jonas. E. Salk — Vaccine against Polio
(c) Alexander Fleming — Discovery of Penicillin
(d) Edward Jenner — Vaccination against Small Pox
Ans. (b)
17. In which area is the Ivory and Ismail Merchant famous?
(a) Medicine
(b) Electronic Media
(c) Music
(d) Film Production
Ans. (d)
18. The minimum age required to contest the election for Lok Sabha is—
(a) 30 yrs
(b) 35 yrs
(c) 21 yrs
(d) 25 yrs
Ans. (d)
19. The time gap between two sessions of Parliament is not more than
(a) 9 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans. (d)
20. For which reason was Bengal divided?
(a) Fulfill the Muslims
(b) Aggravate the tension between Hindus and Muslims
(c) Subdue of revolution
(d) Appeasement of Hindus and Muslims
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following U.N.O. Secretary died in an air crash?
(a) U. Thant
(b) Kurt Waldeim
(c) Trygve Lie
(d) Dag Hammarskjoeld
Ans. (a)
22. Which statement is not correct with reference to Gujarat?
(a) It is the largest tobacco ‘producer
(b) It is the largest groundnut producer
(c) It is the largest salt producer
(d) Largest producer of milk
Ans. (d)
23. What is Doldrums?
(a) Trade winds
(b) Minimum pressure around the Equator where air is minimum and sea available
(c) Area of maximum humidity
(d) Peace zone of sea
Ans. (b)
24. Khetri is famous for—
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminum
(d) fertilizer
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is related to freedom, similarity and friendship?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) Olympic Games
(c Industrial Revolution
Ans. (b)
26. Cyclone is related to Anticyclone in the same way as flood is related to—
(a) river
(b) drought
(c) devastation
(d) havoc
Ans. (b)
27. Match List -I with List -II
List-I List -II
A. Lignite 1. Copper
B. Bauxite 2. Iron
C. Magnetite 3. Aluminum
D. Pyrite 4. Coal
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 13 2
Ans. (c)
28. The order of the layers in the atmosphere, upwards from below is
(a) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere
(b) Exosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere
(c) Troposphere, Magnetosphere, Stratosphere, Exosphere
(d) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere
Ans. (b)
29. Arrange the planets correctly in descending order in terms of number of their satellites
1: Uranus
2. Jupiter
3. Saturn
4. Mars
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 2. 3, 4, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
30. The main objective of the Fundamental Rights is to
(a) promote a socialist pattern of society
(b) ensure individual liberty
(c) ensure independence of a judiciary
(d) ensure all of the above
Ans. (d)
31. Fundamental Duties were important in the Constitution to
(a) prevent the misuse of Fundamental Rights
(b) make the Fundamental Rights more meaningful
(c) curb subversive and unconstitutional activities.
(d) curb the growing power of the executive
Ans. (a)
32. The Presidential address is prepared by
(a) Special secretary of the President
(b) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister and his Cabinet
Ans. (b)
33. The President can extend the life of the Lok Sabha during the National Emergency in the first instance for a period of
(a) three months
(b) six months
(c) nine months
(d twelve months
Ans. (c)
34. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available?
(a) A member of the panel of Chairman announced by the Speaker
(b) A member nominated by the President
(c) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
35. The ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
(a) the President
(b) the State Council Ministers
(c) the State Legislature
(d) all of these
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following powers• are available to the president but not to the Governor of state?
1. To grant pardon in case of death sentence
2. Diplomatic powers
3. To veto the bills passed by the state Legislature
4. To declare emergency
Select the correct answer from the following
(a) 1, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. (c)
37. A. law passed by a state on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the law of the centre
(a) if it was passed earlier than the Central Law.
(b) if the majority of State Legislatures so decides.
(c) if the Supreme Court so decides.
(d) if it was passed by the State Legislature and approved by the President before enactment of the Central Law.
Ans. (c)
38. Rajasthan Canal receives water from
(a) Sutlej river
(b) Beas river
(c) Chambal river
(d) Ravi river
Ans. (a)
39. Match List I with List II
List –I List -II
A. Huen Tsang 1. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Fa-hein’s 2. Harshavardhana
C. Megasthenese 3. Jehangir
D. Sir Thomas Row 4. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
40. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Mahatma Gandhi 1. India Divided
B. Ram Manohar Lohia 2. India Wins Freedom
C. Dr. Rajendra. 3. Hind Prasad Swaraj
D. Maulana Azad 4. The Wheel of History
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following rivers divided the Aravali Mountain series?
(a) Chambal and Sarsäwati
(b) Chambal and Sabarmati
(c) Narmada and Mana
(d) Luni and Manas
Ans. (d)
42. Match List- I with List- II
List -I List-II
A. Lactic acid 1 Lemon
B. Acetic acid 2. Rancid
C. Citric acid 3. Mi1k
D. Butyric acid 4. Vinegar
5. Wine
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 5 4 3 2
(b) 3 1 4 5
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (c)
43. Match List- I with List- II
List –I List -II
A. Billiards 1. Vijaya Lakshmi
B Women’s Chess 2. Ashok Shandilya
C. Shooting 3. Alok Kumar
D. Shooting 4. Ritwik Bhattacharya
5. Jaspal Rana
The correct answer code is:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 5 3 2
(d) 3 2 5 1
Ans. (b)
44. Which place was venue of 2006 Winter Olympic Games?
(a) Budapest
(b) Montreal
(c) Warsaw
(d) Turin
Ans. (d)
45. ‘Rudra Sagar Lake’ is a national park situated in which state?
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Punjab
Ans. (b)
46. The first law officer of the government of India is the:
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Attorney general
C. Law ‘minister
D. Auditor general
Ans. (B)
47. What is the maximum age for being the President?
A. 60 years
B. 65 years
C. 70 years
D. There is no age limit
Ans. (D)
48. The Panchayati Raj institutions in India have been established as per the constitutional directions of the:
A. Preamble
B. Fundamental rights
C. Tenets of federalism
D. Directive principles
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Giddha’ is a dance of which state?
A. Gujarat
B. Assam (Asom)
C. Punjab
D. Haryana
Ans. (C)
50. Dr. Hargobind Khurana is credited with the discovery of the synthesis of:
A. Genes
B. Proteins
C. Blood
D. Nitrogenous bases
Ans. (A)
General Knowledge Informations General Knowledge in India
1. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Chess
(b) Snooker
(ç) Golf
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
2. ‘The Lord of Rings The Return of the King’ won Oscar awards in how many categories?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans. (c)
3. As per census 2001, this of the following has the lowest density of population?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)
4. Which of the following is the latest Tank?
(a) Akash
(b) Prithvi
(c) Arjun
(d) Bhim
Ans. (c)
5. The colour sensitive part of the eye is—
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) ciliary muscle
(d) retina
Ans. (a)
6. Asteroids lie between—
(a) Mars and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Mars and Earth
(d) Mars and Saturn
Ans. (a)
7. Doldrums refer to—
(a) low pressure in Equatorial region
(b) high pressure in Equatorial region
(c) low pressure in sub-polar region
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
8. El Nino is related to—
(a) cold current in East Coast of South America
(b) warm current in West Coast of South America
(c) current along the Pacific Ocean
(d) current in the Pacific Ocean in Indian Continent
Ans. (b)
9. If in Greenwich the time is 12 Noon, what is the time at 50°E Longitude?
(a) 8.40AM
(b) 3.20 PM
(c) 3.00 PM
(d) 8.00 AM
Ans. (b)
10. High level language is—
(a) machine dependent language
(b) machine independent language
(c) computer language
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
11. How many bones are there in adult human body?
(a) 200
(c) 206
(b) 203
(d) 212
Ans. (c)
12. Solder is an alloy of—
(a) tin and lead
(b) tin and copper
(c) lead and nickel
(d) tin and nickel
Ans. (a)
13. The meeting of Indian National Congress in 1942 at Bombay was important for—
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Poorna Swaraj
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
14. Full form of ATM is—
(a) All Time Money
(b) Any Time Machine
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) All Time Machine
Ans. (c)
15. Which Of the following is used for preservation of food materials?
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Boric acid
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Citric acid
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following is made by Bessemer’s process?
(a) Tin
(b) Ammonia
(c) Steel
(d) Hydrogen
Ans. (c)
17. Silicon is—
(a) conductor
(b) semi conductor
(c) insulator
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
18. Calculate percentage of potassium permanganate –
(K=39, Mn = 4 O =16)
(a) 10 %
(b) 30 %
(c) 11 %
(d) 24 %
Ans. (d)
19. TRAI is related to—
(a) Telecom Regulatory Association of India
(b) Telecast Regulatory Association of India
(c) Telephone Regulatory Authority of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
20. Which of these is responsible for Green House Effect?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (a)
21. Ore of aluminum is—
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Bauxite
(d) Carnalite
Ans. (c)
22. Modern periodic table is based on—
(a) atomic weight
(b) molecular weight
(c) atomic number
(d) neutrons
Ans. (c)
23. Black-cotton is the name for—
(a) textile
(b) coal
(c) a group of old mountains
(d) gold
Ans. (c)
24. Full form of NPA will be—
(a) Non Permanent Address
(b) Net profit Amount
(c) Non-Performing Assets
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following deficiencies causes disease in teeth?
(a) Zinc
(b) Florine
(c) Manganese
(d) Aluminum
Ans. (b)
26. Wardha movement, is related to—
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Bose
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)
27. SEBI is related to—
(a) State Exchange Board of India
(b) Security Exchange Board of India
(c) Stock Exchange Board of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
28. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Maldives
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans. (a)
29. HIV is related to—
(a) Cancer
(b) Plague
(c) Hepatitis
(d) AIDS
Ans. (d)
30. What is light year?
(a) Distance traveled by light in one day
(b) Unit of light
(c) Distance traveled by light in one year
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
31. In an- aeroplane ink of the fountain pen comes outside because—
(a) increase in height decreases atmospheric pressure
(b) increase in height increases atmospheric pressure
(c) increase in height leaves atmospheric pressure unchanged
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
32. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(a) Velocity
(b) Mass
(c) Time
(d) Length
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following engines is weak?
(a) Diesel engine
(b) Petrol engine
(c) Steam engine
(d) Electric engine
Ans. (c)
34. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
(a) S. Rajendra Babu
(b) R.S. Lahoti
(c) J.C. Sharma
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
35. Whose signature is it on the note of Re. 1?
(a) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Auditor General
(d) Advocate General
Ans. (a)
36. ‘Operation Flood’ is related to—
(a) oil
(b) cereal production
(c) milk
(d) egg production
Ans. (c)
37. Larger number of oil refineries are found in—
(a) Porbandar
(b) Jamnagar
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Surat
Ans. (b)
38. Tiger Woods is related to—
(a) polo
(b) snooker
(c) golf
(d) tennis
Ans. (c)
39. Sania Mirza is related to—
(a) athletics
(b) snooker
(c) chess
(d) tennis
Ans. (d)
40. An electroscope is a device—
(a) for generating electrical charge
(b) for producing spark
(c) for determining magnitude of a charge
(d that magnifies electrons so that they are visible
Ans. (d)
41. Why does a cyclist bend while taking a curved turn?
(a) Movement of his cycle and the man must be the same otherwise cycle will slip off
(b) He bends in order to make the centre of gravity remain within the base. This will save him from falling
(c) He bends in order to negotiate the curve faster
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
42. The Governor General associated with abolition of slavery was—
(a) Cornwallis
(b) Bentick
(c) Dalhousie
(d) Ripon
Ans. (d)
43. Who is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Somnath Chatterjee
(b) P.A. Sangma
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
44. Where did Rajeev Gandhi die of human bomb explosion?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Sriperambudur
(d) Colombo
Ans. (c)
45. An ‘astronaut in spaceship sees the sky away from the Sun as
(a) white
(b) red
(c) blue
(d) black
Ans. (d)
46. The term cannon is associated -
(a) snooker
(c) golf
(b) billiards
(d) hockey
Ans. (a)
47. SAIL’s plant in Karnataka is situated at—
(a) Bangalore
(b) Bhadravati
(c) Belgaum
(d) Hubli
Ans. (b)
48. The term ‘Fourth Estate’ refers to -
(a) Backward state
(b) Judiciary
(c) Press
(d) Tea Estates
Ans. (c)
49. Detroit in the U.S.A. is known as the city of—
(a) motor cars
(b) lights
(c) aero planes
(d) rockets
Ans. (a)
50. Which of following crops helps in nitrogen fixation?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Beans
(d) Maize
Ans. (c)
Solved question papers of MP PSC exam of general studies GK
1. The first Europeans to start trade with India were the—
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) French
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
2. Which one of the following ensures personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Warranto
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
3. Herbicides are chemicals which control—
(a) fungi
(b) weeds
(c) nematodes
(d) insects
Ans. (b)
4. The ro1e of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is—
(a) absorption of water
(b) absorption of light
(c) absorption of CO2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
5. Which city is called the Silicon Valley of India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bangalore
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
Ans. (b)
6. All revenues received, loans raised by Union Govt. go into
(a) Public Accounts of India
(b) Contingency Fund India
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. Lines on a map, where pressures are equal are called—
(a) Longitudes
(b) Latitudes
(c) Isobars
(d) Isotopes
Ans. (c)
8. Largest river in the world is—
(a) Nile
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Amazon
(d) Mississippi
Ans. (c)
9. The time gap between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed—
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 1 year
Ans. (b)
10. Acupuncture is widely practiced in—
(a) India
(b) America
(c) China
(d) Germany
Ans. (c)
11.’James Bond’ is a character created by—
(a) Ian Fleming
(b) Perry Mason
(c) Agatha Christie
(d) Wode House
Ans. (a)
12. The oceans cover……. of the surface of the earth.
(a) 71 %
(b) 60 %
(c) 81 %
(d) 90 %
Ans. (a)
13. The term Grand Slam is associated with—
(a) Billiards
(b) Chess
(c) Cricket
(d) Bridge & Tennis
Ans. (d)
14. The study which deals with secret writing is known as—
(a) cryptography
(b) scretology
(c) cytography
(d) cryptology
Ans. (d)
15. City of Golden gates is—
(a) Havana
(b) San Francisco
(c) London
(d) Paris
Ans. (d)
16. The ‘stones’ formed in human kidney consist mostly of—
(a) calcium oxalate
(b) magnesium sulphate
(c) sodium chloride
(d) sodium phosphate
Ans. (c)
17. IC chips used in computers are usually made of—
(a) lead
(b) silicon
(c) chromium
(d) gold
Ans. (b)
18. Which is the capital of Manipur?
(a) Dispur
(b) Imphal
(c) Agartala
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
19. Who is the first Indian Field Marshal?
(a) K. M. Kariappa
(b) SHFJ Manekshaw
(c) Sunderji
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
20. Yakshagana is famous dance of which state?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Orissa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
21. How many squares are there in a Chess Board?
(a) 36
(b) 48
(c) 64
(d) 72
Ans. (c)
22. Which city is famous for oranges?
(a) Ratnagiri
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Nagpur
(d) Lucknow
Ans. (c)
23. ‘Waterloo’ is situated at—
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium
Ans. (d)
24. Problems of Salinity and acidity in Soil’s remedy is—
(a) dry agricultural process
(b) plantation
(c) use of Gypsum in the land
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
25. ‘Malachite’ is the ore of which mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron
Ans. (a)
26. Which of these acids is used in lead storage battery?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Acetic acid
Ans. (a)
27. President of India dissolves the Parliament on the—
(a) advice of Prime Minister
(b) advice of Vice-President
(c) advice of Speaker of Parliament
(d) advice of Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans. (a)
28. Members of Union public Service Commission give their resignation to—
(a) President
(b) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) Prime Minister
Ans. (a)
29. Tri-cameral structure in Panchayati Raj was given by—
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee.:
(c) Vishweshwaria
(d) Singhvi Committee
Ans. (a)
30. The best measurement Of growth
(a) National income
(b) Average Per Capita Income
(c) Import
(d) Export
Ans. (b)
31. In 13th century who was the highest officer in army?
(a) Malik
(b) Khan
(c) Sarkhel
(d) Sipehsalar
Ans. (a)
32. Coal is found in which of these rocks?
(a) Igneous rock
(b) Sedimentary rock
(c) Metamorphic rock
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
33. In the Seventh schedule which subject is defined?
(a) Pension and convenience of the speaker of Parliament
(b) Languages
(c) Union List, state list subject
(d) Panchayati Raj
Ans. (c)
34. India imports maximum amount of which of the following ores?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Manganese
(c) Mica
(d) Sulphur
Ans. (c)
35. In which amendment of Constitution ‘Goa’ was made a state?
(a) 52nd
(b) 58th
(c) 56th
(d) 73rd
Ans. (c)
36. Economic Survey is published by—
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) C.S.O
(d) Indian Commerce Ministry
Ans. (a)
37. Where is National Defence Academy?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Kharagbasla
(d) Dehradoon
Ans. (c)
38. Where is Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Institute of Sport?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Delhi
(d) Patiala
Ans. (d)
39. Jayakvari project is situated on the river—
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Narmada
(d) Cauvery
Ans. (b)
40. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorary
Ans. (a)
41. A common High Court for two or more states and/or Union Territory may be established by—
(a) President
(b) Parliament by making law
(c) Governor of states
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. (b)
42. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) K. M Munshi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) M.C. Setalvad
(d) B. N. Rao
Ans. (d)
43. During the period of Renaissance, new style of architecture first developed in—
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) England
(d) Germany
Ans. (a)
44. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorists of the freedom movement in—
(a) The Madras Presidency
(b) Punjab
(c) Bombay — Karnataka
(d) East Bengal
Ans. (d)
45. Who among the following were popularly known as Red Shirts?
(a) Congress Socialists
(b) Members of Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Khudai – Khidmatgars
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
46. The state in India having dry season for only 3 to 4 months every year is—
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (c)
47. Which .of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Gulbarga — Karnataka
(b) Midnapur — Gujarat
(c) Wardha — Madhya Pradesh
(d) Cochin — Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
48. U. Thant Award is given for—
(a) contribution to east-west understanding
(b) community leadership
(c) social service
(d) journalism
Ans. (b)
49. Bishop Desmond Tutu is the native of—
(a) South Africa
(b) Cuba
(c) Tanzania
(d) Zambia
Ans. (c)
50. The first electric railway opened in—
(a) 1853
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1925
Ans. (d)
L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam Solved Model Question Paper
1. Talcher is famous for—
(a) Steel
(b) Fertilizer
(c) Coal
(d) Thermal Power Station
Ans. (d)
2. The first hydroelectric Power station was commissioned at —
(a) Chambal
(b) Damodar
(c) Mandi
(d) Shivasamudram
Ans. (d)
3. Who was the Temporary Chairman of Constituent Assembly —
(a) Sachchidanand Sinha
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. BR. Ambedkar
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (a)
4. ‘Fundamental Duties’ were added in the Constitution of India by—
(a) 40th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans. (b)
5. High Courts of Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai were established under the—
(a) Government of India Act, 1909
(b) Indian High Court Act, 1865
(c) Indian High Court Act, 1861
(d) Indian High Court Act, 1911
Ans. (c)
6. In Constitution setting up of Village Panchayats finds mention under—
(a) Art. 40
(b) Art. 48
(c) Art 51
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
7. Constitution provides residuary powers to—
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Central and State Governments both
(d) Neither Central Govt. nor State Govt
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Promoting international peace
(b) Providing free and compulsory education to children upto the age of 14 years
(c) Prohibition of slaughter of cows
(d) Abolition of private property
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following is a source of income of Gram Panchayat?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Professional Tax
(d) Levy Duties
Ans. (d)
10. The duration between two Sessions of Parliament should not be more than—
(a) 9 months
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
Ans. (d)
11. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the jurisdiction of—
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
12. Where is the headquarters of OPEC?
(a) Vienna
(b) Riyadh
(c) Algiers
(d) Baghdad
Ans. (a)
13. The six official languages of the U.N: are Russian, Chinese, English, French, Spanish and:
(a) Hindi
(b) Arabic
(c) Urdu
(d) Japanese
Ans. (b)
14. International Day of Disabled is observed on—
(a) December 13th
(b) December 3rd
(c) December 23rd
(d) December 30th
Ans. (b)
15. Chattisgarh was created as the state—
(a) 28th
(b) 26th
(c) 25th
(d) 27th
Ans. (b)
16. As per Census 2001, which state is most populated after Uttar Pradesh and Mahrashtra?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
17. The first country to issue paper currency was—
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Ans. (c)
18. Which leading daily newspapers of India has second largest circulation?
(a) The Times of India
(b) The Indian Express
(c) Dainik Jagran
(d) Dainik Bhaskar
Ans. (b)
19. ‘Bharat Bharati’ was written by—
(a) Jai Shankar Prasad
(b) Maithili Saran Gupt
(c) Prem Chand
d) Swami Sivananda
Ans. (b)
20. The book ‘Midnight’s Children’ is written by—
(a) Shakespeare
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Salman Rushdie
(d) Khushwant Singh
Ans. (c)
21. The headquarter of Indian Space Research Organization is at—
(a) Mumbai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
22. In which of these forms is energy found in a dry shell?
(a) Mechanical
(b) Electrical
(c) Chemical
(d) Electro Magnetic
Ans. (c)
23. Which is the hardest element of the following?
(a) Diamond
(b) Lead
(c) Tungsten
(d) Iron
Ans. (a)
24. Which of these is called ‘Land of Rising Sun’?
(a) Norway
(b) Britain
(c) Japan
(d) India
Ans. (c)
25. What is blue vitriol?
(a) Copper sulphate
(b) Calcium
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium Sulphate
Ans. (a)
26. Which language is 2nd most spoken, language of India?
(a) Telugu
(b) Tamil
(c) Marathi
(d) Bengali
Ans. (d)
27. ‘Karagam’ is the folk dance of—
(a) ‘Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Himacha1 Pradesh
Ans. (b)
28. Who started the first newspaper in India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) James Hickey
Ans. (d)
29. The ‘SAARC’ was founded in—
(a) 1982
(b) 1983
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Ans. (d)
30. The largest constituent of atmospheric air is—
(a) oxygen
(b) nitrogen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) water vapour
Ans. (b)
31. Which of the following is a warm current?
(a) California Current
(b) Brazilian Current
(c) Venezuela Current
(d) Labrador Current
Ans. (b)
32. On the surface of the earth, the largest ocean is—
(a) Atlantic
(b) Indian
(c) Pacific
(d) Arctic
Ans. (c)
33. U. Thant Cup is associated with —
(a) tennis
(b) golf
(c) football
(d) world badminton (women)
Ans. (a)
34. Kakrapara project is related to the development of which of these?
(a) Tapti Valley
(b) Narmada Valley
(c) Tungbhadra Valley
(d) Krishna Valley
Ans. (a)
35. National Highways Number I connect?
(a) Mumbai to Kolkata
(b) Delhi to Kolkata
(c) Mumbai to Delhi
(d) Delhi to Amritsar
Ans. (d)
36. India is known for 80% deposits of which of the minerals?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Plutonium
(d) Mica
Ans. (d)
37. Which is the longest river in southern part of India?
(a) Godavari
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Cauvery
(d) Krishna
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following countries has the least area?
(a) Bermuda
(b) Syria
(c) Nigeria
(d) Vatican City
Ans. (d)
39. The brightest planet is?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury
Ans. (a)
40. Two states which produce largest amount of tobacco are?
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(b) West Bengal and Mahrashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat
Ans. (d)
41. Yasin Merchant is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Badminton
(b) Golf
(c) Hockey
(d) Snooker
Ans. (d)
42. ‘Dwar Samudra’ was the capital of—
(a) Cheras
(b) Yadavas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Hoyasalas
Ans. (d)
43. Deficiency of iron causes which of the following diseases?
(a) Rickets
(b) Anaemia
(c) Scurvy
(d) Over Bleeding
Ans. (b)
44. In which of these countries does it rain in the cold season?
(a) China
(b) Norway
(c) Brazil
(d) Nigeria
Ans. (c)
45. What is ‘Mona Lisa’?
(a) A painting
(b) Drama
(c) Intelligence of France
(d) Novel
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the following dynasties of Rajputs did not surrender in front of Akbar?
(a) Sisodia Dynasty
(b) Parmar Dynasty
(c) Chauhan Dynasty
(d) Chandela Dynasty
Ans. (a)
47. Water is soluble in ionic salts because—
(a) Its boiling point is high
(b) Its dipolar moment is more
(c) Of its more specific heat
(d) It has no colour
Ans. (b)
48. Mica is mainly found in—
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
49. What is mixed economy?
(a) Co-operation between public and private sectors
(b) Competition between public and private sectors
(c) Special force in public sector.
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
50. Who was the First King of Tughlaq Dynasty?
(a) Gias-ud-din Tughlaq
(b) Malik Tughlaq
(c) Mohammed Bin Tughlaq
(d) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
Ans. (a)
RRB ASM General Knowledge Solved Paper
1. Who is known as the ‘Iron Man of India’?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (C)
2. In which of the following fields did Tenzing Norgay distinguish himself?
A. Boxing
B. Mountaineering
C. Archery
D. Hockey
Ans. (B)
3. Who was the first lady Prime Minister of the World?
A. Sirimavo Bhandranaike
B. Margaret Thatcher
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Golda Meir
Ans. (A)
4. Where is Central Potato Research Institute?
A. Shimla
B. Lucknow
C. Kanpur
D. Bhopal
Ans. (A)
5. With which field is ‘Vikram Seth’ associated?
A. Space Research
B. Literature
C. Journalism
D. Music
Ans. (B)
6. India’s anti-tank missile is:
A. Akash
B. Agni
C. Prithvi
D. Nag
Ans. (D)
7. The major difference between the Moderates and the Extremists in the Congress Session of 1907 was regarding —
(a) Education
(b) Boycott
(c) Satyagraha
(d) Swaraj
Ans. (b)
8. Devaluation of currency helps in promoting—
(a) imports
(b) exports
(c) tourism
(d) national income
Ans. (b)
9. Which Indian State is the largest producer of cashew nuts?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (b)
10. 1930 is associated with—
(a) Presentation of Nehru Report
(b) Dandi March
(c) Second Round Table Conference
(d) Lahore Congress
Ans. (b)
11. Indian Railways has recently decided to set up a new Wheel & Axle factory at:
A. Chhapra
B. Harnaut
C. Jamalpur
D. Darbhanga
Ans. (A)
12. Match the following cities of South India with their States:
(a) Coimbatore 1. Kerala
(b) Cochin (Kochi) 2. Karnataka
(c) Mangalore 3. Tamil Nadu
(d) Vijayanagar 4. Andhra Pradesh
A. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
B. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
C. a-1, b3, c-2, d-4
D. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Ans. (B)
13. With which of the following gland/organ is ‘diabetes’ associated?
A. Thyroid
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Kidney
Ans. (C)
14. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
A. Heart
C. Eye
B. Kidney
D. Ear
Ans. (C)
15. The blood cholesterol level in 100 ml of blood in a normal person varies between:
A. 250 to 350 mg
B. 150 to 250 mg
C. 100 to 150 mg
D. 50 to 100 mg
Ans. (C)
16. Choose the correct chronological order of dynasties:
A. Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji
B. Slave, Tughlaq, Khilji, Lodi
C. Khilji, Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq
D. Slave, Khilji, Tughlaq, Lodi
Ans. (D)
17. Token currency was introduced in India for the first time by:
A. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
B. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
C. Alauddin Khilji
D. Qutubuddin Aibak
Ans. (B)
18. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A. Bairam Khan — Akbar
B. Jaswant Singh — Aurangzeb
C. Amir Khusrau — Jehangir
D. Ambar Malik — Humayun
Ans. (C)
19. Match the. following ancient books with their authors:
(a) Mahabharata 1. Kalidasa
(b) Kadambari 2. Panini
(c) Meghadoot 3. Banabhatta
(d) Asthadhyayi 4. Ved Vyas
A. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3,
B. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
D. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporari1y?
(a) Decrease in taxes
(b) Increase in wages
(c) Decrease in money supply
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. With which aspect of Commerce are ‘bull’ and ‘hear’ associated?
A. Banking
B. Foreign Trade
C. Stock Market
D. Internal Trade
Ans. (C)
22. The Tenth Five-Year Plan pertains to which period?
A. 2000-01 to 2004-05
B. 2001-02 to 2005-06
C. 2002-03 to 2006-07
D. 2003-04 to 2007-08
Ans. (C)
23. Debt service ratio implies ratio between:
A. export and total payout on debt
B. import and total debt
C. domestic saving and• import
D. domestic saving and total debt
Ans. (A)
24 Who said, where wealth accumulates, men decay”?
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Mao-Tse-Thng
C. Karl Marx
D. Goldsmith
Ans. (D)
25. Gresham’s law in economic relates to:
A. distribution of goods and services
B. circulation of currency
C. supply and demand
D. consumption and supply
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly is true?
1. It is not based on Adult Franchise
2. It resulted from direct elections
3. it was a multiparty body
4. it worked through several committees
A. l and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (C)
27. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
A. Money Bills
B. Bills pertaining, to the powers of the Supreme court of State Judiciary
C. Bills proclaiming the state of emergency arising out of war or external aggression
D. Bills bringing a State under emergency rules
Ans. (A)
28. How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either Houses of the Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. l year
D. No time limit
Ans. (B)
29. Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading at:
A. —273°
B. —40°
C. —32°
D. 100°
Ans. (B)
30. Match the scientists with their inventions:
(a) C. Marconi 1. Gramophone
(b) J.L. Baird 2. Radio
(c) Alexander Graham Bell 3. Television
(d) Thomas Alva Edison 4. Telephone
A. a-l, b-2, c-3, d-4
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
C. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
Ans. (D)
31. In the process of galvanization, an iron sheet is coated with:
A. aluminum
B. zinc
C. tin
D. chromium
Ans. (B)
32. Rate of evaporation does not depend upon:
A. temperature of the liquid
B. surface area of the liquid
C. mass of the liquid
D. air pressure
Ans. (C)
33. Which of the following process produce Hydrogen gas?
A. Electrolysis of water
B. Passing of steam over red hot iron
C. Reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid
D. All of these
Ans. (A)
34. Match the following with their chemical formulae
(a) Common Salt 1. Na2 SiO3
(b) Alum 2. NaCl
(c) Gypsum 3. K2SO4. Al2 (SO4)3 24H2O
(d) Quartz 4. CaSO4. 2H2O
A. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-l
B. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
C. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
D. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
Ans. (A)
35. Which of the following is an element?
A. Ruby
B. Sapphire
C. Emerald
D. Diamond
Ans. (D)
36. Which of the following is true regarding a catalyst?
1. It increases the rate of reaction
2. It increases the activation energy
3. It reduces the activation energy
4. It is consumed in the reaction
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 5
Ans. (B)
37. The hydraulic automobiles application of:
A. Archimedes’ Principle
B. Pascal’s law
C. Bernoulli’s theorem
D. Faraday’s law
Ans. (B)
38. Match the following countries with their capitals:
(a) Nigeria 1. Luanda
(b) Qatar 2. Abuja
(c) Zambia 3. Lusaka
(d) Angola 4. Doha
A. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-l
B. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-l
C. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
D. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-l
Ans. (A)
39. Which of the following planets orbits around the sun in backward direction from east to west?
A. Earth
C. Venus
B. Mercury
D. Jupiter
Ans. (C)
40. More than two third of world’s tin comes from which country?
A. China
B. Malaysia
C. Nigeria
D. Brazil
Ans. (A)
41. The largest temple in the world
A. Meenakshi Temple
B. Angkor Vat
C. Pashupati Nath Temple of Nepal
D. Kashi Vishwanath Temple
Ans. (B)
42. Aryabhatta was India’s renowned:
A. Poet
B. Physicist
C. Mathematician
D. Physician
Ans. (C)
43. Which of the following pair does not match?
A. Sariska Sanctuary – Rajasthan
B. Kaziranga National Park – Assam (Asom)
C. Ghana Bird Sanctuary – Meghalaya
D. Shivpuri National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)
44. Match the following hill stations of India with their states:
(a) Gulmarg 1. Rajasthan
(b) Dalhousie 2. Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mt. Abu 3. Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Panchmarhi 4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Uttaranchal
A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B. á-5, b-3, c-i, d-2
C. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-5
D. a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1
Ans. (A)
45. On which river the Pong Dam has been constructed?
A. Ganga
B. Tapti
C. Yamuna
D. Beas
Ans. (D)
46. Which country is the world’s largest supplier of silk?
A.. USA
B. Japan
C. China
D. India
Ans. (C)
47. Which one of the following does not contribute to development in India?
A. Technological research
B. Population growth
C. Diversification of industry
D. Increased saving
Ans. (B)
48. ‘Jog’ the highest water fall in India is located in the state of
A. Uttaranchal.
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
Ans. (D)
49. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the:
A. Chief Justice
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Union Cabinet
Ans. (C)
50. The first state in India carved out on a linguistic basis was:
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Orissa
C. Manipur
D. Kerala
Ans. (A)
gk questions of orissa police
Solved Paper for Police Constable ,Driver Exam
1. ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’ slogan was given by
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (B)
2. The people of Indus Valley Civilization worshipped
(a) Brahma
(b) Vishnu
(c) Pashupati
(d) Indra and Varun
Ans. (c)
3. Ashoka was related to:
(a) Haryak dynasty
(b) Mauryan dynasty
(c) Gupta dynasty
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. The Rajasthan canal takes water from the river
A. Ravi
B. Ghaghara
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
Ans. (D)
5. Mettur dam is situated on the river
A. Cauvery
B. Narmada
C. Krishna
D. Mahanadi
Ans. (A)
6. Tirupati temple is located in—
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Ans. (b)
7. Which Pakistani scientist is suspected to be involved in giving nuclear know how to other countries?
A. Shahariyar Khan
B. Imaran Khán
C. Javed Kazi
D. Abdul Qadir Khan
Ans. (D)
8. Who is the chief minister of Asom?
A. Tarun Gagoi
B. Hiteshwar Saikia
C. Prafful Kumar Mohanta
D. None of these
Ans. (A)
9. International Women’s Day is celebrated on
A. May 27
B. January 9
C. April 7
D. March 8
Ans. (D)
10. Amnesty International is—
(a) a human rights group
(b) a refugee camp in Somalia
(c) a wing of World Bank
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
11. Insulin controls the metabolism of—
(a) sugars
(b) fats
(c) proteins
(d) salts
Ans. (a)
12. Sariska bird sanctuary is situated in
A. Haryana
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)
13. If it is 4p.m. on Monday at l50° W longitude, what is the time at 150 ° E longitude?
A. Sunday, 8 p.m.
B. Tuesday, 4a.m.
C. Tuesday, 4p.m.
D. Tuesday, 12 noon
Ans. (D)
14. The mixed economy means
A. Equal importance for agriculture and heavy industries
B. Co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
C. Co-existence of the poor and the rich
D. Co-existence of private and public sectors
Ans. (D)
15. Loktak lake is situated in which state?
A. Manipur
B. Sikkim
C. Tripura
D. Mizoram
Ans. (A)
16. Which of the following diseases cannot be prevented by vaccination?
A. Whooping cough
B. Smallpox
C. Polio
D. Diabetes
Ans. (C)
17. Spondylitis affects which organ of the body?
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Spinal cord
D: Brain
Ans. (C)
18. Who composed Ain-e-Akbari?
A. Farista
B. Ibn Batuta
C. Abul Fazal
D. Birbal
Ans. (C)
19. Who introduced the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’?
A. Dalhousie
B. Canning
C. Rippon
D. Lytton
Ans. (A)
20. Who permitted the English to establish first factory in India?
A. Akbar
B. Jehangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Aurangzeb
Ans. (B)
21. The word Buddha means
A. A winner
B. A preacher
C. An Enlightened
D. A traveler
Ans. (C)
22. Who determined the boundary between India and Pakistan?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Sir Radcliff
C. Sir Cripps
D. Laurence
Ans. (B)
23. When did the British Government annul the partition of Bengal?
A. 1919
B. 1917
C.1914
D. 1911
Ans. (D)
24. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the framers of the Indian constitution?
A. L. B. Kriplani
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. J. L. Nehru
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans. (D)
25. Who gave the most effective slogan “Do or Die” during Quit India Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. J. L Nehru
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans. (A)
26. Where were the Olympics 2008 held?
A. China
B. Greece
C. Italy
D. France
Ans. (A)
27. Which vitamin is provided by sunlight to body?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (d)
28. The longest river of Karnataka is
A. Krishna
B. Cauvery
C. Tungbhadra
D. Godavari
Ans. (A)
29. Which city of Karnataka is growing fast in the field of information technology and software?
A. Bhadravati
B. Mysore
C. Hassan
D. Bengluru
Ans. (D)
30. Which of the following is not a tax of the Central Government?
A. Income tax
B. Excise duty
C. Land revenue
D. Corporate tax
Ans. (C)
31. Which countries are related to Palk strait?
A. India and Sri Lanka
B. North Korea and South Korea
C. China and Pakistan
D. Britain and France
Ans. (A)
32. Which of the following states is the largest in area?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)
33. Which of the following rivers flows to the west?
A. Godavari
B. Cauvery
C. Narmada
D. Krishna
Ans. (C)
34. Who was elected the permanent chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946?
A. J. L. Nehru
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. K.M. Munsi
Ans. (B)
35. First general elections were held in India during
A. 1949 — 50
B. 1950 — 51
C. 1951 — 52
D. 1956 — 7
Ans. (C)
36. The longest dam in India is
A. Bhakra Nangal dam
B. Nagarjun Sagar dam
C. Hirakud dam
D. Kosi dam
Ans. (C)
37. The jog water fall is situated in
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Karnataka
D. Mahrashtra
Ans. (C)
38. The brightest planet is
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Venus
D. Mercury
Ans. (C)
39. The currency of Italy is
A. Dollar
B. Waht
C. Pound
D. Lira
Ans. (D)
40. The rings are found around
A. Uranus
B. Jupiter
C. Mars
D. Saturn
Ans. (D)
41. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
A. copper
B. Iron
C. Aluminum
D. Tungsten
Ans. (D)
42. ‘Clove’ is obtained from
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Bud
D. Fruit
Ans. (C)
43. A mega city has a minimum population of:
(a) 10 lakhs
(b) 20 lakhs
(c) 50 lakhs
(d) 1 crore
Ans. (d)
44 The language of Chola rulers was:
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Kannada
(c) Tamil
(d) Telugu
Ans. (c)
45. Gandhiji started march to Dandi from:
(a) Dandi
(b) Sabarmati Ashram
(c) Gujarat
(c Champaran
Ans. (b)
46. Which the following rivers pass through valley?
(a) Godavari
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b)
47. The sex ratio is the highest in
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d7. Mizoram
Ans. (a)
48. The post of collector in India was created in the
(a) 1772
(b) 1779
(c) 1792
(d) 1882
Ans. (a)
49. Who defeated the Marathas in
the third battle of Panipat?
(a) Afghans
(b) Mughals
(c) English
(d) French
Ans. (a)
50. The number of Puranas is:
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 16
Ans. (a)
Numerical reasoning / maths test
free online maths test question solved
1. (7857 + 3596 + 4123) ÷ 96 =?
(a) 155.06
(b) 62.25
(c) 151.83
(d) 165.70
Ans. (b)
2. 741560 + 935416 + 1143 + 17364=?
(a) 1694583
(b) 1695438
(c) 1695483
d) 1659483
Ans. (c)
3. 36% of 4800 x 0.2% of 1320=?
(a) 4535.52
(b) 4551.36
(c) 4561.92
(d) 4572.48
Ans. (c)
4. Raman’s salary is decreased by 10%. By what per cent his decreased salary is raised to have the original salary?
(a) 10 %
(b) 11 %
(c) 11 %
(d) 12 %
Ans. (c)
5. To get 35% of a number, the number should be multiplied by
(a) 7/20
(b) 3.5
(c) ?7/20
(d) 5/20
Ans. (a)
6. The number whose 20% is 10, is:
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 70
Ans. (c)
7. A sum doubles in 20 years at a certain rate of simple interest. In how many years will it be four times of itself?
(a) 40 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 80 years
Ans. (c)
8. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50. The ratio of these numbers is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 5:1
Ans. (b)
9 The population of a town increases at 10% per annum. If the present population is 1,60,000 what will he the population after 4 years?
(a) 1,94,481
(b) 1,78,641
(c) 1,92,000
(d) 1,65,000
Ans. (a)
10. The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 1: 27. The ratio of their surface areas will be
(a) 1:3
(b) 1:6
(c) 1:9
(d) 1:18
Ans. (c)
11. The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 4% per annum in 4 years is Rs 80 more than the simple interest on the same sum at 59 per annum after 3 years. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 7,000
(b) Rs. 7,500
(c) Rs. 8,000
(d) Rs. 8,500
Ans. (c)
12. At what rate of compound interest a sum will be 25/16 times of itself in 2 years?
(a) 16%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Ans. (d)
13. In an examination, a student gets 20% of total marks and fails by 30 marks. Another student gets 32% of total marks which is more than the minimum pass marks by 42 marks. The pass percentage is
(a) 24%
(b) 25 %
(c) 26%
(d) 28 %
Ans. (b)
14. A particle is thrown upwards at the velocity of 39.2 m/sec. Time to reach the highest point is:
(a) 3 seconds
(b) 4 seconds
(c) 3.75 seconds
(d) 4.75 seconds
Ans. (b)
15. If the interest is compounded annually and the compound interest after 3 years at 10% per annum on a sum is Rs. 331 the principal is:
(a) Rs. 900
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1050
(d) Rs. 1100
Ans. (b)
16. A shopkeeper earns 20% by allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. An article is marked at Rs. 280 its actual price is:
(a) Rs. 195
(b) Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 225
(d) Rs. 215
Ans. (b)
17. Ram bought 1600 eggs at the rate of Rs. 3.75 per dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 eggs for Re 1 and the remaining at 5 eggs for Rs. 2. Find his loss or gain per cent.
(a) 40%
(b) 45 %
(c) 42%
(d) 46 %
Ans. (d)
18. In an election a candidate gets 40% of votes polled and is defeated by the winning candidate by 298 votes. Find the total number of votes polled.
(a) 1360
(b) 1490
(c) 1520
(d) 1602
Ans. (b)
19. Two numbers are less then the third number by 30% and 37% respectively. By what per cent is the second number less than the first number?
(a) 15%
(b) 10%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%
Ans. (b)
20. A man goes from A to B at the speed of 5 kmph and returns from B to A at 4 kmph.
His average speed during the whole journey is:
(a) 35/9 —kmph
(b 40/9 —kmph
(c) 46/9 —kmph
(d) 50/9 – kmph
Ans. (b)
General Knowledge Informations General Knowledge in India
1. The first animal domesticated by Neolithic people was:
(a) Sheep
(b) Goat
(c) Dog
(d) Horse
Ans. (c)
2. In the Vedic age:
(a) polygamy was unknown
(b) child marriage was prominent
(c) widow could remarry
(d) hypergamy was allowed
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following wrongly matched?
(a) Namdeva – Mahrashtra
(b) Chaitanya – Bengal
(c) Narsimha Mehta – Gujarat
(d) Vallabhacharya – Gujarat
Ans. (d)
4. Name the Persian version of the Mahabharata, translated during Akbar’s reign:
(a) Akbar Namah
(b) Iqbal Namah
(c) Saminatu-ul-Alulity
(d) Razmnamah
Ans. (d)
5. The Marathas were defeated in the Anglo-Maratha wars due to
(a) Lack of capable leadership
(b) Military weaknesses
(c) Failure in estimating correctly the strength of the British
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following Acts delegated the power of framing laws to the council of the Governor General?
(a) Charter Act – 1833
(b) Charter Act – 1853
(c) The Government of India Act- 1919
(d) The Government of India Act- 1935
Ans. (a)
7. Who was the founder of Darpan?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Sachindranath Sanyal
(c) Bal Shastri Jambekar
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Ans. (c)
8. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was/ are
(a) Railways
(b) Plantation and Mines
(c) Banking and Insurance
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
9. The first weekly paper published by the Indian National Congress in 1889, was
(a) Young India
(b) India
(c) Indian People.
(d) Voice of India
Ans. (a)
10. Lala Lajpat Rai suffered vital injuries during the demonstration against the:
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massarcre
(d) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (b)
11. The only annual session of the Congress presided over by Gandhiji was
(a) Kakinada — 1923
(b) Belgaum — 1924
(c) Kanpur — 1925
(d) Guwahati — 1926
Ans. (b)
12. Habeas Corpus means:
(a) an order from a court to free a person who has been illegally ‘detained by the police or any other person
(b) an order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in a inferior court for review
(c) an order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(d) an. order from the higher court to stop proceeding in a certain case
Ans. (a)
13. Mixed economy envisages
(a) co-existence of capitalists and labourers
(b) integrated economic development
(c) development of agriculture and industry simultaneously
(d) private and public sectors
Ans. (d)
14. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Bombay Stock Exchange SENSEX
(b) National Stock Exchange NYSE
(c) New York Stock Exchange NIFTY
(d) London Stock Exchange NIKKEI
Ans. (a)
15. The important objectives of the development of cooperative sector are
(a) Prevention of concentration of economic power
(b) Wider dispersal of ownership of productive resources
(c) Active involvement of people in the development programmes
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
16. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established in
(a) 1981
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1992
Ans. (b)
17. Subsidies means
(a) payment by Government for purchase of goods and services
(b) payment by business enterprises to factors of production
(c) payment by companies to share holders
(d) payment by Government to ‘ business enterprises without buying any goods and services
Ans. (a)
18. Which one of the following will directly increases the GNP?
(a) an increase in investment
(b) a surplus in budget
(c) a fall in national debt
(d) a rise in the interest rate
Ans. (a)
19. Who wrote a hook describing the theory of economic drain of India during British Rule?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) J. L. Nehru
Ans. (a)
20. As per 2001 Census the state having highest urban population is
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Mahrashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans. (b)
21. How would you describe the Indian Constitution?
(a) Medium in size
(b) Very small and compact
(c) One of the most elaborate Constitutions in the world
(d) It is not a written Constitution
Ans. (c)
22. Who is competent to amend the fundamental rights?
(a) President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d Parliament
Ans. (d)
23. Name th canal Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea:
(a) Kiel Canal
(b) Panama
(c) Suez Canal
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
24. Amongst the following Indian states which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim
(c) Haryana
(b) Goa
(d) Kerala
Ans. (c)
25. Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
(a) Bengali
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) Portuguese
Ans. (a)
26. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos
Ans. (b)
27. In March-April, 2009 India defeated New Zealand in test cricket match series. This victory came after how many years?
(a) 49 years
(b) 47 years
(c) 46 years
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
28. Who among the following is the winner of Miss India world Wide 2009?
(a) Nikkitasha Marhawa
(b) Kanchan Verma
(c) Shagun Sarahbai
(d) None bf these
Ans. (a)
29. 8th March is celebrated as
(a) International Women’s Day
(b) International Literacy Day
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
30. In IPL-2 version of cricket, the Australian Shane Warne was the captain of which team?
(a) Chennai Super King
(b) Rajasthan Royals
(c) Deccan Chargers
(d) Knight Riders
Ans. (b)
31. In Lok Sabha the number of seats is
(a) 545
(c) 549
(b) 542
(d) 544
Ans. (a)
32: Who is benefited from inflation?
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Banks
(d) Citizens
Ans. (a)
33. Jyoti Randhawa is associated to which sport?
(a) Golf
(b) Badminton
(c) Wrestling
(d) Tennis
Ans. (a)
34. Who is the writer of book Conquest of Self’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Bhai Patel
(d) J.C. Bose
Ans. (a)
35. When is the World Environment Day observed?
(a) 6th June
(b) 4th June
(c) 5th June
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
36. Chandrayaan-I, Indian Moon Mission was launched on
(a) 22 October, 2008
(b) 21 October, 2008
(c) 22 September, 2008
(d) 22 November, 2008
Ans. (a)
37. Who among the following controls /Supervises the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Indian Finance Minister
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
38. Who has defined the office of profit?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Council of ministers
(d) Constitution
Ans. (d)
39. Which of the following is not a Constitutional arrangement?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Union Public Service Corn mission
Ans. (b)
40. Partition of Bengal was done during the period of:
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (a)
41. The blood pressure of a normal person is
(a) 100/80
(b) 100/90
(c) 80/120
(d) 90/100
Ans. (c)
42. Colour blindness related to
(a) heredity
(b) blood pressure
(c) digestive system
(d) respiratory system
Ans. (a)
43. In simple harmonic motion what remains constant?
(a) Amplitude
(b) Angular displacement
(c) Time period
(d) Kinetic energy
Ans. (c)
44. When a glass rod is rubbed by a silken cloth the rod acquires
(a) positive charge
(b) negative charge
(c) positive and negative charge both
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
45. The velocity of sound does not depend on:
(a) temperature
(b) medium
(c) pressure
(d) humidity
Ans. (c)
46. The ultrasonic sound can be heard by:
(a) dogs
(b) men
(c) microphone
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
47. Which of the following is not a hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Thyroxin
(d) Hemoglobin
Ans. (d)
48. The longest among following dams is
(a) Mathon dam
(b) Bhakhara Nangal
(c) Hirakud
(d) Nagarjun Sagar
Ans. (c)
49. Milind Panho is a:
(a) drama in Sanskrit
(b) Jam description
(c) Pali treatise
(d) Persian treatise
Ans. (c)
50. Which of the following invented Algebra?
(a) Meghatithi
(b) Bhaskar
(c) Apastamb
(d) Aryabhatta
Ans. (b)
Exam.
1. Dr. Hargobind Khurana won the Nobel Prize for his work
(a) Separation of Genes
(b) For blood Groups
(c) Discovery of DNA
(d) Discovery of AIDS Virus
Ans. (a)
2. In which Olympic year Indian Hockey team won the Gold Medal?
(a) 1988
(b) 1980
(c) 1984
(d) 1976
Ans. (b)
3. Which town is called the city of seven mountains?
(a) London
(b) Rome
(c) Washington
(d) San Francisco
Ans. (b)
4………… are mainly found in simple carbon steel?
(a) Copper and Carbon
(b) Iron and Chromium
(c) Zinc and Iron
(d) Carbon and Iron
Ans. (b)
5. Pair the Sanctuaries with the correct states?
A. Gautam Buddha 1. Bihar
B. Dalma 2. Jharkhand
C. Simlipal 3. Orissa
D. Periyar 4. Kerala
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Ans. (d)
6. Michael Ferreira is related to which of the sports?
(a) Chess
(b) Billiards
(c) Hockey
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
7. Chemical name of Caustic Soda is
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Aluminum Sulphate
(c) Potassium Hydroxide
(d) Sodium Hydroxide
Ans. (d)
8. Who presides over the meetings of the Cabinet Ministers?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Ans. (d)
9. The Constituent Assembly was demanded by Indian National Congress in 1936 in their summit held at:
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Faijpur
(d) Lahore
Ans. (c)
10. Match the right pairs of the following:
Chemical Substance Use
A. Geolite 1. To cut glass
B. Plaster of Paris 2. Washing work
C. Ultramanins 3. Softening of water
D. Corborandum 4. Wrought iron work
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Ans. (b)
11. What is a chromosome?
(a) Part of human brain.
(b) Thread like structures which carries the inheritance codes which is found in the nucleus.
(c) Components of blood.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
12. In a photosynthesis reaction which gas of the following is liberated?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen
Ans. (c)
13. Match the following battlefields according to their states
A. Haldighati 1. Rajasthan
B. Panipat 2. Haryana
C. Baxur 3. Bihar
D. Plassey 4. West Bengal
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-l, C-3, D-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following is a cold blooded animal?
(a) Lizard
(b) Frog
(c) Fish
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
15. Match the following pairs
A. Bangalore 1. City of buildings
B. Mumbai 2. City of gardens
C. Jaipur 3. Gateway of India
D. Kolkata 4. Pink City
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-l
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A3, B-2, C-4, D-l
(d) None Of these
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following is not a metamorphosis rock?
(a) Slate
(b) Sphatik
(c) Marble
(d) Granite
Ans. (d)
17 The lower level of atmosphere is called:
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Ionosphere
(d) Exosphere
Ans. (b)
18. Who built ‘Jama Masjid’?
(a) Shershah Suri
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Aurangzeb
(d) Shahjahan
Ans. (d)
19. By which of the following atoms of an element are different from atoms of other elements?
(a) Atomic number and. electronic configuration.
(b) Atomic number and number of covalent electrons.
(c) Number of neutrons and electronic configuration
(d) Number of neutrons and number of covalent electrons.
Ans. (a)
20. Hygrometer is used to measure
(a) Relative density of a liquid.
(b) Purity of milk.
(c) Relative humidity.
(d) Atmospheric pressure.
Ans. (c)
21. In basketball number of players playing in each learn is
(a) 11
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
Ans. (c)
22. Number of permanent members in United Nations Security Council is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 15
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following players is not correctly matched according to his play
(a) Dhyan Chand — Hockey
(b) Syed Modi — Badminton
(c) Leander Paes — Football
(d) Bishen Singh Bedi — Cricket
Ans. (c)
24. Match the following pairs—
A. Radium 1. Roentgen
B. Periodic 2. Mendleleef
C. Quantum principle 3. Madam Curie
D. X-rays 4. Plank
(a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Ans. (a)
25. ‘Chand Bibi’ who gave Berar to Akbar was the queen of
(a) Golkunda
(b) Behmani
(c) Bijapur
(d) Ahmad Nagar
Ans. (c)
26. Which of the following five years plan was dedicated to maximum growth rate?
(a) 9th
(b) 4th
(c) 7th
(d) 8th
Ans. (a)
27. Signature in ‘Magna Carta’ was during the rule of
(a) John II
(b) Henry IV
(c) Edward V
(d) Queen Elizabeth
Ans. (a)
28. Battle of Haldighati was fought in the year
(a) 1526
(b) 1576
(c) 1605
(d) 1660
Ans. (b)
29. Vedic religion mainly prays to the god of
a) Nature
(b) Pashupati
(c) Godmother
(d) Tridev
Ans. (a)
30. During the rule of ‘Harsha’ the main town in Northern India was
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Ujjain
(c) Kannauj
(d) Thaneshwar
Ans. (d)
31. Headquarter of ‘Asian Development Bank’ is
(a) Manali
(b) Mumbai
(c) Tokyo
(d) Bangkok
Ans. (a)
32. Where were the remains of the Ancient Indian University found?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Ujjain
(c) Varanasi
(d) Vikramshila
Ans. (a)
33: Which of the following towns is called forbidden city?
(a) Lhasa
(b) Vatican city
(c) Las Vegas
(d) Palestine
Ans. (d)
34. Which one of the following apparatuses is used to for measuring blood pressure?
(a) Sphygmomanometer
(b) Pyrometer
(c) Manometer
(d) Hygrometer
Ans. (a)
35. After the French revolution which of the following emerged as a- famous leader?
(a) Waltair
(b) Karl-Marx
(c) Napoleon
(d) Charles-De-Gaulle
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Polio – Monkey
(b) Plague – Rat
(c) Rabbies – Dog
(d) Tapeworm – Pig
Ans. (a)
37. Who among the following is not
appointed by the President of India?
(a) Speaker of Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Army Chief
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Eskimo — Alaska
(b) Afridi — North West Africa
(c) Pigmi — Congo Basin
(d) Badonias — Sahara
Ans. (b)
39. ‘Diego Garcia’ is an island in the
(a) Pacific ocean
(b) Atlantic ocean
(c) Indian ocean
(d) Arctic ocean
Ans. (c)
40. Which of the following animals is not a ‘Mammal’?
(a) Fish
(b) Bat
(c) Whale
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. In Economics the meaning of ‘necessity’ is
(a) to give pleasure
(b) to make profit.
(c) to fulfill human requirement
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
42. Why do clouds not rain in deserts?
(a) High velocity of wind
(b) Low pressure
(c) Low temperature
(d) Low humidity
Ans. (a)
43. Match right following:
A. Civil disobedience movement 1. B.G. Tilak
B. Indian Home Rule 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C. Accepted leader 3. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Brahmo Samaj 4. G.K Gokhale.
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-2
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched in awards and related fields?
(a) Kalinga Award — For development of Science
(b) Booker Prize — Literature
(c) Pulitzer Award — For development of religion
(d) Borlaugh Award — Agriculture
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following river passes through the middle of Vindhya and Satpura mountain range?
(a). Narmada
(b) Tapti
(c) Gandak
(d) Godavari
Ans. (a)
46. Match the suitable pairs of the
A. Sugar bowl of the world 1. Australia
B. The town of high building 2. Thailand
C. Land of white elephant 3. Cuba
D. Land of Kangaroo 4. Los Angeles
5. New York
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(b) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1
(c) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4,C-1, D-2
Ans. (c)
47. Doldrums is related to
(a) The region of pacific and lightly changing wind-snear the mediterranean line
(b) Special zone of pacific ocean
(c) A type of ocean flow
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
48. The principle population increases through multiple series but food increases though arithmetical series, is related to
(a) Malthas
(b) Grasham
(c) Kiens
(d) Angels
Ans. (a)
49. Which of the following trains covers the longest route?
(a) G.T. Express
(b) Guwahati -Trivandrum Express
(c) Gorakhpur -Cochin Express
(d) Karnataka Express
Ans. (b)
50. Which of the following vitamins is useful for eye?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin A
Ans. (d)
general knowledge, bank PO model paper
Free GK Questions With Ans For Bank PO Exams INDIA
1. Which of the following taxes/duties are levied by the Union but appropriated by the States?
(1) Income-tax
(2) Wealth-tax
(3) Stamp duty
(4) Excise duty
Ans: 4
2. Rajdhani Express trains run:
(1) Only between New Delhi and all state capitals
(2) Only between New Delhi and state capitals
(3) Only between New Delhi and important cities
(4) Only between New Delhi and Mumbal, Kolkata and Chennai
Ans: 3
3. How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended so far?
(1)95
(2)104
(3) 102 .
(4) None of these
Ans: 2
4. There is a wide variation of fauna and flora on the earth due to:
(1) varied biosphere
(2) varied hydrosphere
(3) atmospheric changes
(4) different physical environment
Ans: 4
5. Large scale flowering of bamboo plants in the North-Eastern region of the country may result in:
(1) Increased output of bamboo
(2)Increase in rainfall
(3) Better paddy harvest
(4) Famines
Ans: 4
6. Which of the following is not a National Championship Game?
(1) Rangaswamy Cup
(2) Durand Cup
(3) RanjiTrophy
(4) Santosh Trophy
Ans: 1
7. Before joining thç Union of India, Goa was under the occupation of:
(1) Portugal
(2) France
(3) Denmark
(4) Britain
Ans: 1
8. In how many commands the Indian Navy is organised?
(1). One .
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Ans: 3
9. In which of the States, State Assembly functions in two cities?
(1) Uttaranchal
(2) Hlmachal Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: 3
10. Where is the headquarters of Voxwagon Auto Company?
(1) France
(2) Britain
(3) the USA
(4) Germany
Ans: 4
11 Asbestos is:
(1) man made fibre product
(2) naturally occurring mineral
(3) naturally occurring ore
(4) product of cement
Ans: 4
12. if a person is suffering from defective double-layered valve, then which organ of the body is affected?
(1) Stomach
(2) Lungs
(3) Small intestine
(4) Heart
Ans: 4
13. Which of the following is the most important factor for the increase in number of diabetic patients in India?
(1) Distress in daily life
(2) Bad food habit
(3) Dull life style
(4) All the three
Ans: 4
14. The spinal column of man is protected by:
(1) Skull
(2) Vertebrae column
(3) Pericardium
(4) Perichondrium
Ans: 2
15. Which of the following is the smallest ocean?
(1) Pacific
(2) Indian
(3) Arctic
(4) Atlantic
Ans: 3
16. Where can you find the “Sea of Tranquility”?
(1) Mars
(2) Saturn
(3) Moon
(4) Sun
Ans: 3
17. Who was the first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(1) Ananthasayanam Ayengar
(2) G.V. Maviankar
(3) Sardar Hukum Singh
(4) N. Sanjeeva Recdy
Ans: 2
18. ‘Maple leaf is the symbol of which country? .
(1) Canada
(2) Australia
(3) Kenya
(4) Brazil
Ans: 1
19. The Sir Creek lies in the:
(1) Ranna of Kutch
(2) Palk straits
(3) Andamans
(4) British Isles
Ans: 1
20. The character ‘Gilliver’ was created by:
(1)Jonathan Swift
(2) John Gulliver
(3) William Shakespeare
(4) P.G.Wodehouse
Ans: 1
21. Which has the highest number of voters?
(1)Kerala
(2)Assarm
(3) Tami Nadu
(4) West Bengal
Ans: 4
22. Which of the .following Indian birds is facing extinction due to environmental pollution?
(1) Chicken
(2) Parrot
(3) Vulture
(4) Duck
Ans: 3
23. Quit India Movement was launched due to:
(1) involvement of India in second World War by England.
(2) failure of Cripps Mission
(3 arrest of Congress leaders
(4) improper implementation of 1935 Act
Ans: 2
24. Which Indian language referred to as ‘Italian of the East”?
(1) .Urdu
(2) Tamil
(3) Telugu
(4) Oriya
Ans: 3
25. If the Postal Index number (PIN) begins with ‘6’ then the post office is probably situated In the State of?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Kerala
(3) Karnataka
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: 2
26. Kunwar Singh led Sepoy Muting against British in:
(1)Gaya
(2)Ara
(3) Buxar
(4) Patna
Ans: 2
27. Which of the following forms of carbon can be used as lubricant in heavy machines? (1)Diamond
(2) Dry carbon
(3) Carbon powder
(4) Graphite
Ans: 4
28. Rail and telegraph services were started during the reign of:
(1) Lord Canning
(2) Lord Rippon
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Minto
Ans: 3
29. Which of the following crops increases nitrogen fixation in soil?
(1) Wheat
(2) Beans
(3) Tobacco
(4) Cotton
Ans: 2
30. Which part of the Union.Terrltory of Pondicherry is physically situated in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) Karaikal
(2) Mahe
(3) Yanam
(4) Divi
Ans: 3
31. In which of the following Iraqi cities is situated the famous’Al-Askari’,.place of worship of Shias?
(1) Basra
(2) Baghdad
(3)Karbala
(4)Samara
Ans: 3
32. Which of the following is the nesting place of Olive Ridley tortoise?
(1) Mahabalipuram
(2) Koviam
(3) Andaman
(4)Gahirmath
Ans: 4
33 Which one of the following figures will generate a cone when rotated about one of its straight edges?
(1) An equilateral triangle
(2) A sector of a circle
(3) A segment of circle
(4) A right-angled triangle
Ans. (4)
34. Freedom of the press in India:
(1) Is specifically, provided In Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution
(2) Is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article (19) (1) (a) of the Constitution
(3) Is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361 A of the Constitution
(4) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country
Ans. (2)
35. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is that:
(1) It has a very high transparency
(2) It has a very high refractive index
(3) It is very hard
(4) It has well-defined cleavage planes
Ans. (2)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List-I (Author) List-II (Text)
A. Varahamihira 1. Prabandha -Chitamani
B. Visakhadatta 2. Mirchchha-Katlkam
C. Sudraka 3. Brihat – Samhita
D. Bilhana 4. Devi Chandraguptam
5. Vikrarnankadeva Charita
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 5 2
(2) 3 4 2 5
(3) 5 3 4 1
(4) 1 3 5 2
Ans. (2)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
A. Surat Split 1. 1929
B. Communal Award 2. 1928
C. All party Convention 3. 1932
D. Poorna Swaraj Resolution 4. 1907
5. 1905
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 5
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 2 5 4 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
38. World’s Longest ruling head of Government is from:
(1) Switzerland
(2) Cuba
(3) Zimbabwe
(4) New Zealand
Ans. (2)
39. Which of the following ‘statements is/are false regarding Baglihar Hydroelectric Project?
(1) Construction of dam for the project is on the river Chenab
(2) Pakistan Government is opposing the construction of the dam project
(3) Pakistan Government is opposing the design and height of the dam project
(4) According to the “Indus Water Treaty”, river Chenab falls in the purview of Pakistan
Ans. (2)
40. Which of the following statements is not true for a person holding Dual citizenship?
(1) Dual citizen do not have voting rights
(2) They can not be selected in Government services
(3) Dual citizenship holders can live in India for a period of maximum one year
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
Solved Test Paper Exam Competitive Exams
1. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of:
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 50
Ans. (1)
2. A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 14
(4) 16
Ans. (1)
3. Four volunteers represent the school A, 5 volunteers represent the school 5, 6 volunteers represent the school C, and 3 volunteers represent the school D.
Each of the volunteers shakes hands with every volunteer from school other than his own. If each volunteer shakes hands exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
(1) 153
(2) 141
(3) 119
(4) 108
Ans. (1)
4. A two digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
(1) 27
(2) 36
(3) 45
(4) 54
Ans. (3)
5. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)
6. Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it.
Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
(l) 6 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 10 days
(4) 11 days
Ans. (3)
7. Six singers are taking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition. How many comparisons does each judge make between all the singers to select the best among them?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 2
Ans. (1)
8. A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate gets 4 marks for every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer. Which one of the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
(1) 396,395, 394
(2) 393, 392, 391
(3) 392, 391,390
(4) 389, 388, 387
Ans. (3)
9. There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four, possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while traveling from A to C?
(l) 1/12
(2) 1/7
(3) 6/7
(4) 11/12
Ans. (4)
10. In how, many different ways can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only one boy?
(1) 24
(2) 120
(3) 240
(4) 360
Ans. (4)
11. How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
(1) 64
(2) 80
(3) 90
(4)104
Ans. (3)
12. In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices—True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is—
(1) 10
(2) 18
(3) 26
(4) 32
Ans. (4)
13. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions 1/2, 2/3 and 3/4. Then the first part is:
(1) Rs. 182
(2) Rs. 190
(3) Rs. 196
(4) Rs. 204
Ans. (4)
14. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
(1) 60%
(2) 62 1/3 %
(3) 66 2/3 %
(4) 72%
Ans. (3)
15. A train passes through a tunnel whose length is 500 meters in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km. per hour. The length of the train is:
(1) 700 meters
(2) 750 meters
(3) 800 meters
(4) 825 meters
Ans. (1)
16. Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rakesh’s sister is:
(1) 40 years
(2) 38 years
(3) 36 years
(4) 32 years
Ans. (2)
17. The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4:3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3:2. However, both save Rs. 600 – per month.
What is their monthly income?
(1) Rs. 8,400/-
(2) Rs. 5,600/-
(3) Rs. 4,200/-
(4) Rs. 2,800/-
Ans. (3)
18. Which of the following has a greater perimeter than the rest?
(1) A squat with an area of 36 sq. cm.
(2) An equilateral triangle with a side of 9cm.
(3) A rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq.cm as area.
(4) A circle with a radius of 4cm.
Ans. (3)
19. If ABC x DEED = ABCABC: where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E ?
(1) D = 2, E = 0
(2) D = 0, E = 1
(3) D = 1, E = 0
(4) D = 1, E = 1
Ans. (3)
20. There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while traveling from A to C?
(1) 1/12
(2) 1/7
(3) 6/7
(4) 11/12
Ans. (4)
21. In how many different ways can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only one boy?
(1) 24
(2) 120
(3) 240
(4) 360
Ans. (4)
22. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
(1) 6 months
(2) l year
(3) 2 years
(4) 2 years and months
Ans. (2)
23. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions 1/2, 2/3, and 3/4 .Then the first part is
(1) Rs. 182
(2) Rs. 190
(3) Rs. 196
(4) Rs. 204
Ans. (4)
24. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
(1) 60 %
(2) 62 1/3 %
(3) 66 2/3 %
(4) 72 %.
Ans. (3)
25. A train passes. through a tunnel whose length is 500 meters in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km per hour. The length of the train is—
(1) 700 meters
(2) 750 meters
(3) 800 meters
(4) 825 meters
Ans. (1)
26. Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh’s. sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rakesh’s sister is:
(1) 40 years
(2) 38 years
(3) 36 years
(4) 32 years
Ans. (2)
27. A farmer traveled a distance of 61 km. in 9 hours. He traveled partly on foot at the rate of 4 km. per hour and partly on-bicycle at the rate of 9 km. per hour. The distance traveled on foot is:
(1) 17 km
(2) 16 km
(3) 15 km
(4) 14 km
Ans. (2)
28. A Club has 106 members. Two-thirds of them are men and the rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women members. How many married women are there in the club?
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 27
(4) 30
Ans. (3)
29. A bag contains 20 balls, 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the
minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blind-folded (without re-
p1acing any of it) to be assured picking at least one ball of each colour?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 16
Ans. (4)
30. In a wooden box, there are 4 red and 4 black balls. If two balls are taken out simultaneously at random, then the’ probability of both the balls being red is:
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/8
(4) 3/14
Ans. (4)
31. Examine the following series of numbers:
50, x, 32, x +2, 29, 95, 72, 48, 84, 78
If value of the median is 63, and x lies between 55 and 66, the value of x is:
(1) 56
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 65
Ans. (3)
32. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other before 9.30 am?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
Ans. (3)
33. A train starts from Delhi for Mumbai at 5.30 a.m. while another train starts from Mumbai at 6.00 a.m. for Delhi. Both the trains run at same speed and each takes 24 hours to complete the journey. When shall the trains cross each other?
(1) 5.35 p.m.
(2) 5.45 p.m.
(3) 6.10 p.m.
(4) 6.15 p.m.
Ans. (2)
34. In a circle, points A an B lie on the opposite ends of a diameter while point C lies on the circumference. Given: AC = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm. Then, the length AB
(1) is equal to 3 cm.
(2) is equal to 28 cm.
(3) is equal to 20 cm.
(4) cannot be determined from the given data
Ans. (3)
35. If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, in how many days can the same work be done by 6 men and 11 women?
(1) 12 days
(2) 13 1/2 days
(3) 15days
(4) l8 days
Ans. (3)
36. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)
37. What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm x 5 cm x 10 cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm x 30 cm x 30 cm size?
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 18
(4) 30
Ans. (3)
38. A rectangular water tank measures 15m x 6m at top and is 10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn-out lowering the level by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out?
(1) 90,000 liters
(2) 45,000 liters
(3) 4,500 liters
(4) 900 liters
Ans. (1)
39. In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices—True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is—
(1) 10
(2) 18
(3) 26
(4) 32
Ans. (4)
40. If Rs. 1000 invested at 12% interest and interest compounded half yearly, what will be the total amount at the end of one year?
(1) 1120.00
(2) 1123.60
(3) 1126.20
(4) 1134.40
Ans. (2)
General Knowledge for Entrance Exams UPSC CDS
1. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)
2. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)
3. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)
4. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)
5, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)
6. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: : The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
7. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)
8. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)
9 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)
10. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)
11. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)
12. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)
13. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)
14. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)
15. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)
16. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)
17. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
18. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
19. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)
20. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)
21. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)
22. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)
23. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)
24. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)
25. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)
26. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)
27. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)
28.Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)
29. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)
30. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)
31. Consider the map given below:
The map shows the sea voyage route followed by:
(1) Thomas Cook
(2) Ferdinand Magellan
(3) John Cabot
(4) Vasco de Gama
Ans. (2)
32. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)
33. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)
34. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)
35. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)
36. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)
37. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)
38. Which of the following are correctly matched?
A
Establishment of Manufacturing B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras
Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)
39. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)
40 The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)
42. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal ?
(1) A written and rigid Constitution
(2) An independent Judiciary
(3) Vesting of residuary powers with the Center
(4) Distribution of powers between in the Centre and the States
Ans. (4)
43.The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of Rice are:
(1) rainfall above 100cm, temperature above 25°C
(2) cool and moist climate for the entire drop period
(3) rainfall below 100cm, temperature below 25ºC
(4) warm and dry climate during the entire crop period
Ans. (1)
44. Even though the Railways are the most pervasive mode of transport in India, it is the
road transport which received the maximum impetus in most of the post-independence period Which of the following are the reasons for this?
1. Railways are cheap to operate but the associated capital costs are very high
2. Given the geographic spread of the human settlements it is unrealistic that the railway alone can serve the needs of transport
3. The per unit (Tonne/kn) cost of transport is cheaper in road compared to rail transport
4. Given the indivisible nature of the railways, it is not always convenient for the population to avail of it with the same case as private cars, buses or two- wheelers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1,2 and 3
(2) l, 2 and 4
(3) 1, 3 and 4
(4) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (City) List-II (Industry)
A. Coimbatore 1. Petroleum Refining
B. Rourkela 2. Rail Coach
C. Kapurthala 3. Iron and Steel
D. Barauni 4. Cotton Textiles
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 2 3 l
Ans. (1)
46. Which radioactive pollutant has drawn the attention of the public, due to its occurrence in the building material?
(1) Plutonium
(2) Thorium
(3) Radon
(4) Radium
Ans. (2)
47. Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama, is invariably a:
(1) Brahmana
(2) Kshatriya
(3) Vaishya
(4) Shudra
Ans. (1)
48. The colour of a star is an indication of Its:
(1) distance from the sun
(2) luminosity.
(3) distance from the earth
(4) temperature
Ans. (4)
49.Those Joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran struggle included:
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel and Vinoba Bhave
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(3) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narayan Singh
(4) Mahadev Desai and Maniben Patel
Ans. (3)
50. The controversial Terminator Technology backed by developed nations seeks to provide:
(1) bio technologically tin- proved variety of seeds which are ensured to yield sterile seed for next generation
(2) transgenic seeds which ensure no- terminating passage of good traits generation after generation
(3) selective termination of crop diseases
(4) hybrid seeds that can be eaten but not grown
Ans. (1)
general science questions answers
general knowledge question answer
1. On average, how many scalp hairs normally fall out each day?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
2. The breathing control centre is located
(a) Front of brain
(b) Base of brain
(c) In the lungs
(d) In the medulla
Ans: b
3. Blood escaping from an artery is
(a) Bright red and oozing
(b) Dark red and oozing
(c) Bright red and spurting
(d) Dark red and spurting
Ans: c
4. The trachea and alveoli are part of the
(a) Cardiovascular or circulatory system
(b) Musculoskeletal system
(c) Respiratory system
(d) Nervous system
Ans: c
5. How many vertebrae are in the spinal column?
(a) 13
(b) 33
(c) 26
(d) 40
Ans: b
6. Glutaraldehyde is a hazardous substance because
(a) it is a carcinogen
(b) it causes reproductive health effects
(c) it is an irritant to skin, eyes and respiratory tract
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
7. HIV/AIDS is transmitted through
(a) water
(b) blood
(c) body fluids such as semen, vaginal secretions and breast milk
(d) b and c
Ans: d
8. HIV positive (HIV+) means that
(a) a person who carries the virus
(b) a person who has AIDS
(c) a person infected with HIV
(d) a. person infected with sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
Ans: c
9. The action of the gluteus medius is to
(a) Extend the femur
(b) Adduct and laterally rotate the femur
(c) Flex the femur
(d) Abduct and medially rotate the femur
Ans: a
10. What are erythrocytes?
(a) Cells that fight infection
(b) Cells that transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Cells responsible for blood clotting
(d) Cells that form collagen
Ans: b
11. Which of the following is a contra indication to reflexology?
(a) Phlebitis
(b) Fatigue
(c) Acne
(d) Insomnia
Ans: a
12. Which vessel carries oxygen into the heart?
(a) Inferior vena cava
(b) Pulmonary vein
(c) Superior vena cava
(d) Pulmonary artery
Ans: b
13. Which part of the female reproductive systems contains thousands of egg cells?
(a) Ovaries
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) None of these
Ans: a
14. What is emphysema?.
(a) Inflammation of the lung tissue
(b) Inflammation of the bronchial tubes
(c) Inflammation of the pleural lining of the lungs
(d) Loss of stretch and elasticity of the alveoli
Ans: d
15. What is the percentage of total daily calories needed to digest food?
(a) 25 per cent
(b) 20 per cent
(c) 15 per cent
(d) 10 per cent
Ans: c
16. What is cystitis?
(a) An inflammation of the urethra
(b) An inflammation of the kidney
(c) An inflammation of the ureter
(d) An inflammation of the bladder
Ans: d
17. What causes blood clots?
(a) Low blood pressure
(b) A fatty diet
(c) The use of oral contraceptives
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
18. What are symptoms of vertigo?
(a) Frequent dizziness
(b) Light sensitivity
(c) Headaches
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
19. Which disease is Not associated with arthritis?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Psoriasis
(d) Cirrhosis
Ans: b
20. What is a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
(a) Sweaty palms
(b) Cold hands
(c) Fatigue
(d) Numbness or tingling thumb
Ans: d
21. What is Not a classic symptom of migraine?
(a) Dull, pressure-like pain
(b) Pain that lasts six to 48 hours
(c) A flash of light that appears before an attack
(d) Pain accompanied by nausea or dizziness
Ans: a
22. What may cause headaches?
(a) Fatigue
(b) Smoking
(c) Caffeine use
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
23. Basal metabolic rate is:
(a) the amount of energy the body needs to function at rest
(b) the amount of energy burned during exercise
(c) the amount of energy metabolized during eating
(d) the amount of energy spent thinking about calories
Ans: a
24. A calorie is a unit of:
(a) Fat
(b) Heat
(c) Temperature
(d) Guilt
Ans: b
25. Calluses and corns are two forms of the same skin condition. What is it?
(a) Raised patches of skin filled with watery matter
(b) Hard growths on the skin caused by a virus
(c) Small colored spots on the skin that are usually raised and hairy
(d) Areas of thickened skin caused by pressure or friction
Ans: d
26. What are symptoms of the diabetes?
(a) Increased thirst, weight loss, frequent urination, increased appetite
(b) Weight gain, fever, nausea, body odour
(c) Heart palpitations, restlessness, diarrhea, joint pain
(d) Increased urination, constipation, stomach pain, headaches
Ans: a
27. Which statement is False?
(a) The tongue is a large muscle
(b) Attachments to the tongue prevent you from swallowing it
(c) It is normal to have lumps on the side of your tongue near the throat
(d) The tongue is constantly working
Ans: d
28. What are the four basic flavors that the taste buds can detect?
(a) Spicy, salty, sweet, sour
(b) Sweet, sour, bitter, tangy
(c) Tart, bitter, sour, salty
(d) Sweet, sour, bitter, salty
Ans: d
29. People are born with how many taste buds?
(a) 5,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 50,000
Ans: b
30. What is caffeine?
(a) A plant
(b) A food
(c) A drug
(d) A vitamin
Ans: c
31. How long can we survive without water?
(a) Not more than two days
(b) About a week
(c) Usually two weeks
(d) Possibly a month
Ans: b
32. What percentage of our body weight is water?
(a) About 20 per cent
(b) About 45 per cent
(c) About 60 per cent
(d) About 85 per cent
Ans: c
33. What type of mosquito carries dengue fever?
(a) African- spotted
(b) Asian tiger
(c) Caribbean flight
(d) White stripped Tibetan
Ans: b
34. What is true about varicose veins?
(a) The name varicose comes from the Latin root varix, which means twisted
(b) They could lead to painful ulcers
(c) The condition is hereditary
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
35. Which media celebrity co-founded a national organization to bring awareness of . Colon cancer after her husband died of it?
(a) Diane Sawyer
(b) Jane Pauley
(c) Katie Couric
(d) Connie Chung
Ans: c
36. What type of food poisoning is the most dangerous?
(a) Botulism
(b) Staphylococcal
(c) Salmonella
(d) Mushroom
Ans: c
37. What is gout?
(a) a type of cancer
(b) a blood clot
(c) a form of arthritis
(d) a large bruise
Ans: c
38. What are the four basic blood types?
(a) A, B, AB and O
(b) A, A+, B and B+
(c) A, B, O and ABO
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans: a
39. Which sentence is True?
(a) Women have more red blood cells than men
(b) The most common blood type is AB
(c) Anemia occurs when a person’s red blood count is too high
(d) Blood cells are produced in the bone marrow
Ans: d
40. What are the four components of blood?
(a) Red blood cells, white blood cells, stem cells and plasma
(b) Red blood cells, iron, bone marrow and platelets
(c) Red blood cells, white blood cells, hemoglobin and plasma
(d) Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma
Ans: d
41. What measurement do doctors use to determine obesity?
(a) Body mass index
(b) Body fat index
(c) Body height index
(d) Body weight index
Ans: a
42. What is shingles?
(a) A painful form of psoriasis generally occurring in older adults
(b) A type of acne that develops in times of stress
(c) A severe allergic reaction to the sun
(d) A nerve infection caused by the chickenpox virus
Ans: d
43. Which sentence is False?
(a) Most dreams are in colour
(b) Dreams are universal; the same images mean the same thing to different people
(c) Recurrent dreams usually mean that the dreamer hasn’t yet resolved a continuing conflict
(d) You can control your dreams
Ans: a
44. The body stops building bone mass at what age?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Ans: a
45. What is insomnia?
(a) Having a hard time falling asleep
(b) Not feeling refreshed after a night’s sleep
(c) Awaking at nightt often and having difficulty getting back to sleep
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
46. What is leukemia?
(a) Cancer of the blood cells
(b) Cancer of the bone
(c) A type of arthritis
(d) A severe form of anemia
Ans: a
47. What the cushiony substance sandwiched between each vertebra in human spine is called?
(a) A disc
(b) A nerve
(c) A muscle
(d) A sponge
Ans: a
48. What is the function of the spinal cord?
(a) To move blood from the arms and legs to the heart
(b) To keep the spine in alignment
(c) To carry signals to and from the brain to the body
(d) To strengthen the spinal column
Ans: d
49. What is athlete’s foot?
(a) A foot infection
(b) A foot injury
(c) A foot abnormality
(d) A foot odour
Ans: a
50. What are proteins?
(a) Vitamins
(b) Amino acids
(c) Nutrients that the body uses for energy
(d) Fats
Ans: b
Solved Objective Questions Biomedical engineering
1. Each cell consists of a centrally located
a) Nucleus
b) Nucleolus
c) Organelles
d) Proteins
Ans (a)
2. Each nucleus is surrounded by the
a) Nucleolus
b) Electrolytes
c) Cytoplasm
d) Lipids
Ans (c)
3. Concentration of water in each cell is between
a) 75-85%
b) 60-75%
c) 70-80%
d) 70-85%
Ans (d)
4. The ___________ provide inorganic chemicals for cellular reaction
a) Electrolytes
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
5. ____________constitutes 10-20 percent of the cell mass
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Electrolytes
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
6. _____________________ are used to provide the contractile mechanism of muscles
a) Structural proteins
b) Lipids
c) Globular proteins
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (a)
7. Which of the following is called as cell core?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleus
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (b)
9. Which of the following is called as cell body?
a) Proteins
b) Nucleus
c) Lipids
d) Cytoplasm
Ans (d)
10. Lipids are _______ in fat solvents and ___________ in water
a) Soluble, insoluble
b) Soluble , soluble
c) Insoluble , insoluble
d) Insoluble , soluble
Ans (a)
11.___________play a major role in nutrition of the cell
a) Carbohydrates
b) Mitochondria
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
Ans (a)
12. The cell also contains highly organized physical structure called _________
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Cytosol
d) Mitochondria
Ans (a)
13. The clear fluid portion of the cytoplasm is called as _________
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Cytosol
d) Mitochondria
Ans (c)
14.________________ are minute granular particles in cytosol
a) Organelles
b) Ribosomes
c) Lipids
d) Proteins
Ans (b)
15. Ribosomes are composed mixture of
a) RNA and proteins
b) RNA and Lipids
c) RNA and glucose
d) RNA and electrolytes
Ans (a)
16._______________allows the cell to digest thereby removing unwanted substances
a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) Carbohydrates
Ans (b)
17. —————- is called as power houses of the cell
a) RNA
b) Lysosome
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
Ans (c)
18. The mitochondria contains _____________ similar to that found in nucleus
a) DNA
b)RNA
c) mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
Ans (a)
19._________________ is called as control center of the cell
a) Genes
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) DNA
Ans (d)
20._____________ contains large quantities of RNA
a) Ribosomes
b) Nucleus
c) Lysosomes
d) Mitochondria
Ans (b)
21. Each cell splits by a special process called
a) Drift
b) Diffusion
c) Mitosis
d) Acidosis
Ans (a)
22. The cell size is determined by the amount of ______________
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) Genes
Ans (a)
23. The size of the cell is in the range of
a) 5-15 ?m
b) 5-10 ?m
c) 0.5-1 ?m
d) 5-7 ?m
Ans (b)
24. The extra cellular fluid contains large quantities of ___________ and small amount of ___________
a) Sodium, pottassium
b) Calcium, pottassium
c) Sodium, calcium
d) Potassium, sodium
Ans (a)
25. The intracellular fluid contains large quantities of ___________ and small amount of ___________
a) Sodium, potassium
b) Calcium, potassium
c) Sodium, calcium
d) Potassium, sodium
Ans (d)
26. The positive potential of the cell membrane during excitation is
a) Action potential
b) Drift potential
c) Diffusion potential
d) Passive potential
Ans (a)
27. In case of primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from the breakdown of
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Mitochondria
d) ATP
Ans (d)
28._____________________ is an example of primary active transport mechanism
a) Sodium potassium pump
b) Sodium calcium pump
c) Sodium phosphates pump
d) Calcium pottassium pump
Ans (b)
29. What type of electrodes is more often employed in EMG work?
a) Needle electrodes
b) Surface electrodes
c) Floating electrodes
d) Limb electrodes
Ans (a)
30. A ————– needle electrode contains both active reference electrode with in the same structure
a) Earth ring
b) Hypodermic
c) Paddle
d) Concentric core
Ans (d)
1. Ohm’s law applicable for
(a) linear circuits only
(b) non linear circuits only
(c) both linear and non linear circuits
(d) none of these
Ans: a
2. Unit of current is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: a
3. What is the equivalent resistance when 10 Ohms and 20 Ohms resistors are connected
in series
(a) 35 Ohms
(b) 25 Ohms
(c) 30Ohms
(d) none of these
Ans: c
4. Form factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: d
5. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: c
6. Power factor for resistive load is
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
(d) 0.2
Ans: b
7. voltage is a ——quantity
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Scalar and Vector
(d) none of these
Ans: b
8. In D.C , Capacitor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) either (a)or (b)
(d) none of these
Ans: b
9 In 3 phase star circuit, phase voltage is
(a) VPh =Ö3 VL
(b) VPh = VL /Ö3
(c) VPh = VL
(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: b
10. In 3 phase delta circuit, line current is
(a) IL =I Ph
(b) IL =2 I Ph
(c) IL =3 I Ph
(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:d
11. What is the equivalent resistance when 20Ohms and 20Ohms resistors are
connected in parallel
(a) 45 Ohms
(b) 10Ohms
(c) 54 Ohms
(d) 30Ohms
Ans: b
12. Voltage-Current relationship in resistor element is
(a) In phase
(b) Out of phase
(c) No Relation
(d) constant
Ans:a
13. For high voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: b
14. What is the unit of Reactive Power
(a) KVA
(b) KW
(c) HP
(d) KVAR
Ans:d
15. R.M.S Value of Half wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans: b
16. Current is defined as
(a) Charge/time
(b) Time/charge
(c) power/time
(d) None of these
Ans:a
17. Active elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors only
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: d
18. In Bilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: b
19. D.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: d
20. In Capacitive circuit, Current flows in the capacitor
(a) i=C (dv/dt)
(b) i=V(dc/dt)
(c) i=C(di/dt)
(d) i=Ct
Ans: a
21. Unit of voltage is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans: b
22. Peak factor is defined as the ratio of
(a) Average value to Maximum value
(b) Maximum value to Average value
(c) Peak value to R.M.S Value
(d) R.M.S Value to Average value
Ans: c
23. Average value is
(a) area/period
(b) period/area
(c) length/area
(d) none of these
Ans: a
24. Unit of power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) joules
Ans:c
25. Unit of apparent power is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:d
26. Unit of energy is
(a) KWH
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) Volt-ampere
Ans:a
27. A.C has
(a) Constant magnitude
(b) Variable magnitude
(c) Fixed Polarities
(d) Constant magnitude and Fixed Polarities
Ans: b
28. Passive elements are
(a) Voltage sources only
(b) Current sources only
(c) Resistors ,inductors and capacitors
(d) Both Voltage and Current sources
Ans: c
29. In D.C , inductor acts as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Open circuit
(c) both (a)&(b)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
30. In Unilateral Network the current flows in
(a) Unidirectional
(b) Bidirectional
(c) Rotational
(d) None of these
Ans: a
31. Workdone is
(a) F.d
(b) E/F
(c) IR
(d) None of these
Ans: a
32. Unit of Resistance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) ohms
Ans: d
33. Unit of inductance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: d
34. Unit of capacitance is
(a) Ampere
(b) farad
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
35. For high current applications which type of 3 phase circuit is Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
36. For low voltage applications which type of 3 phase circuit to be Preferred
(a) Star
(b) Delta
(c) Star or Delta
(d) Neither Star nor Delta
Ans: a
37. Unit of charge is
(a) Ampere
(b) coulomb
(c) Watt
(d) henry
Ans: b
38. EMF is
(a) Election motion force
(b) Electrical motion force
(c) Electro motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
39. MMF is
(a) Magnetic motive force
(b) Magnetic motion force
(c) Magneto motive force
(d) None of these
Ans: c
40. Voltage-Current relationship in inductor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: c
41. Voltage-Current relationship in capacitor element is
(a) In phase
(b) 90 (lead)
(c) 90 (lag)
(d) constant
Ans: b
42. When two inductors are connected in series, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) 1/(L1+L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: a
43. When two capacitors are connected in series, equivalent capacitance is
(a) C1+C2
(b) 1/(C1+C2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) (1/c1)+(1/c2)
Ans: d
44. R.M.S Value of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) VM/3
(b) VM/2
(c) VM/Ö2
(d) none of these
Ans:c
45. Form factor of full wave rectified sinusoidal voltage is
(a) 1.21
(b) 1.11
(c) 4.44
(d) none of these
Ans: b
46. Power factor for pure inductor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: c
47. Power factor for pure capacitor
(a) 0(lead)
(b) 0
(c) 0(lag)
(d) none of these
Ans: a
48. Frequency is defined as
(a) No of cycles/sec
(b) time/cycles
(c) 1/cycles
(d) None of these
Ans: a
49. In Series resistive circuit, voltage across each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) constant
(c) no change
(d) None of these
Ans: a
50. In Series resistive circuit current through each resistor is
(a) divided
(b) same
(c) 0
(d) None of these
Ans:b
51. When two inductors are connected in parallel, equivalent inductance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) L1.L2
(d) None of these
Ans: b
52. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, equivalent capacitance is
(a) L1+L2
(b) (1/L1)+(1/L2)
(c) C1+C2
(d) None of these
Ans:c
53.A sinusoidal Wave form is
a)sine wave form
b) triangle wave form
c) both(a)&(b)
d)none of these
Ans:a
54. In 3 phase delta circuit, phase voltage is
(a) VPh =Ö3 VL
(b) VPh = VL /Ö3
(c) VPh = VL
(d) VPh =3 VL
Ans: c
55. In 3 phase star, line current is
(a) IL =I Ph
(b) IL =2 I Ph
(c) IL =3 I Ph
(d) IL =Ö3 I Ph
Ans:a
56.Average value of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:a
56 Average value of full wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
57 Form factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2Vm/?
c) 1.57
d) none of these
Ans: c
58. Peak factor of half wave rectified sine waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) 2
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
59. Form factor of full wave rectified sine waveform is
a) 1.11
b) 2Vm/?
c) 1.57
d) none of these
Ans:a
60. Peak factor of full wave sinusoidal waveform is
a) Vm/?
b) square root of 2
c) Vm/2
d) none of these
Ans:b
obs and Exam Sample Papers BSF: Head Constables and ASI Recruitment
1. OVL implies:
(1) Oil discovery organ of ONGC
(2) A new species of virus
(3) A term used in One Day Cricket
(4) A new banking company
2. Which of the following involves chemical change?
(1) Rusting of iron
(2) Burning of wood -
(3) Reduction of wood
(4) All the three
3. Which of the following cave paintings is the oldest?
(1) Bhimbetka
(2) Ellora
(3) Ajanta
(4) Chittnnavasal
4. Leprosy has been eliminated from India, as:
(1) There was no cae of leprosy in 2005
(2) World Health Organization (WHO) has declared so
(3) The current rate of Incidence has been reduced by 1 out of 10,000
(4) All the patients have been identified for treatment
5. The major producer of cardamom in India is
(1) Kerala
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Karnataka
(4)Assam
6. Which of the following is a submarine of the Indian Navy?
(1) INS Virat
(2) INS Sindhurakshk
(3) INS Rajali
(4) INS Vikrãnt
7. Which of the following Indian classical dances derived its name from the name of place of its origin?
(1) Manipuri
(2) Kathkali
(3) Odissi
(4) Kuchipudi
8. Who among the following has been created record in aviation history for the longest uninterrupted flight?
(1)JRDTata
(2) Ratan Tata
(3) Vijay pat Singhania
(4) Steve Fosset
9. Which of the following countries is not a member of G — 8?
(1) Russia
(2) Britain
(3) Spain
(4) Canada
10. Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?
(1) Indira Gandhi
(2) Srlmao Bhandarnayake
(3) Margaret Thatcher
(4) Benzlr Bhutto
11. The large entrance of temple in South India is called:
(1) Shikhar
(2) Sanctum sactorum
(3) Gopuram
(4) Prakar
12. Dilwara Temple is located at:
(1) Udayapur
(2) Ajmer
(3) Mount Abu
(4) Jaipur
13. Which of the following trees can grow in salt water?
(1) Coconut
(2) Neem
(3) Mangroves
(4) Eucalyptus
14. Cryogenic engines are used in:
(1) Rockets
(2) Aero planes
(3) Refrigerators
(4) Sub-marines
15 Which of the following materials has the lowest density?
(1) Gold
(2) Mercury
(3) Ice
(4) Wood
16. The state which suffers most due to river erosion is:
(1)Kerala
(2) Assam
(3) West Bengal
(4) Orissa
17. At present bird flu spreads from:
(1) Poultry iima1s to humans
(2) Humans to humans
(3) Humans to poultry animals
(4) All the three
18. Which of the following animals has the longest life-span?
(1) Tortoise
(2) Elephant
(3) Whale
(4) Rhinoceros
19. Haematite is an ore of:
(1) Copper
(2) Chromium
(3) Lead
(4) Iron
20. Which is the first university established for women in India?
(1) Mother Teresa University
(2) SNDT University
(3) Rani Jhansi University
(4) Rani Ahilyadevi University
21. Name the British historian who was jailed by an Austrian Court for denying horrors of holocaust during Nazi rule:
(1) Christian Fleck
(2) Christopher Reed
(3) Don McKinnon
(4) David Irving
22. Which of the following places is not associated with ship manufacturing?
(1) Mumbal
(2) Vishakhapatnam
(3) Kochi
(4) Alang
23. Kannauj was the capital of which king in ancient time?
(1) Harshavardhana.
(2) Chandragupta I
(3) Pulkeshin II
(4) Samudragupta
24. In which of the following Indian cities there is possibility of maximum temperature during summer?
(1) Chennai
(2) Nagpur
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Pune
25. The statue of Bahubali in Shravanbelgola was carved during the reign of:
(1) Chalukya
(2) Chola
(3) Ganga
(4) Rashtrakuta
Answers:
Q No ANS
1 1
2 4
3 1
4 4
5 1
6 2
7 2
8 4
9 3
10 2
11 3
12 3
13 3
14 1
15 4
16 2
17 1
18 1
19 4
20 2
21 2
22 1
23 1
24 2
25 3
1. Carrier of parasite Plasmodium is?
(A)Tick
(B) Mosquito
(C)Fly
(D) Lice
2. First organic chemical to be synthesized in laboratory?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Oxalic acid
(C) Urea
(D) Phosphoric acid
3. Which one is an organic acid?
(A)Citric
(B) Sulphuric
(C)Nitric
(D) Phosphoric
4. Ice floats on water because?
(A) Ice is filled with air
(B) Ice less dense than water
(C) Waters depth more than ice
(D) Ice more dense than water
5. Petrol contains?
(A) Carbon, Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen, Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen, Oxygen
(D) Carbon, Hydrogen
6. Leaves look green, because?
(A) Reflect all colours
(B) Absorb all colours reflect green
(C) No effect of light on leaves
(D) Absorb only green
7. Lens system used in a micro scope is ?
(A) Convex
(B) Concave
(C) Concave, convex
(D) Plain lens
8. Ozone layer protects earth from?
(A) Meteriorites
(B) Cosmic and other radiations
(C) Harmful gases
(D) Space debris
9. ‘Raman effect’ was used to develop?
(A) Cooling glasses
(B) Space craft
(C) Atom bomb
(D) Detecting Scanners
10. In July 2010 ‘ISRO used the vehicle for launching 5 satellites
(A) GSLV
(B) PSLV
(C) ESLV
(D) SLV
11. Curd making is an ancient ‘Bio technological’ process involving?
(A)Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C)Fungus
(D) Protozoa
12. H5N1 virus causing global pandemic influenza is?
(A) Goat flu
(B) Bird flu
(C) Horse flu
(D) Cow flu
13. ‘Blue baby’ syndrome is because of drinking water with excess amounts of?
(A) Phosphates
(B) Sulphates
(C) Carbonates
(D) Nitrates
14. The Fourth Buddhist Council which was held in Kashmir during the reign of which King?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Kala Ashok
(C) Kanishka
(D) Ajatshatru
15. Which one among the following sites is located in the valley of
Gaggar and its associated rivers?
(A) Alamgirpur
(B) Lothal
(C) Mohenjodaro
(D) Banwali
16. Land revenue, which was the chief source of income during the Mauryan period, was collected by which officer?
(A) Agronomai
(B) Shulkadhyaksha
(C) Sitadhayaksha
(D) Akradhayaksha
17. Centres located in Gujarat, Bengal, Deccan and Tamil Country during the Gupta period were associated with which of the following:
(A) Textile manufacture
(B) Gems and precious stones
(C) Handicrafts
(D) Opium cultivation
18. According to the Sangam texts the terms Kon, Ko and Mannan were attributed to which of the following?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Revenue Minister
(C) Commander of the army
(D) King
19. The first human statues worshipped in India were those of?
(A)Brahma
(B) Vishnu
(C)Buddha
(D) Shiva
20. “God knows man’s virtues and enquires not his caste, in the next world there is no caste !“ This was the theory of which Bhakti saint?
(A) Ramanand
(B) Dadu
(C) Nanak
(D) Ramanuja
21. The highest number of state level animal fairs in Rajasthan are held in the district?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Nagour
(C) Barmer
(D) Hanumangarh
22. Which one amongst the following is incorrect?
(A) In the western part of Rajasthan generally salty lakes are available
(B) Sambhar lake is the biggest salty lake in India
(C) Nakki lake is the deepest lake in Rajasthan
(D) Rajsamand lake is 64 kilo meters from Udaipur and it is in Udaipur district
23. Mixed farming consists of?
(A) Growing of several crops in a planned way
(B) Growing rabi as well as kharif crops
(C) Growing several crops and also rearing animals
(D) Growing of fruits as well as vegetables
24. Mewa-nagar in Rajasthan is famous for?
(A) Jam temple of Parshwanath
(B) Exports of dry fruits
(C) Production of cumin seed
(D) Exports of Kathputli items
25. Gang canal, is among the oldest canals was constructed by
Maharaja Ganga Singh in?
(A)1930
(B) 1927
(C)1944
(D) 1932
26. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project— Gujarat and Rajasthan
(B) Chambal Project—Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(C) Beas Project.—Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal Project—Rajasthan and Punjab
27. Which one among the following statement is ‘incorrect’ ? New Industrial and Investment Policy of Rajasthan 2010 is introduced and it states that—
(A) During next five years 51 lakh persons will get employment
(B) 13 sectors are more important to be focussed
(C) Land will be available to industrialists on easy terms
(D) Incentive will not be accorded to Private Public Partnership
28. Rajasthan State Industrial Deve lopment and Investment Corporation (RIICO) has signed an MoU with a Japanese company for establishment of Japanese units in Neemrana Industrial area. That Japanese company is?
(A) Jetro
(B) Hetro
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Mitsubisi
29. Which automobile company has been allotted 600 Acres land of Khuskheda (Bhiwadi) for manufacturing cars?
(A) Ford
(B) Toyota
(C) Honda Cial
(D) Volkswagen
30. 14 N.E.L.P. Blocks, 1 J. V. Blocks,2 Nomination Blocks and 4 C.B.M. Blocks are related to:
(A) Gypsum belt
(B) Gold belt
(C) Petroleum Exploration
(D) Lignite belt
31. One amongst the following takes the decision about the monetary policy of India?
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) International Monetary Fund
32. Which train was introduced for tourists with the help of Railway
Ministry in Rajasthan on January 11,2009?
(A) Princely Rajasthan on wheels
(B) Royal Rajputana on wheels
(C) Great Rajputana on wheels
(D) Royal Rajasthan on wheels
33. The great famine known as ‘Chhapania-kal’ among Rajasthani people occurred during—
(A) 1899-1900 AD
(B) 1905-1906 AD
(C) 1956-1958 AD
(D) 1888-1889 AD
34. ‘Mocha’ coffee is grown in?
(A) Iraq
(B) Brazil
(C) Argentina
(D) Yemen
35. The area which is the ‘store house of minerals’ in South America
is?
(A) Brazilian Plateau
(B) Bolivian Plateau
(C) Patagonia Plateau
(D) Orinoco basin
36. Celebes Sea is in?
(A) Central America
(B) South-East Asia
(C) Arctic Ocean
(D) North Sea
37. The island of which Kalimantan is a part, is?
(A) Honshu
(B) Borneo
(C) Cuba
(D) Madagascar (Malagasy)
38. Baku is famous for the mining of?
(A) Gold
(B) Iron ore
(C) Mineral oil
(D) Zinc
39. The mineral which has earned fame to Chile is?
(A) Gold
(B) Manganese
(C) Nitrate
(D) Mineral oil
40. Of the following, the correct statement is?
(A) India lies in the middle of western hemisphere
(B) Caspian Sea is an open sea
(C) Rajasthan is a cool temperate desert
(D) North and South poles are antipodal to each other
41. The resource in which Chhota Nagpur Plateau is prosperous,is?
(A) Skilled labour
(B) Mineral
(C) Hydroelectricity
(D) Fertile soil
42. Of the following, the maximum prosperity of minerals is in?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. The name of the coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh is?
(A) Coromandel
(B) Malabar
(C) Northern Circar
(D) Konkan
44. Winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu is mostly on account of?
(A) Western disturbances
(B) South-west monsoon
(C) North-east monsoon
(D) South-east monsoon
45. Most of the topography of Manipur is?
(A) Plain
(B) Plateau
(C) Marshy
(D) Mountainous
46. Main resources of western Himalayan resource region, are?
(A) Forests
(B) Metallic minerals
(C) Carbonic minerals
(D) Atomic minerals
47. Kapili is a tributary river of?
(A) Gandak
(B) Kosi
(C) Ganga
(D) Brahmaputra
48. The district through which 70°E longitude passes is?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Dholpur
(D) Nagaur
49. The district having North-South elongation, is?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Chittorgarh
(D) Jhunjhunu
50. An approximate area of Rajasthan covered under western desert, is?
(A) More than 60%
(B) Less than 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
51. ‘Chhappan’ basin is in the district of ?
(A) Alwar
(B) Banswara
(C) Pali
(D) Tonk
52. The lowest air pressure in the month of June in Rajasthan is probable in the district o? (A) Bundi
(B) Baran
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Rajsamand
53. River Khari is part of the drainage system of?
(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Inland drainage
(C) Indeterminate drainage
(D) Bay of Bengal
54.Kahrani in Bhiwadi came into news recently because of ?
(A) Saint Gobain Glass Factory
(B) Divya Pharmacy
(C) Toyota Motors
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Rural LPG Distribution Plan
55. National Institute of Ayurveda, an autonomous body of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India is located at?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Banswara
(D) Jaipur
56. India has become the largest recipient of the World Bank Loans during fiscal ending June, 2010. The country which follows India is?—
(A) South Africa
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) Iran
57. India has recently added one more Biosphere Reserve. Which of these is the latest one in the list?
(A) Nokrek
(B) Dehang Debang
(C) Simplipal
(D) Cold desert
58. One amongst the following is not true?
(A) New investment policy is introduced by State Government recently
(B) 30 per cent deductions on sales tax to continue for 10 years
(C) 20 per cent subsidy will be provided on new employment
(D) Previous policy was introduced in 2008
59.G-8 Muskoka initiative is concerned with?
(A)Curbing international terrorism
(B) Promoting maternal and child health
(C) Settling international disputes
(D) Reducing greenhouse gases
60. One of the following is not a Union Territory?
(A) Tripura
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry
61. Scheduled Tribe status is?
(A) Restricted to Hindus
(B) Religiously neutral
(C) Restricted to Hindus and Christians
(D) Restricted to Hindus and Muslims
62. The author of the book ‘One Night @ The Call Centre’ is?
(A) Anurag Mathur
(B) Vikram Seth
(C) Jhumpa Lahiri
(D) Chetan Bhagat
63. Maradona is a famous football player of which country?
(A) Argentina
(B) Brazil
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
64. The Prime Minister of UK is?
(A) Tony Blair
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) David Cameron
(D) David Miliband
65. The Chief Minister of Karnataka is?
(A) B. S. Yeddiurappa
(B) S. M. Krishna
(C) Deve Gowda
(D) Rosiah
66. What is the name of the President of Iran?
(A) M. Khominenni
(B) E. Moussavi
(C) M. Ahmedinejad
(D) S. Chisti
67. Which state was most affected by the blockade of the highway by the Naga Students Union in 2010?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Maruipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
68. The Cabinet Secretary of India is?
(A) G. K. Pillai
(B) Chandrashekhar
(C) T. Srinivasan
(D) Madhukar Gupta
69. The Chief Minister of Jharkhand who is sworn in on September 11, 2010 is?
(A) Shibu Soren
(B) Arjun Munda
(C) Subodh Kant Sahay
(D) Macthu Konda
70. Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
71. The new President of CII (Confederation of Indian Industry) is?
(A) Rahul Bajaj
(B) M. Dalmia
(C) Han Bhartia
(D) Sunil Mittal
72. POSCO, a Korean multinational company, intends to invest
Rs. 52,000 crore in?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
73. The headquarters of Cairn Energy is in?
(A) Scotland
(B) South Korea
(C) Brazil
(D) USA
74. Kerala state is famous world over for cultivating?
(A)Rubber
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Spices
(D) Rice
75. Plants growing on rocks are called?
(A) Epiphytes
(B) Halophytes
(C) Xerophytes
(D) Lithophytes
76. Information about local flora can be obtained from?
(A) Herbarium
(B) Auditorium
(C) Sanitarium
(D) Planetarium
77. One of the following is called ‘flame of the forest’—
(A) Bouhinia variegata
(B) Jacaranda mimosafolia
(C) Butea monosperma
(D) Tectona grandis
78. Which of the following is called ‘graveyard of Dinosaurs’?
(A) China
(B) Montana
(C) Argentina
(D) Brazil
79. Which one is a mammal?
(A)Shark
(B) Squid
(C)Octopus
(D) Whale
80. Sanctuary famous for Rhinoceros is ?
(A) Kaziranga
(B) Gir
(C) Ranthombore
(D) Corbett
81. The ‘Ashta Diggaj’ were associated with which of the following rules?
(A) Shivaji
(B) Krishnadeva Ray
(C) Rajendra-I
(D) Yashovarman
82. Who was the famous author of Kitab-ul-Hind?
(A) Hasan Nizami
(B) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(C) Al Baruni
(D) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
83. ‘Ain-i-Dahsala’ system of land revenue assessment during the reign of Akbar was introduced by—
(A) Shah Nawaz Khan
(B) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana
(C) Todar Mal
(D) Mulla-Do-Pyaza
84. Who was the first historian who wrote about ‘Feudalism’ in Rajasthan during the 19th century?
(A) Col. James Tod
(B) Dr. L. P. Tessitori
(C) George Grearson
(D) John Thomas
85.Who was the famous ruler of Mewar who repaired the fort of
Achalgarh?
(A) Rana Ratan Singh
(B) Maharana Kumbha
(C) Rana Sanga
(D) Maharana Raj Singh
86. The famous historian of Rajasthan who was also a social
reformer was?
(A) Mankaran Sarda
(B) Harbilas Sarda
(C) C.K.F. Waltier
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj
87. The longest folk song of Rajasthan is associated with
which of the following Lok Devis /Devtas?
(A) Jeena Mata
(B) Aai Mata
(C) Mallinathji
(D)Ramdevji
88. Who was the ruler of a state in Rajasthan who played a very significant role in the establishment of Banaras Hindu University?
(A) Maharana Fateh Singh (Udaipur)
(B) Maharaja Ummed Singh (Jodhpur)
(C) Maharaja Man Singh-II (Jaipur)
(D) Maharaja Ganga Singh (Bikaner)
89. Who was made the Raj Pramukh of united Rajasthan which came into existence of March 25, 1948?
(A) Maharaja of Dholpur
(B) Maharaja of Karauli
(C) Maharao of Kota
(D) Maharaja of Sirohi
90. The first three universities in India (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) were established in which year?
(A)1857
(B) 1881
(C)1885
(D) 1905
91. Mahatma Gandhi presided over only in one session of the Indian National Congress in 1924. Where was the session held?
(A) Gaya
(B) Amritsar
(C) Belgaon
(D) Kanpur
92. Where did the Congress Work ing Committee meet to pass the ‘Govt. Indian Resolution’ of July 14, 1942?
(A) Bombay
(B) Wardha
(C) Lucknow
(D) Tripura
93. The Greatest Parsi Social reformer of the 19th century was?
(A) Sir Jamshedji
(B) Sir Rustom Behramji
(C) Navalji Tata
(D) Behramji M. Mallabari
94. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the follow
ing animals?
(A)Lion
(B) Deer
(C)Tiger
(D) Bear
95. India’s main agricultural product import item is?
(A)Pulse
(B) Coffee
(C)Sugar
(D) Edible oils
96. Find the odd product out of the following
(A) Sesame
(B) Groundnut
(C) Caster seed
(D) Mustard
97. Recently the Bank of Rajasthan has been merged with?
(A) H.D.F.C.
(B) ICICI
(C) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
(D) State Bank of India
98. The first cooperative society in Rajasthan was established in
1905 of?
(A) Bhinai in Ajmer district
(B) Jaola in Nagour district
(C) Gulabpura in Bhilwada district
(D) Bassi in Jaipur district
99. According to Animal census 2003 the density of Animals in Rajasthan and highest density of animals in district is?
(A) 144 and Doongarpur
(B) 150 and Barmer
(C) 160 and Bikaner
(D) 165 and Bharatpur
100. Dhaman, Karad and Anjan are the?
(A) Varieties of Sheep in Rajasthan
(B) Varieties of Caster seed of Gujarat
(C) Varieties of Grass in Rajsthan
(D) Three heroes of Gawari dance
Answers :
1.(B)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6.(B)
7. (A)
8. (B)
9. (A)
10. (B)
11.(A)
12. (B)
13. (D)
14.(C)
15. (D)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (D)
19.(C)
20. (C)
21. (B)
22. (D)
23.(C)
24.(A)
25. (B)
26. (D)
27. (D)
28. (D)
29.(C)
30.(C)
31. (B)
32. (D)
33. (A)
34. (D)
35.(A)
36. (B)
37. (B)
38. (C)
39. (C)
40.(D)
41. (B)
42. (A)
43. (A)
44.(C)
45.(D)
46. (A)
47. (D)
48. (B)
49. (C)
50.(A)
51. (B)
52.(C)
53.(D )
54.(A)
55.(D)
56.(C)
57.(C)
58.(D)
59.(B)
60.(A)
61. (C)
62. (D)
63. (A)
64. (C)
65.(A)
66. (C)
67. (B)
68. (B)
69. (B)
70.(D)
71. (C)
72.(D)
73.(A)
74. (C)
75. (D)
76. (A)
77.(C)
78. (B)
79. (D)
80. (A)
81. (B)
82. (C)
83. (C)
84. (A)
85. (B)
86. (B)
87. (A)
88. (D)
89.(C)
90.(A)
91. (C)
92. (A)
93. (D)
94. (C)
95. (D)
96. (C)
97. (B)
98. (A)
99. (A)
100. (C)
LIC AAO Exam Sample Questions and Mock Test
1. Permanent Settlement in Bengal and Bihar was introduced by:
(1) Cornwallis
(2) Minto
(3) Warren Hastings
(4) We1lesley
Ans. (1)
2. The first split of Indian National Congress took place in 1907 at
(1) Bombay Session
(2) Calcutta. Session
(3) Lahore Session
(4) Surat Session
Ans. (4)
3. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Newspaper) List-II (Person who started it)
A. Bombay Chronicle 1. Annie Besant
B. Commonweal 2. Madan Mohan Malaviya
C. Leader 3. Feroz Shah Mehata
D. Searchlight 4. Sachchidanand Sinha.
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 2
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (3)
4. The ‘Khalsa Panth’ was established by:
(1) Guru Arjun
(2) Guru Gobind Singh
(3) Guru Nanak
(4) Guru Teg Bahadur
Ans. (2)
5. Gandhiji started his first Satyagrah against:
(1) British attack on Turkey
(2) Government of India Act 1935
(3) Payment of low wages to workers
(4) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (3)
6. Swaraj Party was formed by:
(1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) C. R. Das and Moti Lal Nehru
(4) Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (3)
7. The evergreen rain forests are found in:
(1) Australia
(2) Brazil
(3) Canada
(4) France
Ans. (2)
8. When the duration of the day and the night is equal, the rays of the Sun fall directly
on:
(1) North Pole
(2) Equator
(3) South Pole
(4) Tropic of Cancer
Ans. (2)
9. Water of which one of the following seas is most saline?
(1) Baltic Sea
(2) Black Sea
(3) Dead Sea
(4) Red Sear
Ans. (3)
10. Where was the first power plant established in the world?
(1) Britain
(2) Germany
(3) Russia
(4) U.S.A.
Ans. (4)
11. The Vice President of India is elected by:
(1) The People
(2) The Electoral College which elects the President
(3) The members of both the Houses of Parliament
(4) The State legislatures
Ans. (3)
12. The provisions relating to fundamental duties in the Constitution of India was added on the recommendation of:
(1) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(2) Iyengar Committee
(3) Swaran Singh Committee
(4) Thakkar Commission
Ans. (3)
13. In accordance with the Table of Precedence (Government of India), select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of precedence:
(1) Chief Justice of India— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States—Governors of States within their respective States
(2) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Justice of India-Chief
Minister of States within their respective State Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Ministers of States within their respective State—Chief Justice of India—Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Chief1Justice of India— Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States
Ans. (4)
14. Hypo, used in photography is chemically
(1) sodium bicarbonate
(2) sodium cyanate
(3) sodium nitrate
(4) sodium thiosulphate
Ans. (4)
15. Which one of the following groups of crops is grown In India during the Rabi season? (1) Wheat, barley, gram
(2) Rice, maize, wheat
(3) Barley, maize, rice
(4) Millet, gram. Rice
Ans. (1)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I (Minerals) List-II (Major producer)
A. Mineral Oil 1. Zambia
B. Copper 2. Guyana
C. Manganese 3. Venezuela
D. Bauxite 4. Gabon
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (3)
17. The part of the human brain that retains memory is the:
(1) hypothalamus
(2) cerebellum
(3) cerebral cortex
(4) brainstem
Ans. (3)
18. Consider the following statements about the mega cities of India:
1. Population of each mega city is more than 5 million.
2. All the mega cities are important sea ports.
3. Mega cities are either national or state capitals.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (4)
19. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List-I (Publisher) List-II (Publication)
A. Ministry of Industry 1. Report of Currency and Finance
B. Central Statistical Organization 2. Economic Survey
C. Reserve Bank of India 3. Wholesale Price Index
D. Ministry of Finance 4. National Accounts Statistics
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (2)
20. Consider the following statements regarding environmental issues of India:
1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.
2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River
Conservation Plan.
3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal
education in environment and conservation.
4. Environmental information System (E.N.V.I.S.) acts as a decentralized information network for environmental information.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) l, 2 and 4
(2) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 2
(4) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
21. From which part of the cinchona plant is quinine extracted?
(1) Bark of the stem
(2) Flower
(3) Fruit
(4) Leaf
Ans. (1)
22. Molasses is an excellent raw material for:
(1) Acetic acid
(2) Glycerin
(3) Power alcohol
(4) Urea
Ans. (1)
23. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is:
(1) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(2) U. P, Maharashtra, Tami Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
(3) Maharashtra, U. P, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(4) U. P, Maharashtra. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Ans. (2)
24. Tehri Dam being constructed in Uttranchal is on the river:
(1) Alaknanda and Mandakini
(2) Bhagirathi and Bhahlangana
(3) Bhaghathi and Alaknanda
(4) Yamuna and Ganga
Ans. (2)
25. Which of the following are more numerous in the district of Dehradun?
(1) Bhotias
(2) Buksas
(3) Janissaries.
(4) Tharus
Ans. (3)
26. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for Implementing International treaties
(1) with the consent of all the States
(2) with the consent of the majority of States
(3) with the consent of the States concerned
(4) without the consent of any State
Ans. (4)
27. In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is:
(C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total Exports and total Imports respectively).
(1) Y = C + I + G + X.
(2) Y = C + I + G— X + M
(3) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
(4) Y = C + I – G + X – M
Ans. (3)
28. The first woman to climb Mount Everest was:
(1) Marie Jose Perec
(2) Florence Griffith Joyner
(3) Junko Tabei
(4) Jackie Joyner Kersee
Ans. (3)
29. The largest contribution to the export earnings of India comes from the export of:
(1) Agricultural products
(2) Gems and Jewellery
(3) Machinery
(4) Textiles and ready-made garments
Ans. (4)
30. The oldest large scale industry of India is
(1) Cotton textiles
(2) Iron and steel
(3) Jute
(4) Paper
Ans. (1)
31. The World Trade Organization came into being in
(1) 1990
(2) 1995
(3) 1998
(4) 2000
Ans. (1)
32. Self sustained growth was adopted as an objective for the first time In Indla’Iñ the:
(1) Third Five Year Plan
(2) Fourth Five Year Plan
(3) Fifth five Year Plan
(4) Sixth Five Year Plan
Ans. (2)
33. Match List-I (Oceanic Trench) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Oceanic Trench) List-II (Location)
A. Aleutian 1. Indian Ocean
B. Kermadec 2. North Pacific Ocean
C. Sunda 3. South Pacific Ocean
D. S. Sandwich 4. South Atlantic Ocean
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
34. Which one of the following gases is used by plants in photosynthesis?
(1) Ammonia
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Chlorine
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Ans. (2)
35. Pascal is a unit of measuring:
(1) Humidity
(2) Pressure
(3) Rainfall
(4) Temperature
Ans. (2)
36. Which among the following grains has maximum protein content?
(1) Cowpea
(2) Lentil
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Soybean
Ans. (4)
37. “Ranikhet disease” is related to:
(1) Chicken
(2) Cows
(3) Goats
(4) Horse
Ans. (1)
38. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time
(2) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood
(3) White Blood Cells (W. Bc.) are made by lymph nodes only
(4) The blood has more platelets than W.Bc.
Ans. (4)
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Institute) List-II (Location)
A. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies 1. Hyderabad
B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 2. Mumbai
C. National. Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-sciences 3. Bangalore
D. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages 4. Dharamshala
5. Varanasi
Code:
A B C D
(1) 5 3 4 1
(2) 5 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 5
(4) 4 5 1 2
Ans. (4)
40. Match List-I (Saint-poets) with List-II (Language of their Compositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Saint-poets) List-II (Language of their Compositions)
A. Mirabai 1. Malayalam
B. Tyagaraja 2. Bengali
C. Chandidas 3. Hindi
D. Purandardasa 4. Telugu
5. Kannada
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 1 5
(2) 3 4 2 5
(3) 2 5 1 4
(4) 3 5 2 4
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weight of the hydrocarbons?
(1) Methane, ethane, propane and butane
(2) Propane, butane, ethane and methane
(3) Butane, ethane, propane and methane
(4) Butane, propane. ethane and methane
Ans. (1)
42. Which organelles in the Cell, other than nucleus, contains D.N.A.?
(1) Centriole
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria
Ans. (4)
43. Brass is an alloy of:
(1) Aluminum and Copper
(2) Copper and Tin
(3) Copper and Zinc
(4) Zinc and Iron
Ans. (3)
44. Tear gas is:
(1) Ammonia
(2) Chlorine
(3) Hydrogen Carbide
(4) Hydrogen Sulphide
Ans. (1)
45. 1 kg/cm2 pressure is equivalent to
(1) 0.1 bar
(2) 1.0 bar
(3) 10.0 bar
(4) 100.00 bar
Ans. (2)
46 Match the two list- I and list- II with regard to bird sanctuaries in Uttar Pradesh and
find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
A. Nawabgà nj bird sanctuary
B. Ohkla bird sanctuary
C. Samaspur bird sanctuary
D. Parvati Aranga birds sanctuary
List-II
1. Gonda
2. Unnao
3. Ghaziabad
4. Rae Bareli
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (2)
47. India’s population’s growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match list –I (Period) with List-II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Period) List-II (Phase)
A. 1901 – 1921 1. Steady growth
B. 1921 – 1951 2. Rapid high growth
C. 1951 – 1981 3. Stagnant growth
D. 1981 – 2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 1 3 2 4
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (3)
48. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(1) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(2) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Fund and Public Accounts
(3) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss account
(4) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans. (3)
49. “Metastasis” is the process by which:
(1) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs
(2) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs
(3) the chromosomes in cell nuclear are attached to the spindle before moving to the anaphase poles
(4) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further
Ans. (2)
50. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain child of:
(1) W. Churchill
(2) M. Jinnah
(3) Lord Mountbatten
(4) V. P. Menon
Ans. (3)
MCQ Quiz on GK For PSU Exams Like ONGC
1 Which one of the following European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?
(1) Portugal
(2) Austria
(3) Finland
(4) Romania
Ans. (1)
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Greenland is an overseas territory of France.
2. Bermuda an overseas territory of UK is situated in Western Atlantic.
3. State of Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) l, 2, and 3
(2) 2 only
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l and 3
Ans. (3)
3. If the usual rule of calculation of time were applied for the extremes of Gujarat and
Arunachal Pradesh, then approximately time
(1) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 3 hours
(2) at Gujarat would be ahead of that at Arunachal Pradesh by about 2 hours
(3) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
(4) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by 2 hours
Ans. (4)
4. While the time in India is 4 pm, that corresponding time (approximate) in?
(1) Auckland (New Zealand) is 6 pm
(2) London (England) is 10.30 am
(3) Tokyo(Japan) is 2 p.m.
(4) Cairo (Egypt) is 5 p.m.
Ans. (2)
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavell as the Governor General of India in March 1947.
2. In July 1947, British Government passed the Act containing the main provisions of the Mountbatten Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
6. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can:
(1) move from one cell to another
(2) disturb host cell respiration
(3) undergo auto-reproduction
(4) cause disease in the host
Ans. (1)
7. Which of the following States is the first to have enacted a comprehensive legislation to protect the girl child?
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (4)
8. Match List-I (Tennis Player) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Tennis Player) List-II (Country)
A. Justine Henin-Hardenne 1. Belgium
B. Kim Clijsters 2. England
C. Tim Henman 3 Australia
D. Andy Roddick 4. US
5. Spain
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 4 3 4
(2) 5 1 2 3
(3) 1 1 2 4
(4) 5 4 3 2
Ans. (3)
9. Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution to the forest-cover of India:
(1) Dense forest—Open forest— Mangrove forest
(2) Open forest—Dense forest—Mangrove forest
(3) Dense forest—Mangrove forest—Open forest
(4) Open forest—Mangrove forest—Dense forest
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Astra’ is an air-to-air guided missile which was recently test-fired.
2. Recently test-fired ‘Akash’ is a medium range surface to surface missile.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2.
Ans. (1)
11. Which of the following countries is not included in 0-8 (Group of eight industrialized countries)
(1) Italy
(2) Russia
(3) Holland
(4) Canada.
Ans. (3)
12. Match List (Dance Forms) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Dance Forms) List-II (State)
A. Kathakali 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Kuchipudi 2. Kerala
C. Bharat Natyam 3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Karnataka
Code:
A B C
(1) 2 3 4
(2) 5 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 5 4 2
Ans. (3)
13. Gross National Product of a country Is the sum of the market value of all the goods and services produced in a year
(1) plus export earnings
(2) plus market value of imports.
(3) minus foreign aid
(4) plus net Income from abroad
Ans. (4)
14. India had a plan holiday:
(1) after the China-India War of 1962
(2) after the drought of 1966
(3) after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
(4) after the India-Pakistan War in 1965
Ans. (2)
15. In the Constitution of India promotion of International peace and security is included
In the-
(1) Preamble of the Constitution
(2) Directive Principles of State Policy
(3) Fundamental Duties
(4) Ninth Schedule
Ans. (2)
16. Consider the following statements related to the Prime Minister of India:
1. He signs the bills passed by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his absence.
2. He assists the President in making all the appointments.
3. He communicates to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (4)
17. Match List-I (Place) with List -II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Place) List-II (State)
A. Sriharikota 1. Karnataka
B. Thumba 2. Andhra Pradesh
C. Hasan 3. Orissa
D. Chandipur 4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 5 4
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 1 4 5 3
(4) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (2)
18. Separation of the Judiciary from the executive in public service of the State is enjoined by -
(1) the Preamble of the Constitution of India
(2) a judicial decision
(3) the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
(4) a Directive Principle of State Policy
Ans. (4)
19. Which one amongst the following is the oldest Dynasty?
(1) Pallava Dynasty
(2) Chola Dynasty
(3) Maurya Dynasty
(4) Gupta Dynasty
Ans. (3)
20. The Chalukya King who defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada was:
(1) Pulakesin II
(2) Srimukha
(3) Mangalesa
(4) Kirtivarman I
Ans. (1)
21. Who among the following Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar?
(1) Rani Durgawati
(2) Ahilya Bai
(3) Martanda Varma
(4) Raja Sawai Jai Singh
Ans. (1)
22. Consider the following statements related to Raja Rammohan Roy:
1. He advocated widow remarriage.
2. He strongly .advocated for the abolition of Sati system
3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (3)
23. Tissue culture is:
(1) growing of tiny plant fragments in a nutrient solution
(2) a system of physical exercise for the regeneration of body tissues
(3) growing of plant fragments on tissue paper
(4) culturing of bacteria on tissue paper
Ans. (1)
24. Match List-I (Substance) with List-II(Constituent) and, select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Substance) List-II (Constituent)
A. White paint 1. Titanium dioxide
B. Glass 2. Phosphorus
C. Artificial fertilizer 3. Sodium silicate
D. Match-stick 4. Potassium sulphate
5. Potassium chloride
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 5 2
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 4 2 5 3
(4) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (4)
25. The six distinct schools of Indian philosophy—Vedanta, Mimamsa, Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Valsesika became fully articulated during the:
(1) Vedic age
(2) Gupta age
(3) Kushana age
(4) Mauryan age
Ans. (4)
26. Gautama Buddha attained pari- nirvana at:
(1) Lumbini
(2) Sarnath
(3) Kushinagar
(4) Bodh Gaya
Ans. (3)
27. Who among the following belongs to the period of Kanishka?
1. Buddhaghosa
2. Nagarjuna
3. Vasumitra
4. Asvaghosa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(1) 2, 3, and 4
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 1, 3, and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (1)
28. Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Nature of Disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given blow the Lists:
List-I (Disease) List-II (Nature of Disease)
A. Filaria 1.Hereditary
B. Epilepsy 2. Waterborne
C. Enteric fever 3. Contagious
D. Mumps 4. Insect-Transmitted
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 3 4 1
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (2)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the hydroelectric plants.
2. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the thermal power plants.
3. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. is located in Tamil Nadu
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) 3 only
Ans. (1)
30. The layer of the atmosphere which makes radio communication possible is
(1) troposphere
(2) tropopause
(3) ionosphere
(4) stratosphere
Ans. (3)
31. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sangrahalaya : Bhopal
(2) Ramakrishna Mission Institute of Culture : Kolkata
(3) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library : Lucknow
(4) Anthropological Survey of India (Headquarters) : Kolkata
Ans. (1)
32. Consider the following statements:
The Estimates Committee
1. is an ad hoc committee.
2. has members from both the Houses of Parliament.
3. has members drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) 3 only
Ans. (3)
33. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens were laid down by which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India?
(1) 40th Amendment
(2) 41st Amendment
(3) 42nd Amendment
(4) 43rd Amendment
Ans. (4)
34. Match list-I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Organization)
A. C. P. Jain 1. Indian Oil Corporation
B. M. S. Ramachandran 2. National Thermal Power Corporation
C. Sunil Arora 3. Securities and Exchange Board of India
D. G. N. Bajpai 4. Indian Airlines
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (4)
35. Consider the following statement related to the 50th National Film Awards:
1. Aishwarya Rai got the Best Actress award for her role in the film Devdas.
2. Aparna Sen got the Best Director award for the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer
3. Konkona Sen got the Best Actress award or her role in the film Mr. and Mrs.
Iyer
4. Sanjay Lela Bhansali got the Best Director award for the film Devdas.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (2)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. In July 2003, East Bengal Club won the L.G Asean Cup football tournament
defeating Bec Tero Sasana Club of Indonesia at Jakarta
2. Sandip Nandy of East Bengal Club was adjudged the best goalkeeper of this tournament.
3. Baichung Bhutia of East Bengal Club was the highest goal scorer of the tournament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 3
(3) l and 2
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Linux 1. Internet
B. Pentium 2. Programming language
C. C++ 3. Microprocessor
D. Modem 4. Operating system
5. Laser printer
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 5 3
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 2 3 5 1
(4) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (2)
38 Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised after the Chinese aggression.
2. Border Security Force was raised in 1965.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in Udaipur.
Which of these statements are correct.?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l and 3
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following statements.:
1. The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance at any time if he is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action.
2. The Vice-President of India can be re-elected to his post.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
40. Jharkhand does not share boundary with
(1) West Bengal
(2) Orissa
(3) Chhattisgarh
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (4)
41. Bhimbetka which was been conferred the status of World Heritage Site is situated in:
(1) Orissa
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Bihar
Ans. (3)
42. Prof. Raghuram Rajan is/was associated as Chief Economist of:
(1) World Trade Organization
(2) World Bank
(3) International Monetary Fund
(4) Economic and Social Council of the UNO
Ans. (3)
43. The autobiography Living History has been authored by—
(1) Margaret Atwood
(2) Benazir Bhutto
(3) Hillary Clinton
(4) Monica Lewinsky
Ans. (3)
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Jacques Chirac : President of France
(2) Gerhard Schroeder : Chancellor of Germany
(3) Silvio Berlusconi : Prime Minister of Italy
(4) Jean Chrétien : President of Austria
Ans. (4)
45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Nalin Surie : Ambassador to America
(2) Shiv Shankar Menon : High Commissioner to Pakistan
(3) S. K. Sinha : Governor of Jammu & Kashmir
(4) K. Kasturirangan : Chairman, Indian Space Research Organization
Ans. (4)
46. No Biosphere Reserve. has been set up at —
(1) Nilgiri
(2) Sunderbans
(3) Gulf of Mannar
(4) Gulf of Kuchchh
Ans. (4)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO for marketing Indian space capabilities.
2. Megha-Tropiques is a joint satellite mission of ISRO and Russian Space Agency
for atmospheric studies.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
48. Bauxite is the principal ore of:
(1) Copper
(2) Aluminum
(3) Iron
(4) Zinc
Ans. (2)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. State Central Library is located at Mumbai.
2. National Library is located at New Delhi.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
50. Match List-I (Major Port) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Major Port) List-II (Estate)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Paradip Port 2. Maharashtra
C. Kandla Port 3. Orissa
D. Ennore Port 4. Gujarat
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (2)
Latest General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quiz
1. Match List-I (Country) with list-II (Sea) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Country) (Sea)
A. Yemen 1. Caspian Sea
B. Bulgaria 2. Black Sea
C. Algeria 3. Mediterranean Sea
D. Iran 4. Red sea
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (2)
2. Match List-I (Mineral Resources in India) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Mineral Resources in India) (Location)
A. Kolar Gold Field 1.Bihar
B. Khetri Copper Complex 2. Karnataka
C. High-grade Iron Ore Deposits 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Neyveli Lignite Field 4. Bailadila (Chhattisgarh)
5. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 1 2
(2) 2 5 4 3
(3) 3 5 4 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (2)
3. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of formation of the given
States?
(1) Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim – Gujarat — Haryana
(2) Gujarat — Haryana — Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim
(3) Himachal Pradesh — Haryana — Gujarat — Sikkim
(4) Gujarat — Haryana — Pradesh
Ans. (2)
4. Which one of the-following States is the major producer of cardamom?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Sikkim
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (2)
5. Match List-I (Defense Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Training Institute) (Location)
A. INS Valsura 1. Mhow
B. Air Force Administrative College 2. Coimbatore
C. Army War College 3. Jamnagar
D. Institute of Military Law 4. Kamptee
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 1 2
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (3)
6. Match List-1 (Training Institutes of Para—Military Forces) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Training Institutes of Para-Military Force) (Location)
A. Internal Security Academy 1. Indore
B. BSF Academy 2. Hakim pet (Secunderabad)
C. Central School of Weapons and Tactics 3. Mt. Abu
D. National Industrial Security Academy 4. Tekanpur
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 4 3 2
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 1 2 3 4
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (2)
7. Match list-I (Venue of Olympic Games) with List-II (Year) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Venue of Olympic Games) (Year)
A. Seoul 1.1992
B. Los Ange1es 2.1984
C. Atlanta 3. 1996
D. Barcelona 4. 1988
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 4 1
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (2)
8. Among the following famous Indian/Pakistani Hockey players, who is the Pakistani player.?
(1) Aslam Sher Khan
(2) Mohammad Shahid
(3) Zafar Iqbal
(4) Shahbaz Ahmed
Ans. (4)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. India won the One-day cricket World Cup in 1983 in Australia.
2. Sunil Gavaskar made his test-cricket debut against England.
3. Anil Kumble took 10 wickets in one inning of a cricket test match against Pakistan
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (2)
10. Match List-I (Indian Sports persons) with List-II (Game/ Sport) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Indian Sports persons) List-II (Game/Sports)
A. Aprana Popat 1. Weightlifting
B. Koneru Humpy 2. Shooting
C. Abhinav Bindra 3. Chess
D. Kunjarani Devi 4. Badminton
5. Hockey
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 5 4 3
(2) 4 5 2 3
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (4)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. A Chief Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of death. .
2. A Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
12. Which one among the following has the highest population density in India?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Delhi
(4) Chandigarh
Ans. (3)
13. The Survey of India works ‘under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India?
(1) Ministry of Defense
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Science and Technology
(4) Ministry of Tourism and Culture
Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gives constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
2. Gram Sabha means a body consisting of the persons elected by the villagers above the age of 18 years residing in the area of the Gram Panchayat.
3. The Constitution envisages that. Gram Sabha selects beneficiaries under various schemes of the Central Government undertaken for rural development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) 1, 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (3)
15. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Delhi and Pondicherry have Lieutenant Governors
(2) The Administrator of Chandigarh is designated as the Chief Commissioner
(3) The Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry may make laws with respect to matters enumerated in List II or List III of the Seventh Schedule in so far as these matters are applicable in relation to that Union Territory
(4) The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi does not require the prior approval of the Central Government for the introduction of any Bill in the Legislative Assembly
Ans. (2)
16. With reference to human nutrition, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Deficiency of Vitamin A can cause the non-functioning of tear-producing glands
(2) Vitamin A is synthesized in the skin in the presence of sunlight
(3) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 is common in those areas where polished rice is the major food item
(4) Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of calcium in urine
Ans. (2)
17. Consider the following statements:
In human body.
1. The opening of stomach into intestines is called caecum.
2. The junction of small intestine and large intestine is called pylorus..
3. Colon is much broader than the ileum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 only
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 3 only
Ans. (1)
18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Sweating at night and weight loss are symptoms of AIDS
(2) There are no vaccinations against Cholera
(3) Typhoid is caused by a Bacterium
(4) Oral vaccine is available to prevent typhoid
Ans. (4)
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Vitamin A : Fish liver oil
(2) Vitamin B1 : Whole cereals
(3) Vitamin C : Milk
(4) Vitamin E : Butter
Ans. (3)
20. Consider the following minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
21. Consider the following statements:
1. Chickenpox is caused by a bacterium.
2. Japanese Encephalitis (J E) is caused by virus and spread by mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
22. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was the contemporary of Gautam Buddha
(2) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was born at Rajgriha
(3) Siddhartha was born at Lumbini
(4) The ancient town Sravasti is the modern Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (2)
23. With whom did the English conclude the Treaty of Sagauli by which Kumaon and Garhwal were ceded to the British rule?
(1) Mughal Emperor
(2) Nawab of Awadh
(3) Rohillas
(4) Gurkhas
Ans. (4)
24. Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal with the help of the English, but why was Mir Jafar reinstated later on?
(1) Mir Jafar bribed the English heavily and made them remove Mir Kasim
(2) Mir Kasim opposed the religion-conversion of natives by the English
(3) Mir Kasim fought with the English as they were flouting the internal trade laws,
causing heavy loss to his income,
(4) The English felt that Mir Kasim had joined hands with the Mughal Emperor to oust the Eng1ish from India
Ans. (3)
25. Who was the Maratha Peshwa when, the Third Battle of Panipat was fought?
(1) Balaji Baji Rao
(2) Narayan Rao
(3) Madhav Rao II
(4) Baji Rao II
Ans. (1)
26. Match List-I (Temple) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple) List-II (Place)
A. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple 1.Varanasi
B. Adinatha Temple 2. Kangra
C. Brajesvari Devi temple 3. Khajuraho
D.Vishvanath Temple 4. Dilwara, Mt. Abu
Code:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 4 3 1
(4) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (2)
27. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(1) During India’s freedom struggle, Independence Day was observed all over India
on 26th January 1930
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose Inaugurated the Government of Free India in Singapore in 1942
(3) The Muslim League joined the Constituent Assembly in 1945
(4) The Indian Independence Act 1947 was passed in the British Parliament
Ans. (3)
28. Which one among be following was started first during the freedom struggle of India?
(1) Bombay Presidency Association
(2) Indian Association
(3) Madras Native Association
(4) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Ans. (3)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Burma and India were separated under the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the abolition of the Indian
Council
3. The ‘Government of India Act, 1935 granted limited franchise to Indian women
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 only
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
30. Match List- I (Organization) with List-II (Founder) and se1ect the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
List-I (Organization) List-II (Founder)
A. East India Association 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Satya Shodhak Samaj 2. Devenaranath Tagore
C. Servants of Indian Society 3. Gopa1 Krishna Gokhale
D Tattivabodhini Sabha 4. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 1 4 3 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (3)
31 The great emperor Kanishka belonged to which dynasty?
(1) Maurya
(2) Vardhana
(3) Kushan
(4) Gupta
Ans. (3)
32. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(1) Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty— Sun Dynasty
(2) Lodhi Dynasty — Sun Dynasty —Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(3) Khilji Dynasty — Sun Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(4) Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty Khilji Dynasty—Sun Dynasty
Ans. (1)
33. Consider the following statements
1. Function of flywheel in an engine Is to reduce fluctuations of its speed.
2. Octane 93 is a rating of diesel as fuel.
3. Gyroscopic principle is used In ships and aircraft.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) l and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (2)
34. Consider the following statements:
1. Modem is used to link a computer with a telephone line so that data can be transmitted at high speeds from one computer to another.
2. Pentium chip performs the function of RAM in a computer CPU.
3.Giga represents 109
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 3 only
(4) 1, 2, and 3
Ans. (4)
35. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) So far there have been three proclamations of Emergency in whole of India
(2) A written communication of the decision of the Union Cabinet is an essential precondition for the issue of proclamation of Emergency In whole of India by the President of India
(3) Under no circumstances could the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India be denied even during Emergency.
(4) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation of Emergency or its continuance, it shall be revoked within two months
Ans. (4)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. A new chapter on the Fundamental Duties of citizens was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
2.A new article dealing with the Right to Education regarding providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. The Right to Property has been omitted as a Fundamental right and made only a legal right.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (4)
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants,
3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) l, 2, and 3
Ans. (4)
38. Which one of the following is the, correct statement?
(1) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President of India
(2) The comptroller and Auditor General of India is ineligible for any other office under the Government of India or any State Government after he has ceased to hold his office
(3) The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are
determined by the Ministry of Finance
(4) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following statements:
l. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
2. Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds
the Office of the Vice President of India for a period of six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
40. Which one of the following States shares boundaries with the maximum number of other States of India?
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Assam
(4) Bihar
Ans. (1)
41. Which. of the following is a cash crop?
(1) Wheat
(2) Mullets
(3) Rice
(4) Rubber
Ans. (4)
42. Match List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple/Heritage Site) List-II (State)
A. Brihadeswara Temple 1. Orissa
B. Dilawara Temple 2. Tamil Nadu
C. Lingaraja Temple 3. Karnataka
D. Hampi Group of monuments 4. Rajasthan
5. Kerala
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 5 4
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 1 4 5 3
Ans. (2)
43. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations Organization?
(1) International Court of Justice
(2) Economic and Social Council
(3) Trusteeship Council
(4) Food and Agriculture Organization
Ans. (4)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Chilka Lake 1. Kerala
B. Alappuzha 2. Orissa
C. Fort Aguda 3. Port Blair
D. Cellular Jail National Memorial 4. Goa
5. Hyderabad
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 3 4 5 2
(3) 2 4 5 3
(4) 3 1 4 2
Ans. (1)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Bengal was separated into two provinces during the term of Lord Minto as the Viceroy of India.
2. Simon Commission came to India while Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India
3. The Government Of India Act of 1919 is also known as Montagu – Chelmsford
Reforms.
Which of these statements are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (4)
46. Which one of the following is not an official language of the United Nations Organization?
(1) Arabic
(2) Russian
(3) Chinese
(4) German
Ans. (4)
47. Consider the following statements
1. Polar diameter of the earth is about 40km. larger than its equatorial diameter.
2. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is oxygen.
3. On summer solstice sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 2 only
Ans. (2)
48. When Cripps Mission came to India, who among the following was the Viceroy of India?
(1) Lord Irwin
(2) Lord Linlithgow
(3) Lord Wavell
(4) Lord Willington
Ans. (2)
49. Consider the following statements:
1. India gave up the status of Dominion on 15th August, 1947.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 was amended and made the provisional Constitution of India till the Constituent Assembly of India framed a new Constitution.
3. Constituent Assembly functioned only as a Constitution-making body and
not as a provisional Parliament of India.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2, and 3
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 only
Ans. (2)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Railways have seven zones.
2. Jan Shatabdi trains were introduced in the 150th years of the Indian Railways.
3. The Research, Design and Standards Organization which functions as a consultant to the Indian Railways in technical matters is located at Allahabad.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(l) l and 2
(2) 1, 2, and 3
(3) 2 only
(4) l and 3
Ans. (3)
Current Affairs and Current GK for exams.
1. Which one of the following is used as purgative?
(1) Calcium chloride
(2) Magnesium
(3) Potassium iodide
(4) Sodium thiosulphate
Ans. (1)
2. The fibrinogen which is associated with blood clotting is produced by
(1) Bone marrow
(2) Liver
(3) Pancreas
(4) Spleen
Ans. (1)
3. Which one of the following sets is a part of vitamin B complex?
(1) Thiamine, riboflavin, biotin, calciferol
(2) Thiamine, riboflavin, retinol, biotin
(3) Thiamine, biotin, pyridoxine, ascorbic acid
(4) Thiamine, riboflavin biotin, nicotinic acid
Ans. (2)
4. Match List -I (Gland) with List -II (Hormone Produced) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Gland) (Hormone Produced)
A. Adrenal 1. Aldosterone
B. Pancreas 2. Calcitonin
C. Thyroid 3. Glucagon
Code:
A B C
(1) 1 2 3
(2) 1 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 3 1 2
Ans. (2)
5. Which of the following are good sources of vitamin C (ascorbic acid)?
l. Grapes
2. Pineapple
3. Guava
4. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) l, 2 and 3
(2) l and 4
(3) 2, 3 and 4
(4) 1, 2. 3 and 4
Ans. (1)
6. Match List -I (Person) with List- II (Associated With) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Associated With)
A. Elfriede Jelinek 1. World Bank
B. Paul Wolfowitz 2. Media
C. Rupert Murdoch 3. Music
D. Zubin Mehta 4. Literature
Code:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (3)
7. Match List -I (Famous Person) with List- II (Well-known As) and Select the correct using the code given below in the list:
List-I List-II
(Famous Person) (Well-known As)
A. Billy Arjun Singh 1. Historian
B. Habib Tanvir 2. Painter
C. Irfan Habib 3. Theatre personality
D. Jatin Das 4. Wildlife conservationist
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 3 4 2
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (4)
8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Anjolie Ela Menon : Painter
(2) Bula Chowdhury : Film direction
(3) Sunita Narain : Environmental activist
(4) Swarn Noora : Singer.
Ans. (2)
9. What was the main subject of the Kyoto Protocol?
(1) Bio-diversity
(2) Global warming
(3) Alternative sources of energy
(4) Genetically modified organisms
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Legal Literacy Mission, is being implemented by the Law Commission.
2. The official mascot for the National Legal Literary Mission is Ashoka’s Dharma chakra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
11. Under which one of the following Union Ministries does the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee work?
(1) Science and Technology
(2) Environment and Forests
(3) Agriculture
(4) Human Resource Development
Ans. (4)
12. The Dinka tribe, whose members are amongst the tallest in the world, and are frequently in news, belong to which of the following countries.
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Uzbekistan
(3) Spain
(4) Sudan
Ans. (4)
13. Where is the NTPC’s 520- MW Tapovan Vishnugad hydro-electric project ?
(1) Assam
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Uttranchal
Ans. (4)
14. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. Ministers of the Union Cabinet.
3 Chief Ministers of the States.
4; The Chairman, Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) l and 2
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 2, 3 and.4
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
15. In India, where is its only live volcano located?
(1) Byramgore Reef
(2) Palk Bay
(3) Little Nicobar
(4) Barren Island
Ans. (3)
16. Which one of the following is not among the G4 countries which seek a permanent
Membership in the Security Council of the UNO?
(1) Brazil
(2) Germany
(3) Italy
(4) Japan
Ans. (3)
17. ‘Deen Dayal’ Project of the Gujarat Government deals with which one of the following?
(1) Housing for the rural population
(2) At least one-job for every family
(3) Promotion of rural handicraft industry
(4) Gas discovery in the Krishna Godavari basin
Ans. (3)
18. Chaitra l of the National Calendar based on the Saka era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian Calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
(1) 22nd March
(2) 15th May
(3) 31st March
(4) 21st Apr
Ans. (1)
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Rapid Action Force is an integral part of the National Security Guards
2. Sashastra Seema Bal under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defense.
Which of the statements given above Is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor2
Ans. (1)
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police is fondly called “Friends of the Hill People”.
2. Besides the Public Sector Undertakings, the security at the airports and the government buildings in Delhi has been entrusted to the Central Industrial Security Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
Directions: The following 5 (Five) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (1)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
21. Assertion (1): During the reign of Siraj-ud-daulah of Bengal, the English East India Company began to fortify Calcutta began to fortify Calcutta with out the Nawab’s permission.
Reason (R): The English Company had already got permission from the Emperor Shah Alam II to fortify Calcutta in anticipation of their fight with the French stationed at Chandernagore.
Ans. (3)
22. Assertion (1): Samudragupta undertook a military campaign to South India:
Reason (R): The rulers of South India posed a major threat to the stability of the Gupta Empire.
Ans. (2)
23. Assertion (1): The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): The size of the Pacific Ocean is larger as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
Ans. (1)
24. Assertion (1): The amount of dust particles is more in equatorial regions as compared to that of temperate areas.
Reason (R): The equatorial regions are warmer as compared to the temperate areas.
Ans. (1)
25. Assertion (1): The enactment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act marks a new era in the federal democratic set-up of the country.
Reason (R): This Act bestowed constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Ans. (1)
26. Consider the following statements:
1. The filament of a 60-watt bulb is thinner than that of a 100W bulb.
2. The filament of a glowing bulb emits infrared radiation in addition to visible radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. PVC (used in electric wiring) is an abbreviation for Poly Vanadium Carbon.
2. RDX is an abbreviation for Research Development Explosive.
3. A hectare is equal to 10 acres whereas an acre equals around 4050 square meters of area.
Which f the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2 and 3only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 2 only
Ans. (4)
28. Where is Diego Garcia located?
(1) Atlantic Ocean
(2) Indian Ocean
(3) Pacific Ocean
(4) Mediterranean Sea
Ans. (2)
29. Why can Moon be not used as a communication satellite?
(1) The distance between Earth and the Moon is not suitable for the purpose
(2) The period of revolution of the Moon is not 24 hours
(3) The Moon doe not evolve in the equatorial plane of the Earth
(4) All the above three are the reasons
Ans. (4)
30. Where is the Riviera region, well known for its climate, landscape and holiday resorts located?
(1) Between New Zealand and Australia
(2) Between Austria and Switzerland
(3) Between the United States of America and Canada
(4) Between France and Italy
Ans. (1)
31. A steel chain consists of 50 links connected to each other. The chain is pulled by applying force F at each of its ends. What is the magnitude of force induced in each link?
(1) F/50
(2) F
(3) 50F
(4) F/25
Ans. (2)
32. Which one of the following countries does not border the Black Sea?
(1) Romania
(2) Ukraine
(3) Bulgaria
(4) Croatia
Ans. (4)
33. Consider the following statements:
1. The Draft Constitution as well as the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on- 26th November, 1949 were in both English and Hindi.
2. As per the Constitution of India, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in both English and Hindi.
Which of the following given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
34. Consider the following statements:
1. In Part IX of the Constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2. The Eleventh Schedu1 of the Constitution of India distributes powers between the State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the Seventh Schedule distributes power between the Union of India and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4 Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of a State may reserve a Bill for consideration of President of India.
2. The Governor of a State is competent to withdraw an ordinance issued in the State at
any time
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
36. Consider the following statements:
1. In the parliamentary system of India, if the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the
power to withhold his assent from the Bill.
2. As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council to Ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and to the Rajya Sabha
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(1) 1only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
37. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala related to which one of the following issues?
(1) Acquiring private land for government
(2) Exploitation of women at workplace
(3) Basic features of the constitution of India.
(4) Reservation of jobs for OBCs in the government service
Ans. (3)
38. Consider the following statements:
1. The British Crown had assumed direct rule in India before the Sepoy Mutiny
2. Lord Canning was made the first Viceroy and Governor General after the end of the rule of the East India Company.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
39. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) The Government of India Act, 1919 : Minto-Morley Reforms.
(2) The Cripps Mission : Year 1942
(3) The Government of India Act, 1935 : Provincial Autonomy
(4) The Cabinet Mission Plan : Year 1946
Ans. (1)
40. In which century was the ancient Vijayanagar city founded.
(1) l7th century
(2) 16th century
(3) 15th century
(4) 14th century
Ans. (4)
41. The Battle of Kanawha was fought between
(1) Hutna3ktn and Mahmud Lodi
(2) Babur and Ebrahim Lodi
(3) Babur and Rana Sangha
(4) Humayun and Sher Khan
Ans. (3)
42. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(1) Kumara Gupta – Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(2) Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya – Samudra Gupta
(3) Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya -Kumara Gupta
(4) Samudra Gupta – Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta – Vikramaditya
Ans. (3)
43. Match List -I (City) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I List- II
(City) (Country)
A. Zagreb 1. Uruguay
B. Bratislava 2. Seychelles
C. Victoria 3. Croatia
D. Montevideo 4. Slovakia
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 4 3 1
(4) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (2)
44. Match List -I (Famous Athletes) with List -II (Event) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List- I List-II
(Famous Athletes) (Event)
A. Florence Griffith Joyner 1. 10,000 m race
B. Michael Johnson 2. 200 m race
C. K Bekele 3. Pole vault
D. S. Bubka 4. l00 m race
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (4)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Income Tax Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a digit alphanumeric number:
2. India is divided into10 zones for postal pin code classification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
46. The term ‘Kamikaze’ was used in reference to
(1) The Singapore industries
(2) The Korean athletes
(3) The Japanese pilots
(4) The Chinese musicians
Ans. (3)
47. Match. List-I (Famous Place) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Famous Place) List-II (Country)
A. Monte Carlo 1. England
B. Fleet Street 2. Monaco
C. Great Barrier Reef 3. United States of America
D. Flushing Meadows 4. Australia
Code:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (1)
48. Which one of the following pairs of Organization and headquarters is not correctly matched?
(1) Asian Development Bank : Manila
(2) Organization of American States (OAS) : Washington
(3) Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) : Minsk
(4) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) : Colombo
Ans. (4)
49. Which one of the following countries does not border Austria?
(1) Germany
(2) Switzerland
(3) Hungary
(4) France
Ans. (4)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The Presidential Election of the United States of America is held every fifth year
2. The Vice-President of the United States of America is the ex officio President of the House of Representatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
Solved Model Paper Solved Question Paper IDBI Bank Executive Exam
1. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C and A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth?
(1) C
(2) B
(3) E
(4) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans. (2)
2. A man is facing. south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180? in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is:
(1) North-east
(2) North-west
(3) South-east
(4) South-west
Ans. (4)
3. Among five friends:
Mangla is taller to Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller to Sapna but not as tall as Neela. In this group who is the shortest?
(1) Mangla
(2) Sapna
(3) Pushpa
(4) Asha
Ans. (2)
4. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of income of B and D. The highest income is of:
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (2)
5. In a class of 60 students. where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kama1, the number of boys in rank after him is:
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 13
Ans. (3)
6. If X and Y are brothers Z is sister of X, P is brother of Q, and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P?
(1) Z
(2) X
(3)Q
(4) Y
Ans. (2)
7. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given
. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is:
(1) 19
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 31
Ans. (4)
8. Same positions of dice are shown below:
What is the number opposite to 4?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1
Ans. (4)
Directions: (9-13): A management company is to form a 5 member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance expert, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts C, D and E can work as accountants. F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.
9. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?
(1) A, B, C, D, F
(2) A, C, D, E, F
(3) A, B, C, F, G
(4) B, C, D F, G
Ans. (1)
10. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?
(1) C must work as finance expert
(2) Any of the three marketing experts can be included
(3) Neither D nor E can be included
(4) F must be included
Ans. (2)
11. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(1) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant
(2) B and C as finance experts
(3) G and H as marketing experts
(4) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts
Ans. (2)
12. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 13
Ans. (1)
13. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group if all preferences are respected?
l. A
2. E
3. F
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (14-18): Read the following seven statements to solve the next five Items.
(i) Five boys B1 B2 B3 B4 and B5 and five girls G1 G2 G3 G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the odd numbered seats starting from the left while, each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.
(ii) B4 is G4’s friend
(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.
(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.
(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.
(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.
(vii) G4 sits next to B2
14. G3’s friend may be
(1) B1 or B2
(2) B1, B3 or B5
(3) B1, B2 or B3
(4) B2 or B5
Ans. (2)
15. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?
(1) B2, 2 B1, G5 B
(2) B4, 04. 02., Q5
(3) G2, B2, G4. B4, G1 or G3
(4) B4, G5, 82. G2,131 or B5
Ans. (4)
16. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (4)
17. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?
(1) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend but, not both
(2) Only the identity of B1’s friend
(3) Only the identity of B5’s friend
(4) Who is sitting to B4’s left
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?
1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left ?
2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?
3. Which other girls are nearest toG2?
Which the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (18-21): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour a carries a different number (from 1 to 6)
(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.
(ii) The orange face has number 1.
(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.
(iv) When the orange face is facing an observer, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.
(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-colored.
(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.
18. Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-colored face?
(1) White, Blue, Black, Pink
(2) White, Orange, Black, Blue
(3) Blue, Black, Pink, White
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (2)
19. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?
(1) Blue
(2) Pink
(3) Grey
(4) White
Ans. (1)
20. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (3)
21. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?
(1) Orange – Black
(2) White – Blue
(3) Pink – Grey
(4) Black - White
Ans. (4)
22. There are five friends — P. Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T is younger to R and S. both P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S.
Who among the five friends is the eldest?
(1) S
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) Cannot be ascertained with the given data
Ans. (2)
23. A, B, C, D, and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R. S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city.
Further, it is given
1. B and. C do not belong to
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) C belongs to P
(2) D belongs to R
(3) A belongs to Q
(4) B belongs to S
Ans. (4)
24. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) S is the grandson of P
(2) S is the grandson of U
(3) V is the son-in-law of P
(4) V is the son of U
Ans. (4)
25. Along chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons .
(2) The force induced In each link will be equal to 30 newtons
(3) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
(4) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are
given
Ans. (3)
Sample Solved Questions
1. The average score of three boys in Mathematics is 30.
When the score of the fourth boy is added to the total score of the three boys, the average is lowered to 25. What is the score of the fourth boy?
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25
Ans. (1)
2. A walks 10 meters in front and 10 meters to his left and right. Then every turn left he walks 5, 15 and 15 meters respectively. What is the distance from his initial point?
(1) 5 meters
(2) 10 meters
(3) 15 meters
(4) 23 meters
Ans. (1)
3. The number of terms between 11 and 200 which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are:
(1) 18
(2) 19
(3) 27
(4) 28
Ans. (1)
4 What is the 6th term in the sequence of 2, 3, 6, 11, and 18?
(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 29
(4) 31
Ans. (2)
5. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of:
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 50
Ans. (1)
6. Two varieties of rice Rs. 10 per kg and Rs.12 per kg are mixed together in the ratio 1:2. What is the price of the resulting mixture?
(1) Rs. 10.50 per kg.
(2) Rs. 10.67 per kg
(3) Rs. 11.20 per kg,
(4) Rs. 11.33 per kg
Ans. (4)
7. By selling 15 mangoes a fruit vendor recovers the cost price of 20 mangoes. What is the profit percentage of the fruit vendor?
(1) 20.5%
(2) 30.67%
(3) 33.33%
(4) 35.4%
Ans. (3)
8. The average of marks of 13 papers is 40, The average of marks of first 7 papers is 42, and that of the last 7 papers is 35. What are the marks of the seventh paper?
(l) 17
(2) 19
(3) 21
(4) 24
Ans. (2)
9. Three years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby having been born, the average age of the family is the same as what was three years ago. What is the age of the baby?
(1) 8 months
(2) 9 months
(3) 1 year
(4) 2 years
Ans. (4)
10. In a 100 m race for children, A runs at 1.66 m/s. If A gives B a start of 4m and still beats him by 12 seconds, what is B’s speed?
(1) 0.75 m/s
(2) 1 km/h
(3) 1.11 m/s
(4) 1.33 m/s
Ans. (4)
11. Amit takes twice as mush time as Aryan and thrice as much as Raman to finish a piece of work. Together they finish the work in 1 day. What is the time taken by Amit to finish the work?
(1) 2 days
(2) 3 days
(3) 6 days
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
12. When 60% of a number A is added to another number B, B becomes 175% of its previous value. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) A > B
(2) B > A
(3) Either o1 the above can be true depending upon the values of A and B
(4) None of the above three can be predicted with out more data
Ans. (1)
13. The present population of a village is 5500. If the number of males increases by 11% and the number of females increases by 20% then the population will become 6330.
What is the present population of females in the village?
(l) 2000
(2) 2500
(3) 3000
(4) 3500
Ans. (2)
14. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage of the number Y less than the number X?
(1) 8 %
(2) 9 %
(3) 10 %
(4) 12 %
Ans. (3)
15. There are four envelopes, each carrying a specific address for each of the four different letters. If the letters are randomly put into envelopes, What is the probability that all the four letters will be put into their respective correctly addressed envelopes?
(1) 1/4
(2) 1/12
(3) 1/18
(4) 1/24
Ans. (4)
16. What is the total number of digits printed if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?
(1) 262
(2) 342
(3) 360
(4) 450
Ans. (2)
17. A person travels three equal distances at a speed of x km/h, y km/h and z km/h respectively. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
(1) xyz
(xy +yz + zx)
(2) (xy + yz + zx)
Xyz
(3) 3xyz
(xy +yz +zx)
(4) xyz
3(xy +yz +zx)
Ans. (3)
18. A person walks 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 19 km due West, and then 15km due South. How far is he away from the starting point?
(1) 61 km
(2) 37 km
(3) 9 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
19. A cube of length one cm Is taken out from a cube of length 8 cm. What is the weight of the remaining portion?
(1) 7/8 of the weight of the original cube
(2) 8/9 of the weight of the original cube.
(3) 63/64 of the weight of the original cube.
(4) 511/512 of the weight of the original cube.
Ans. (4)
20. What are the maximum points of intersection of four circles such that no circle overlaps any other circle?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
21. The average of five consecutive numbers is x. If the next two numbers are also included, how shall the average vary?
(1) It shall increase by 1
(2) It shall remain the same
(3) It shall increase by 1.4
(4) It shall increase by 2
Ans. (1)
22. There are tables containing two drawers each. It is known that one of the tables contains a silver coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a gold coin in each drawer while the third table contains a silver coin in one drawer and a gold coin in the other. One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to contain a silver coin. What is the probability that the other drawer of that table contains a gold coin?
(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.75
Ans. (2)
23. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
24. 10 % of 20 + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)
25. The half life of radioactive element is 5 years. The fraction of the radioactive substance that remains after 20 years is:
(1) l/2
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/8
(4) 1/16
Ans. (4)
26.The surface area of a cube is 216 sq. m. What is its volume?
(1) 100 cu m
(2) 216 cu m
(3) 480 cu m
(4) 512 cu m
Ans. (2)
27. A coin is tossed five times. What is the probability that Head (H) appears an odd number of times?
(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3
Ans. (3)
28. A freight train left, Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?
(1) 230km
(2) 240km
(3) 260 km
(4) 280 km
Ans. (2)
29. There are three tables containing two drawers each. One of the tables contains a gold coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a silver coin in each of its drawers while the third table, contains a gold in one drawer and a silver coin in the other .One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to contain a silver coin .What is the probability that its other drawer contains a gold coin?
(1) 1
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25
Ans. (3)
30. Out of 120 musicians, 5% play all the three instruments- guitar, violin and tabla. 30 musicians among them can play any two and only two of the above instruments. The number of musicians who can play guitar alone is 40. What is the number of musicians who can play violin alone or tabla alone?
(1) 30
(2) 38
(3) 44
(4) 48
Ans. (3)
31. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines on a board. What is the maximum rectangles and squares that can be formed?
(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 42
(4) 42
Ans. (3)
32. What is the number of integers greater than 7000 that can be formed with the digits
3: 5, 7, 8 and 9, no digit being repeated?
(1) 48
(2) 64
(3) 136
(4) 192
Ans. (4)
33. A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 14
(4) 16
Ans. (1)
34. A two-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
(1) 27
(2) 36
(3) 45
(4) 54
Ans. (3)
35. Four volunteers represent the school A. 5 volunteers represent the school B, 6 volunteers represent the school C and 3 volunteers represent the school D.
Each of the volunteers shakes hands with every volunteer from school other than his own. If each volunteer shake hands exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
(1) 153
(2) 141
(3) 119
(4) 108
Ans. (1)
Directions: (Q.36-39) : In a survey of a locality following observations are made:
(i) The number of male adults and female non-adults in 30 each.
(ii) The number of female adults and male non adults in 20 each.
(iii Every female adult is well versed in at least one of the two languages – Hindi
and English
(iv) Every male non adu1t is well-versed with at least one of the two languages — Hindi and English.
(v) 7 male adults and 8 female non-adults do not know any of the two languages.
(vi) 10 male non-adults and 18 female adults are well versed in both the languages.
(vii) 20 male adults and 17 female non-adults are well versed in only one of the two languages.
Based on the information given above answer the next four items:
36. What is the number of females who are well-versed in both the languages?
(1) 18
(2) 35
(3) 23
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (3)
37. What is the number of males who are well-versed in Hindi only?
(1) 20
(2) 43
(3) 10
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (4)
38. What is the number of non adults who are well versed in at least one of the two languages?
(1) 42
(2) 15
(3) 27
(4) Cannot be determined cause of insufficient data
Ans. (1)
39. What is the number of persons who can talk to each other both the languages?
(1) 85
(2) 36
(3) 49
(4) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans. (2)
40. How many times do the hour hand and the minute hand of a watch become perpendicular to each other in 24 hours?
(1) 22
(2) 24
(3) 44
(4) 48
Ans. (3)
41. In how many different ways can 5 different rings be put on 4 fingers?
(1) 20
(2) 45
(3) 54
(4) 9
Ans. (2)
42. How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an Octagon?
(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 28
(4) 64
Ans. (1)
43. A watch loses 2 minutes per day (24 hr) while another watch gains 2 minutes per day (24 hr). At a particular instant the two watches showed an identical time. When will the two watches show the identical time again?
(1) On completion of 7 days
(2) On completion of 30 days
(3) On completion of 120 days
(4) On completion of 180 days
Ans. (4)
44. If successive natural numbers are written in a row starting from 1, which digit appears in the 200th place?
(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7
Ans. (1)
45. Trains leave a station A for another station B after a gap every one hour. Each train takes 4 hours to complete the journey. Trains leave the stations A and B simultaneously after an interval of every one hour. If a person starts from the station A for the station B, how many trains will he cross before arriving at the Station B?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
Ans. (3)
46. In the year 2004, the month of February had 5 Sundays.
In which of the following years did February last have 5 Sundays?
(1) 2000
(2) 1996
(3) 1980
(4) 1976
Ans. (4)
47. Six identical Cards are placed on a table. Each Card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed such that
the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more or less)
cards are turned upside down. In how many tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) This cannot be achieved
Ans. (1)
48. A boy wrote successive whole numbers starting from 1 up to 900 in doing so how many times did he write the digit 7?
(1) 271
(2) 280
(3) 281
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
49. A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate gets 4 marks for
every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer. Which one of’ the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
(1) 396, 395, 394
(2) 393, 392, 391
(3) 392, 391, 390
(4) 389, 388, 387
Ans. (3)
50. Six singers are taking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition. How many comparisons does each judge make between all the singers to select the best among them ?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 24
(l) 25
Ans. (1)
Online GK Quiz Questions
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In India the share of different sectors in the installed electricity generation capacity is central sector > state sector > private sector.
2. The percentage of thermal power out of the total installed electricity generation capacity in India is about 40%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
2. Which of the following countries does not follow the Westminster system of Parliament?
(1) Malaysia
(2) Singapore
(3) Australia
(4) Switzerland
Ans. (4)
3. Magna Carta in England led to the development of:
(1) Constitutional law
(2) International law
(3) Labour law
(4) Criminal law
Ans. (1)
4. Which of the following led to the Constitution of India as the Directive Principle of State Policy?
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
2. Participation of workers in management of industry
3. Equal justice and free legal aid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1)1 and 2 only
(2) 2 and 3only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2 and only
Ans. (4)
5. Consider the fo1long statements:
1. The Annual Financial Statement (Annual Budget) is caused to be laid by the Union Finance Minister before both Houses of the Parliament.
2. The general discussion of the Annual Finance Statement takes place only in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
6 Consider the following statements:
1. For a person to be eligible for election as the Vice-President of India, he must be qualified for election as a member if the Rajya Sabha.
2. No person has ever been re-elected as the Vice-President of India for a second term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
7. Consider the following statement.
1 .The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed only on an address from both Houses of Parliament
2. In India, the Comptroller, and Auditor General has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the Council of Union Ministers into three ranks.
2. A member of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a Union Minister and he enjoys the right to vote in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(l) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. A child inherits 46 chromosomes from each parent.
2. The genetic material called DNA is located in chromosomes.
Which of the statements given above is/ correct?
(l) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the following Statements:
1. BSE Sensex is a value-weighted index consisting of 50 most actively traded stocks on the BSE.
2. The depository system enables paperless trading and transfer of Shares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
11. What is the present (approximate) Gross Domestic Product of India in the US Dollar Exchange rate terms?
(1) US $ 480 billion
(2) US $ 720 billion
(3) US$ 1000 billion
(4) US$ 1220 billion
Ans. (1)
12. In what capacity was P.C. Mahalanobis involved with the formulation of the economic policy of independent India?
(1) As an applied stactician
(2) As Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(3) As a leading industrialist
(4) As a Minister of the Union Cabinet
Ans. (1)
13. Which one of the following is the southernmost major port?
(1) Tuticorin
(2) Mangalore
(3) Ennore
(4) Kochi
Ans. (1)
14. Which one of the following States does not share a border with Orissa?
(1) West Bengal
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (3)
15. Consider the following statements:
1. GATI was succeeded by the World Trade Organization in the year 1995.
2. Headquarters of WTO are in Doha.
3 World Intellectual Property organizations is a specialized agency of WTO
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 on1y
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
16. Which one of the, following Is ‘used as a preservative for foods?
(i) Adipic acid
(2) Butyric acid
(3) Citric acid
(4) Formic acid
Ans. (4)
17. Which one of the following gases contains the greatest percentage of carbon monoxide?
(1) Coal gas
(2) Natural gas
(3) Producer gas
(4) Water gas
Ans. (1)
18. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(1) Zinc
(2) Platinum
(3) Mercury
(4) Arsenic
Ans. (4)
19. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?
(1) Baking soda
(2) Slaked lime
(3) Quick lime
(4) Washing soda
Ans. (1)
20. Why is common salt added to soap during its production?
(1) To decrease the solubility of soap
(2) To increase the solubility of soap
(3) To produce lather with hard water
(4) To provide greater cleansing action
Ans. (3)
21. Which one of the following does not contain copper as constituent?
(1) Phosphor bronze
(2) Solder wire
(3) German silver
(4) Gun metal
Ans. (2)
22. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(1) Iron
(2) Aluminum
(3) Manganese
(4) Magnesium
Ans. (2)
23. Which smelling substance is added to LPG gas cylinders to help in the detection of gas leak age?
(1) Ethyl alcohol
(2) Ethyl mercaptan
(3) Phenol
(4) Benzene
Ans. (2)
24. Which of the following is the main function of a micro processor in a computer?
(1) To convert assembly language to machine language
(2) To convert high level language to machine language
(3) To execute programs stored in the memory of the system
(4) To retrieve information from the Internet
Ans. (3)
25. If v1 is the velocity of light, v2 is the velocity of X-rays and v3 Is the velocity of y- rays, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) V1 > V2 > V3
(2) V1 > V2 = V
(3) V1 = V2 > V3
(4) V1 = V2 =V3
Ans. (4)
26. A liquid crystal acquires which one of the following?
(1) A liquid phase
(2) A solid phase
(3) A phase between solid and liquid
(4) A phase between liquid and gas
Ans. (3)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Puerto Rico is situated in the Caribbean Sea
2. Puerto Rico is an insular area of the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
28. Which one of the following is correct?
Angela Merkel is:
(1) The Prime Minister of Canada
(2) The Chancellor of Germany
(3) The Prime Minister of Australia
(4) The Prime Minister of New Zealand
Ans. (2)
29. Birju Maharaj is a renowned dancer of
(1) Bharatnatyam
(2) Odissi
(3) Kuchipudi
(4) Kathak
Ans. (4)
30. The United Arab Emirates is a federation of how many Emirates?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Ans. (2)
31. Which one of the following is the first State to have both Indian Institute of Technology and Indian Institute of Management?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Karnataka
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (1)
32. Who among the following former Presidents of India did not hold the office of Vice President of India before becoming the President of India?
(1) V. V. Giri
(2) Zakir Hussain
(3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(4) R. Venkatraman
Ans. (3)
33. What is 1 GB equal to?
(1) 10MB
(2) 100MB
(3) 1000 MB
(4) 10000 MB
Ans. (3)
34. Match list-I (Defense Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code give below the lists:
List- I List-II
(Defense institute) (Location)
A. Defense Services Staff College 1. Mhow
B. College of Defense Management 2. Secunderabad
C. Army War College 3. Wellington
D. Military College of Electronics and
Mechanical Engineering
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 2 1 2 3
(2) 3 2 1 2
(3) 2 2 1 3
(4) 3 1 2 2
Ans. (2)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. United Kingdom comprises England, Wales and Scotland only
2. Great Britain comprises United Kingdom and Northern Ireland.
Which of the, statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
36. Ankles war is well known for which one of the following?
(1) Steel plants
(2) Chemical industry
(3) Ship building
(4) Carpet manufacture
Ans. (2)
37. Which one of the following is not a member of the European Union?
(1) France
(2) Greece
(3) Portugal
(4) Switzerland
Ans. (4)
38. At which one of the following places has WTO Ministerial Conference not been held?
(1) Davos
(2) Cancun
(3) Doha
(4) Seattle
Ans. (1)
39. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Uttarkashi : River Bhagirathi
2. Tehri : Confluence of River Bhagirathi and Bhilangana
3. Rudraprayag : Confluence of Rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) l and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1and 3 only
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following statements:
1. Sriharikota is an island off the coast of Kerala.
2. Sriharikota houses the Satish Dhawan Space Center
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
41. What is the present level of steel production in India?
(1) 40 – 42 million tones
(2) 50 – 62 million tones
(3) 60 – 62 million tones
(4) 70 -72 million tones
Ans. (1)
42. For the purpose of Census 2001, which one of the following was taken as being literate?
(1) A person aged 10 years and above, who can both read and write in any language.
(2) A person aged 9 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(3) A person aged 8 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(4) A person aged 7years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
Ans. (4)
43. On the basis of Census 2001, which Indian State has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh?
(1) Bihar
(2) West Bengal
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)
44. Which of the following are the goals set in the National Population Policy 2000?
1. Universalisation of primary education and reduction in the drop out rates at primary and secondary level
2. Containing of sexually transmitted diseases.
3. Universal immunization of children against vaccine preventable diseases
4. Reduction in the incidence of marriage of girls below the age of 18 years to zero.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 and 2 only
(2) 2 and 3 only
(3) 1, 2 and 3 only
(4) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (4)
45. A metal element and a non-metal element are obtained in large quantities from seawater are respectively:
(1) Sodium and Iodine
(2) Sodium and Bromine
(3) Magnesium and Chlorine.
(4) Magnesium and bromine
Ans. (1)
46. Which of the following are the units of pressure?
1. Bar
2. Torr
3.mm of Hg
4. Pascal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 3 only
(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) l and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (4)
47. Which one of the following towns was captured by the Indian National Army in March 1944?
(1) Agartala
(2) Aizwal
(3) Digboi
(4) Kohima
Ans. (4)
48. Where are the Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization (1SO) located?
(1) Berne
(2) Geneva
(3) Rome
(4) Vienna
Ans. (1)
49. Who among the following developed the first safe, vaccination method?
(1) Alexander Fleming
(2) Edward Jenner
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Robert Koch
Ans. (2)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947.
2. The National Anthem was first, sung on 27th December 1911 at Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1)1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
Solved Model Papers of MP PSC State Service (Pre) Exam
1 Where is the Headquarters of NATO located?
(1) Amsterdam
(2) Brussels
(3) Berlin
(4) Paris
Ans. (2)
2. At which one of the following places is the Liquid Propulsion Systems Center located?
(1) Chandipur
(2) Mahenragiri
(3) Sriharikota
(4) Wheeler Island
Ans. (2)
3. Which one of the following Committees/Authorities is associated with the recommendation of the repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act?
(1) Justice Jeeven Reedy Committee
(2) Rajinder Saccar Committee
(3) R. S. Pathak inquiry Authority
(4) U. C. Banerjee Committee
Ans. (1)
4. Among the following eminent citizens, who is a renowned chemist?
(1) S. N. Subba Rao
(2) C. N. R. Rao
(3) Rani Abhay Singh
(4) Rajinder Singh
Ans. (2)
5. In the recently held 37th IFFI in Goa the film director of which country won the Best Film Award and Golden Peacock?
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Iran
(4) Russia
Ans. (1)
6. in which country does Basque separatist group operate?
(1) Ireland
(2) Italy
(3) Spain
(4) Turkey
Ans. (3)
7. Recently, China made a very large dam to tame which one of the following rivers?
(1) Huang Ho
(2) Mekong
(3) Yarlung Zangpo
(4) Yangtze
Ans. (4)
8. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule by an official proclamation?
(1) Lord Hastings
(2) Lord Cornwallis
(3) Lord Minto
(4) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (4)
9. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(1) Raja Rammohan Roy
(2) Devendra Nath Tagore
(3) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(4) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (1)
10. Who among the following was sent by Lord Hardinge to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(1) B. G. Tilak
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3) M. G. Ranade.
(4) Moti Lal Nehru
Ans. (2)
11. Consider the following pairs:
a. Hyderabad : Musi
b. Lucknow : Gomati
c. Surat : Narmada
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) b and c only
(4) a b and c
Ans. (4)
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List –II
(Place of Religious interest) (State)
A. Sabrima1a 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Shravanabelagola 2. Karnataka
C. Srirangam 3. Kerala
D. Srisailam 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 4 2 3 1
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (3)
13. Which one of the following Sequences of rivers is correct from North to South?
(1) Bhima – Manjra -Thungabhadra
(2) Manjra – Bhima -Thungabhadra
(3) Bhima –Thungabhadra -Manjra
(4) Manjra –Thungabhadra -Bhima
Ans. (2)
14. Which one of the following mineral ores is the Shimoga district well-known for?
(1) Bauxite
(2) Manganese
(3) Mica
(4) Zinc
Ans. (2)
15. The Syr Darya and Amu Darya fall into which one of the following?
(1) Caspian Sea
(2) Black Sea
(3) Aral Sea
(4) Lake Baikal
Ans. (3)
16. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(1) Falkland Currents
(2) Canary Current
(3) Labrador Current
(4) Gulf Stream
Ans. (1)
17. Which one of the following Sates does not share boundary with Jharkhand?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Orissa
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (4)
18. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(1) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh only
(2) Chhattisgarh and Orissa only
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(4) Andhra Pradesh .Chhattisgarh and Orissa,
Ans. (3)
19. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(1) Dutch
(2) English
(3) French.
(4) Portuguese
Ans. (4)
20. The efforts of whom of the following led to the ‘Age of Consent Act. 1891’?
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) M. G. Ranade
(3) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(4) Malbari
Ans. (4)
21. What was the name of the party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose after leaving Indian National Congress?
(1) Congress Socialist Party
(2) Forward Bloc
(3) Indian National Conference
(4) Swaraj Party
Ans. (2)
22. Among the following who was a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) Rajendra Prasad
(4) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (2)
23. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(l) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Abut Kalam Azad
(4) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (1)
24. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(1) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(2) Demonstration of Akali Sikhas at Nabha
(3) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(4) Dandi March
Ans. (4)
25. With which one of the following was Jayprakash Narayan associated?
(1) All lndia a Kisan Sabha
(2) Communist Party of India
(3) Congress Socialist Party
(4) Indian Independence League
Ans. (3)
26. Among the follow1ng which one is a major component of biogas (Gobargas)?
(1) Acetylene
(2) Ethane
(3) Ethylene
(4) Methane
Ans. (4)
27. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?
(1) Baking soda
(2) Quick lime
(3) Slaked lime
(4) Washing soda
Ans. (1)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List-II
(Musician) (Instrument)
A. Amjad Ali Khan 1. Flute
B. Lalgudi G. Jayaraman 2. Sarod
C. Pannalal Ghose 3. Sitar
D. Vilayat Khan 4. Violin
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (2)
29. With which one of the following countries, does India have the longest border?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) China
(3) Pakistan
(4) Myanmar
Ans. (2)
30. Area wise, which one among the fo1lowing is the largest?
(1) Chandigarh
(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(3) Delhi
(4) Puducherry
Ans. (1)
31. For which one of the following States, is Guwahati High Court not its High Court?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Mizoram
(4) Sikkim
Ans. (4)
32. In which of the following is the percentage of haemog1obin maximum?
(1) Infants
(2) Children of around 10 years of age
(3) Men
(4) Women
Ans. (3)
33. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin K
Ans. (2)
34. How many liters of blood pass through kidneys of a normal person in a day
(1) 1.7 liters
(2) 17 liters
(3) 170 liters
(4) 1700 liters
Ans. (4)
35. Which of the following has/have velocity equal to that of light?
(1) X-ray
(2) y-ray
(3) Ultraviolet ray
(4) All of the above
Ans. (4)
36. If f 1, f 2 and f 3 are the frequencies of light in diamond, glass
and water respectively, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) f 1 > f 2 > f 3
(2) f 3 > f2 > f 1
(3) f 1 = f 2 > f 3
(4) f 1 = f 2 = f 3
Ans. (2)
37. Why is one end of a sewing needle made pointed?
(1) To increase the force
(2) To increase the pressure
(3) To decrease the weight
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
38. Consider the following statements:
a. Sodium bicarbonate present In the digestive tablets reacts with gastric juices to reduce acidity in the stomach.
b. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly known as cooking soda.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
39. In which of the following is magnesium present?
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Haemoglobin
Ans. (3)
40. Consider the following statements:
a. Sand is a mixture
b. Diamond is an element
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
41. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN?
(1) Brunei Darussalam
(2) East Timor
(3) Laos
(4) Myanmar
Ans. (2)
42. The pandemic Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) which has been in news frequently is caused by which of the following?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Protozoa
(4) Viruses
Ans. (4)
43. What does Antrix Corporation ltd deal with, that came into the news recently?
(1) Brokering arms deals between India and supplier countries/companies
(2) Mediating between India and Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) countries
(3) Developing genetically modified crop plants
(4) Marketing ISRO’s launch vehicles to fly satellites from abroad
Ans. (4)
44. Consider the following statements:
a. colour blindness is found in men and not in women.
b. Night blindness is found in old and aged, and not in young.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
45. Darfur, which is frequently new, is located in which of the following regions?
(1) Eastern side of Sudan
(2) Western side of Sudan
(3) North-Western side of Ethiopia
(4) Northern side of Kenya
Ans. (2)
46 Which one of the fo1lowing locations does not have a steel plant of SAIL?
(l) Bhilai
(2) Bokaro
(3) Rourkela
(4) Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (4)
47. Which one of the following pharmaceutical companies filed writ petitions against Government of India and others, to plead against the rejection of its patent application by a patent office in Chennai?
(1) Aventis
(2) Cipla
(3) Glaxo- Smith Kline
(4) Novartis AG
Ans. (4)
48. Recently, the National Assembly of which one of the following nations had given the President of that nation the authority to pass laws by decree for a period of 18 months?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
49. Which one of the following took over the Anglo-Dutch steel company Corus-?
(l) Jindal Steel
(2) Mittal- Arcelor
(3) Neelanchal lspat Nigam Ltd
(4) Tata Steel
Ans. (4)
50. Consider the following statements:
a. ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL) has 40% equity in the Sakhalin-I Project of Russia
b. The Sakhalin -1 Project is operated by OVL
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
1. Consider the following statements:
a. The Commonwealth is an association of 45 countries.
b. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meetings (CHOGM) are held every two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
2. The independent nation Montenegro originated out of the dissolution of which one of the following?
(1) Bulgaria
(2) Czechoslovakia
(3) Romania
(4) Yugoslavia
Ans. (4)
3. Which one of the following countries produces Phalcon airborne warning and control systems (AWACS)?
(1) India
(2) Israel
(3) Russia
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
4. Which one of the following is in correct chronological order?
(1) Surat Split- Partition of Bengal Lucknow Pact-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(2) Partition of Bengal – Surat Split – Lucknow Pact- Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(3) Surat Split – Partition of Bengal – Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy— Lucknow Pact
(4) Partition of Bengal- Surat- Split-Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy – Lucknow Pact
Ans. (2)
5. Into how many categories are the Fundamental Rights classified in the Constitution of India?
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight
Ans. (2)
6. When a Court of Law gives an order directing a public authority to perform its duties if its non performance causes injury to the petitioner, it is known by which one of the following writs?
(1) Certiorari
(2) Habeas Corpus
(3) Mandamus
(4) Quo Warranto
Ans. (3)
7. Consider the following statements in respect of be Union Budget of India:
a. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays an Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
b. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of lndia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (2)
8. Consider the following statements:
a. The Constitution of India lays down ten Fundamental Duties for every citizen of India.
b. The Constitution of India provides for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
9. Who appoints the District Judges?
(1) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State
(2) Governor of the concerned State
(3) Public Service Commission of the concerned State
(4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Ans. (2)
10. Recently which one of the following countries built a more than 30 km long bridge which spans sea?
(1) China
(2) South Korea
(3) Japan
(4) Malaysia
Ans. (1)
11. Recently in which one of the following countries did a leak of water with radioactive material at a very large nuclear plant occur?
(1) Australia
(2) Japan
(3) Russia
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
12. Between which of the following is the Guru Govind Singh Refinery Project at Bhatinda a joint venture?
(1) IPCL and ONGC
(2) HPCL and Mittal Energy
(3) IPCL and Mittal Energy
(4) HPCL and Cain Energy
Ans. (2)
13. The Hyde Act which has been very frequently in news is related to which of the following?
(1) An agreement between India and Israel for supply of defense equipment
(2) An agreement between India and Canada for supply of uranium,
(3) An agreement between India and the USA for civil nuclear cooperation
(4) An agreement between India and China for flood control
Ans. (3)
14. How is international personality Zadie Smith well kown as?
(1) Environmentalist
(2) Human Rights activist
(3) Litterateur
(4) Musician
Ans. (3)
15. Among the following States, which one was given full statehood last?
(1) Goa
(2) Sikkim
(3) Haryana
(4) Nagaland
Ans. (2)
16. In the SAARC Summit held in New Delhi in April, 2007, three observer countries sent their Foreign Ministers to the Summit. Which one of the following was not an observer country?
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Myanmar
(4) South Korea
Ans. (3)
17. What is the approximate percentage of generated electricity contributed by NTPC to the total electricity generated during 2006-07 in the country?
(1) 45%
(2) 40%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%
Ans. (3)
18. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the salivary glands?
(1) Pepsin
(2) Ptyalin
(3) Rennin
(4) Trypsin
Ans. (2)
19 Which one of the following crops increases soil fertility by adding nitrates to soil?
(1) Black-gram
(2) Cotton
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Tomato
Ans. (1)
20. Consider the following:
a. Flying squirrel
b. Porcupine
c. Barking deer
Which of the above is/are naturally found in India?
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)
21. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins causes increased loss of calcium ion in urine?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B5
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D
Ans. (4)
22. What is BT cotton that is frequently in the news?
(1) A hybrid of Egyptian and American varieties of cotton
(2) A hybrid of cultivated and wild varieties of cotton
(3) A genetically modified pestresistent cotton
(4) A drought-resistant variety of cotton
Ans. (3)
23. Consider the following vitamins:
a. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
b. Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
c. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine)
Milk is a source for which of the above?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (4)
24. Which of the following in human body manufacture the antibodies that are responsible for immunity?
(1) Muscle cells
(2) Nerve cells
(3) Red blood cells
(4) White blood cells
Ans. (4)
25. Among the following, who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas?
(1) Rabi Ray
(2) Shivraj Patil
(3) P.A. Sangma
(4) G. M. C. Ba1yogi
Ans. (4)
26. Who among the following received the International Cosmos Prize, 2006?
(1) Mala R. Chinoy
(2) M.S. Narasimhan
(3) Raman Sukumar
(4) Kota Harinarayana
Ans. (3)
27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List-II
(Famous Company) (Country of Origin)
A. Rosneft 1. Malaysia
B. Petronas 2. Russia
C. Volkswagen 3. Germany
D. Wal-Mart 4. USA
A B C D
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (4)
28. Who of the following helped Humayun in recovering his kingdom’?
(1) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(2) Shah Hussain Arghun of Sind
(3) Shah Tahmasp of Persia
(4) Maldeo of Bikaner
Ans. (3)
29. Who was the Governor-General Of the’ East India Company’ when the Revolt of 1857 took place?
(1) Lord Bentinck
(2) Lord Hastings
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord canning
Ans. (4)
30. During, the Indian freedom struggle, what was the purpose of the Simon Commission?
(1) To inquire into events related to Jallianwala Bagli Massacre
(2) To look into the working of the Government of India Act, 19l9
(3) To suggest strategies to promote Western education of India
(4) To design a constitution for India within the framework of ‘Dominion Status’.
Ans. (2)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Ian Wilmut produced the first portable computer.
2. Adam Osborne created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
33. Which one of the following is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India?
(1) Bhakra Nangal Project
(2) Damodar Valley Corporation
(3) Hirakud Multipurpose Project
(4) Thungabhadra Multipurpose Project
Ans. (2)
34. Match list-I with list- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Fertilizer Industry) (State)
A. Aluva 1. Assam
B. Namrup 2. Jharkhand
C. Nangal 3. Kerala
D. Sindri 4. Punjab
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (3)
35.The famous Petronas Twin Towers are located in:
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Malaysia
(4) Indonesia
Ans. (3)
36. Match list-I with list -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Famous Place) (State)
A. Bhimbhetka 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Bhiterkanika 2. Karnataka
C. Pattadakal 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Srikalahasti 4. Orissa
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 4 3
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (4)
37. Bokaro Steel Limited was established with the assistance of:
(1) Germany
(2) Soviet Union
(3) UK
(4) USA
Ans. (2)
38. Which one of the following is not a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC):
(1) Algeria
(2) Brazil
(3) Ecuador
(4) Nigeria
Ans. (2)
39. Consider the following cities:
(1) Bhatinda
(2) Jamnagar
(3) Mangalore
Which of the above has/have oil refineries?
(1) 1 and 2 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 2 and 3 only
(4) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (3)
40. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Person) (Well known as)
(A) K. V. Kamath 1. Banker
(B) G. M. Rao 2. Environmentalist
(C) Rajendra Pachauri 3. Industrialist
Code:
(a) (b) (c)
(1) 1 2 3
(2) 1 3 2
(3) 2 3 1
(4) 3 1 2
Ans. (2)
41. Consider the following statements:
1. The Shivaliks have tropical moist deciduous flora.
2. The Bundelkhand plateau has thorn and scrub forest type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
42. Which one among the following rivers is the longest:
(1) Amazon
(2) Amur
(3) Congo
(4) Volga
Ans. (1)
43.Consider the following statements:
1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature.
2. Convectional rainfall is highly localized and is associated with minimum cloudiness
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2.
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
44. Which of the following is true in the case of Ellen Johnson Sir leaf recently in the news?
(1) First woman who completed non-stop flight around the globe
(2) An African female human rights activist In the Darfur region
(3) Female scientist who deciphered the complete human genome sequence
(4) Africa’s first elected female Head of State
Ans. (4)
45. Consider the following statements:
a. Nitrogen gas can put out fire but is still not used in the extinguishers.
b. Critical temperature of nitrogen is very high.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (1)
46. What was the name of the organization founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London to Influence the British public, opinion in India’s favour?
(1) Indian Association
(2) Indian League
(3) British Indian Association
(4) East India Association
Ans. (4)
47. Rakesh Sharma India’s first cosmonaut, was launched from which one of the following places?
(1) Baikanour
(2) Cape Canaveral
(3) Kourou
(4) Tashkent
Ans. (1)
48. Recently which one of the following countries launched a rocket to put a Sun observation satellite in an orbit?
(1) Australia
(2) Canada
(3) Italy
(4) Japan
Ans. (4)
49. Among the following, who was not a co-founder of NAM?
(1) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(2) Josip Broz Tito
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru
(4) Yasser Arafat
Ans. (4)
50. In recent times, which one of the following countries was hit by Typhoon Saomi, the strongest storm to hit that country in the last 50 years?
(1) Australia
(2) China
(3) Malaysia
(4) Thailand
Ans. (2)
.K. & G.S.for Himachal Pradesh (HP) Public Service Commission
HIMACHAL PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION prepare
1. Consider the following pairs:
1. Ilbert Bill : Lord Hastings
2. August Offer : Lord Ripon
Which of the above pairs is are correctly matched?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (4)
2. Who of the following founded the “East India Association”?
(1) C.R. Das
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) V. D. Savarkar
Ans. (2)
3. Who of the following started the newspaper “Bande Mataram”?
(1) Barindra Kumai Ghose
(2) Bipin Chandra Pal
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans. (2)
4. Consider the following famous historical persons:
1. Ashvaghosha
2. Bhavabhuti
3. Nagarjuna
4. Naga sena
Who of the above are Buddhist scholars?
(1) 1 and 3 only
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 1, 3, and 4
(4) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (3)
5. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest bio-diversity?
(1) Dry deciduous forest
(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Moist deciduous forest
(4) Mangrove forest
Ans. (2)
6. Among the following rivers, which one is the longest?
(1) Godavari
(2) Krishna
(3) Mahanadi
(4) Narmada
Ans. (1)
7. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank?
(1) Jakarta
(2) Manila
(3) Singapore
(4) Bangkok
Ans. (2)
8. The National River Conservation Directorate is under:
(1) Ministry of Agriculture
(2) Ministry of Environment and Forest
(3) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(4) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans. (2)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Mikhail Gorbachev was the first President of Russian Federation
2 Dmitry MedvedevVs Vs the fifth President of Russian Federation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
10. Who of the. following is the author of the book “My Country, My Life”
(1) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(2) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(3) L. K. Advani
(4) Shashi Tharoor
Ans. (3)
11. Which one of the following beaches is visited by Olive Ridley turtles annually for mass nesting?
(1) Chandipur
(2) Gahirmatha
(3) Gopalpur
(4) Paradip
Ans. (2)
12. The administration of the English East India Company in India came to an end In:
(1) 1857
(2) 1858
(3) 1862
(4) 1892
Ans. (2)
13. Who of the following is not a sports person?
(1) C. B. Bhave.
(2) P. T. Raghunath
(3) Samaresh Jung
(4) Suma Shirur
Ans. (1)
14. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with:
(1) Cairn Energy
(2) Citigroup
(3) PepsiCo
(4) Vodafone
Ans. (2)
15. What is H5N1 recent times?
(1) A new multi-purpose helicopter of Indian Army
(2) A virus causing Bird Flu
(3) The nearest galaxy to our own Milky way
(4) A genetically modified rice plant
Ans. (2)
16. The Jarawa tribe lives in which one of the following States/Union Territories?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Assam
(3) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(4) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans. (3)
17. A very young sportsperson of India, Virdhawal Khade is a:
(1) Boxer
(2) Chess player
(3) Golfer
(4) Swimmer
Ans. (4)
18. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K
Ans. (2)
19. Which one of the following is a pigment?
(1) Albumin
(2) Elastin
(3) Keratin
(4) Melanin
Ans. (4)
20. On which one of the following dates did Jawaharlal Nehru unfurl the tri-color national flag on the banks of the Ravi as the clock struck the midnight?
(1) 31st December, 1929
(2) 26th January, 1930
(3) 31st December, 1931
(4) 26th January, 1933
Ans. (1)
21. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English. forces under:
(1) Lord Cornwallis
(2) Lord Wellesley
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Hastings
Ans. (2)
22. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between:
(1) Marathas and Portuguese
(2) The English and the French
(3) The English. and Portuguese
(4) Marathas and the English
Ans. (2)
23. The author of “Nildarpan” was:
(1) Dinabandhu Mitra
(2) Sivnath Sastri
(3) Devendra Nath Tagore
(4) Harishchandra Mukherjee
Ans. (1)
24. The first weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by:
(1) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(2) Dinabandhu Mitra
(3) Marshman
(4) Vidyasagar
Ans. (3)
25. Who among the following Peshswas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb?
(1) Balaji Vishwanath
(2) Baji Rao
(3) Balaji Baji Rao
(4) Madhav Rao I
Ans. (3)
26. Who was responsible for the introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?
(1) Lord Mayo
(2) Lord Lytton
(3) Lord Ripon
(4) Lord Curzon
Ans. (2)
27. Alauddin Khalji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from:
(1) Chanderi
(2) Gujarat
(3) Devagiri
(4) Madurai
Ans. (3)
28. Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(1) Bhadrabahu
(2) Chandragupta Maurya
(3) Parsvanatha
(4) Varadhamana Mahavira
Ans. (4)
30. When Babur Invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagara empire in South India?
(1) Saluva Narasimha
(2) Devaraya II
(3) Krishna Deva Raya
(4) Sadasiva Raya
Ans. (3)
31. Who of the following was a contemporary of Chengiz Khan?
(1) Mahmud of Ghazni
(2) Iltutmish
(3) Alauddin Khalji
(4) Mohammad bin-Tughlaq
Ans. (2)
32. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Aurangzeb in the battle of:
(1) Dharmat
(2) Samugarh
(3) Deorai
(4) Khanua
Ans. (2)
33. Who is the author of the book Glimpses of World History?
(1) Abdul Kalam Azad
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) S. Gopalan
(4) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans. (2)
34. Match List-I with. List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Reservoir) (State)
A. Stanley Reservoir 1. Karnataka
B. Koyna Reservoir 2. Maharashtra
C. Jalaput Reservoir 3. Orissa
D. Bhadra Reservoir 4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 3 2 4
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (4)
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I List-II
(Irrigation/Power Projects) (Location)
A. Malprabha 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Kakrapara 2. Karnataka
C. Srisailam 3.Gujarat
D. Bhima 4. Maharashtra
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 4 3 1 2
(4) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (4)
36. Which one among the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite?
(1) Australia
(2) Brazil
(3) West Indies
(4) India
Ans. (1)
37. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated in:
(1) The Netherlands
(2) Belgium
(3) Denmark
(4) Germany
Ans. (1)
38. Which one of the following descriptions denotes the phenomenon of El Nino?
(1) A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground
(2) The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemisphere due to the rotation of Earth
(3) The Anomalous widespread warming of the sea-surface of the tropical and central Pacific ocean
(4) The revolving tropical Storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico
Ans. (3)
39. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Country) (Capital City)
A. Argentina 1. Buenos Aires
B. Brazil 2 .Caracas
C. Peru 3.Lima
D. Venezuela 4. Sao Paulo
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 3 4 2
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (2)
40. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Sea) (Country)
A. Adriatic Sea 1. Bulgaria
B. Baltic Sea 2. Italy
C. North Sea 3. Poland
D. Black Sea 4. United Kingdom
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (2)
41. Among the following States, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Karnataka
(4) Orissa
Ans. (4)
42. What Is the name .of the highest summit of Niligri hills?
(1) Coonoor-betta
(2) Anaimudi
(3) Doda-betta
(4) Vellangiri
Ans. (3)
43. Recently which one of the following lost the status of a planet?
(1) Mercury
(2) Neptune
(3) Pluto
(4) Uranus
Ans. (3)
44. Which one of the following countries was hit by the cyclone Nargis recently causing a great destruction and loss of life?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) Myanmar
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Pakistan
Ans. (2)
45. Which one among the following is nearest to Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research?
(1) Chidambaram
(2) Mahabalipuram
(3) Madurai
(4) Thanjavur
Ans. (2)
46. Which of the following arc connected by over 1700 km long BTC oil pipe line?
(1) Arabian sea Mediterranean sea
(2) Aral sea and Caspian sea
(3) Black sea and Mediterranean Sea
(4) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea
Ans. (4)
47. Where is the old and over 20 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’ which attracts tourists from all over the country?
(1) Nilgiris
(2) Krishna Delta
(3) Palk strait
(4) Malabar coast
Ans. (3)
48. Consider the following statements:
1. The monsoon climate is found in Northern Australia.
2. The China type climate is found in Argentina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
49. At which one of the following places is the monkey called Lion-tailed macaque naturally found?
(1) Shivaliks
(2) Pachmarhi
(3) Nallainalal hills
(4) Nilgiris
Ans. (3)
Solved Quiz GK For AAO Jobs in LIC
1 In which one of the following animals is respiration done by skin?
(1) Flying fish
(2) Sea horse
(3) Frog
(4) Chameleon
Ans. (3)
2. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in:
(1) Cats and bogs
(2) Cattle
(3) Poultry
(4) Humans
Ans. (2)
3. Who of the following recognized that large quantity of energy is released as a result of the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form deuterium?
(1) Enrico Fermi
(2) Glenn Seaborg
(3) Hans Bethe
(4) Werner Heisenberg
Ans. (3)
4. Brass is an alloy of which of the following pairs of metals?
(1) Aluminum and Copper
(2) Chromium and Tin
(3) Copper and Tin
(4) Copper and Zinc
Ans. (4)
5. Which one of the following bacteria helps in improving the soil fertility?
(1) Clostridium
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Salmonella
(4) Staphylococcus
Ans. (2)
6. Consider the following statements:
1. In a person suffering from Myopia, the image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
2. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Theory/Law/Principle) (Scientist)
A. Electromagnetism 1.Darwin
B. Principles of Inheritance 2. Faraday
C. Laws of Inertia 3.Mendel
D. Theory of Natura1 Selection 4. Newton
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 4 3 2
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 1 3 4 2
(4) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (2)
8. Which one of the following is a vitamin?
(1) Citric acid
(2) Folic acid
(3) Glutamic acid
(4) Linoleic acid
Ans. (2)
9. Which one of the following varieties of coal is considered the best quality?
(1) Anthracite
(2) Bituminous
(3) Lignite
(4) Peat
Ans. (1)
10. Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits?
(1) Galileo Galilee
(2) Nicholas Copernicus
(3) Johannes Kepler
(4) Isaac Newton
Ans. (3)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The main constituent of LPG is Butane.
2. The main constituent of Biogas is Methane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
12. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel slowest?
(l) Air
(2) Glass
(3) Water
(4) Wood
Ans. (1)
13. Which one of the following is used in preparing match sticks?
(1) Chile saltpetre
(2) Indian saltpetre
(3) Red phosphorus
(4) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans. (3)
14. Consider the following pairs:
1. Rewalsar lake : Himachal Pradesh
2. Nakki lake : Madhya Pradesh
3 Renuka lake : Uttarakhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3only
(4) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
15. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Vishakhapatnam?
(1) NH 4
(2) NH 5
(3) NH 6
(4) NH 8
Ans. (2)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Scientist) (Well known as)
A. Birbal Sahni 1. Mathematician
B. Ramanujan Srinivasa 2. Paleobotanist
C. Sir C.V. Raman 3. Physicist-Botanist
D. Sir J. C. Bose 4. Physicist
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 3 1 4 2
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (2)
17. The Phenomenon of ‘total internal reflection” is observed in which one of the following?
(1) Glowing tube light
(2) Light passing through lens
(3) Sparkling diamond
(4) Twinkling star
Ans. (3)
18. From which year did Saka era begin?
(1) 78 B.C.
(2) 78 A.D.
(3) l78 A.D.
(4) 278 A.D.
Ans. (2)
19. Among the following elements, which one is not present in pure sugar?
(1) Carbon
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Oxygen
Ans. (3)
20. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II
(Organization) (Headquarters)
A. UNESCO 1. Geneva
B. IMF 2. Paris
C. ILO 3. Vienna
D. UNIDO 4. Washington. D.C.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (2)
21. By convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India?
(1) An eminent journalist of India
(2) A senior Civil Services Officer
(3) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
(4) The Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting
Ans. (3)
22. Consider the following statements:
1. No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
23. Five Year Plans in India are finally approved by the:
(1) Union Cabinet
(2) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(3) National Development Council
(4) Planning Commission
Ans. (3)
24. In India, the power to increase the number Of judges in the Supreme Court lies with:
(1) The President of India
(2) The Chief Justice of India
(3) The Union Ministry of Law
(4 The Parliament of India
Ans. (4)
25. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the:
(1) Preamble to the Constitution
(2) Directive Pincip1es of State Policy
(3) Fundamental Duties
(4) Ninth Schedule
Ans. (2)
26. Consider the, following statements:
1. The Prune Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
2. The Union Finance Minister Is the ex-officio Chairman of the Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (1)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. When Vice-President acts as President of India. he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except where both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 Only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
28. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is:
(1) 400
(2) 450
(3) 500
(4) 550
Ans. (3)
29. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to:
(1) Public sector Understandings
(2) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(3) Private Cooperate Sector
(4) Non-Banking Financial Institutions
Ans. (2)
30. Who is empowered by the constitution of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its term?
(1) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(2) The President of India
(3) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister of India
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (3)
31. In which year was ‘Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana’ launched?
(1) 2004
(2) 2005
(3) 2006
(4) 2007
Ans. (2)
32. The “Uruguay Round” negotiations resulted in the establishment of:
(1) NATO
(2) OECD
(3) WHO
(4) WTO
Ans. (4)
33. With reference to the Union Government, which one of the following does undertake the country -wide Economic Census?
(1) Department of Expenditure
(2) The National Sample Survey Organization.
(3) Planning Commission
(4) The Central Statistical Organization
Ans. (2)
34. Geeta Chandran is well known as a /an:
(1) Bharatnatyam dancer
(2) Classical Carnatic vocalist
(3) Film director
(4) Exponent of Violin
Ans. (1)
35. With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle consider the following statements:
1. P.C. Ray founded the Bengal Chemical Works.
2. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai set up the Steam Navigation Company
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
36. Who of the following was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(1) G. S. Dhillon
(2) G. V. Mavalankar
(3) Hukam Singh
(4) K. S. Hegde
Ans. (2)
37. Who of the following Is associated with Tashkent agreement?
(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Morarji Desai
Ans. (2)
38. Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the:
(1) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(2) Government of India Act, 1909
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans. (3)
39 Which one of the following is a primate?
(1) Bear
(2) Lions
(3) Pangolin
(4) Otter
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following:
1. Potato
2. Radish
3.Turnip
4.Yam
In which of the above are roots used as vegetables?
(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 4 only
(4) l and 3 only
Ans. (2)
41. Which one of the following metals is found in ‘plaster of paris’?
(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Potassium
(4) Sodium.
Ans. (1)
42. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(1) Glucagon
(2) insulin
(3) Somatotropin
(4) Trypsin
Ans. (4)
43. International Date line passes through which of ‘the following?
(1) Atlantic ocean
(2) Black sea
(3) Mediterranean sea
(4) Pacific ocean’
Ans. (4)
44. The deficiency of which one of the following causes a disease called Pellagra?
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Folic acid
(3) Nicotinic acid
(4) Pantothenic acid
Ans. (4)
45, Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Disease) (Type of causative organism)
A. Filaria 1. Bacteria
B. Influenza 2. Fungus
C. Ringworm 3. Nematode
D. Typhoid 4. Virus
Codes:
(a) b) (c) (d)
(1) 1 2 4 3
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (4)
46. From the evolutionary point of view, which one of the following is closer to man?
(1) Dolphin
(2) Flying fish
(3) Shark
(4) Tortoise
Ans. (1)
47. Who of the following is known as Lokahitavadi?
(1) G. H. Deshmukh
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3) J. G. Phule
(4) M. G. Ranade
Ans. (1)
48. With reference to Indian freedom struggle which one among the following events occurred earliest?
(1) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(2) Lucknow Pact
(3) Cripps Mission Proposals
(4) August offer
Ans. (2)
49. During India’s freedom struggle. which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’?
(1) Protest against Rowlatt Act
(2) Protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(3) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Arrival of Simon Commission
Ans. (4)
50 . The Non-Cooperation movement was called off as a result of agitation at which one of the following places?
(1) Calcutta
(2) Champaran
(3) Chauri Chaura
(4) Meerut
Ans. (3)
Free online MCQ Quiz For UPSC (Central Police Forces )
1. The number of times the hands of a watch are at right angle between 4 pm to 10 pm is:
(1) 6
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
Ans. (4)
2. If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on which day did the first of December of the previous year fall?
(1) Tuesday
(2) Friday
(3) Sunday
(4) Monday
Ans. (4)
3. ‘R’ walks 1 km. to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point?
(1) 3 km.
(2) 4 km.
(3) 5 km.
(4) 7 km.
Ans. (3)
4. If WOMEN is coded as 12345 and SERVANT is coded as 6789450, then VOTERS will be coded as:
(1) 920786
(2) 902876
(3) 978206
(4) 972086
Ans. (1)
5. Which will be the next term in the following?
KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD……
(1) OET
(2) OTE
(3) TOE
(4) EOT
Ans. (2)
6. The missing number in the following table is:
1 7 9
2 14 ?
3 105 117
(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 26
(4) 20
Ans. (4)
7. The following blocks are of the same material. Which is the heaviest one?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All equal
Ans. (3)
8. From the following Venn diagram identify the number of persons who are either good speakers or post graduates or doctors.
GS – Good Speakers
P- Post Graduates
D- Doctors
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 15
(4) 122
Ans. (1)
9. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is:
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.5?
(3) 0.75?
(4) 1.0
Ans. (2)
10.
A square is drawn inside the circle as shown in the figure above. If the area of the shaded portion to 32/7 units then the radius of the circle is:
(1) 2 units
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 4 units
Ans. (2)
11. The following figure shows the displacement time (x – t) graph of a body in motion. The ratio of the speed in first second and that in next two seconds is:
(1) 1:2
(2) 1:3
(3) 3:1
(4) 2:1
Ans. (4)
12. The below Venn diagram shows a city population which read three popular daily newspapers Hindustan Times (HT), The Times of India (TI) and Navbharat Times (NT):
If a person is randomly selected from the city population and it is found that he reads at least one of the three newspapers then the person belongs to which part of the. population?
(1) g
(2) a + b + c
(3) P-h
(4) P-g
Ans. (3)
13. Kamala got married 5 years ago.
Today her age is 1 1/4 times her age at the time of marriage. Her sons age is1/10 times her present age. What is her son’s age?
(1) 2 years
(2) 3 years
(3) 4 years
(4) 5 years
Ans. (2)
14. Consider the following:
1. Every square is a rectangle.
2. Every rectangle is a parallelogram.
3. Every parallelogram is not necessarily a square.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above statements?
(1) All parallelograms are either squares or rectangles
(2) A non-parallelogram figures cannot be either a square or a rectangle
(3) All rectangles are either squares or parallelograms
(4) Squares and rectangles are the only parallelograms.
Ans. (2)
15. Distribution of work hours in a factory is shown in the below given table:
Number of Workers Number of hours worked
20 45-50
15 40-44
25 35-39
16 30-34
04 0-29
What is the percentage of workers worked for 40 or more hours?
(1) 40
(2) 25
(3) 33.33
(4) 43.75
Ans. (4)
16.
From the above graph, who out of the four persons A, B, C and D, saves the least percentage of his monthly income?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (3)
17.
In the above diagram square represents boys, circle represents the tall persons, triangle represents tennis players, and rectangle represents the swimmers. Which one of the following numbers .represents tall boys who are swimmers, but don’t play tennis?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
18.
The carpet area of a room with dimensions shown in the above diagram is:
(1) 10 m2
(2) 12 m2
(3) 13 m2
(4) 14 m2
Ans. (3)
19.
In the figure given above BAC = 90°, EA =2 and AC =6. What is the value of BE?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10
Ans. (3)
20. 8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5 apples as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes as much as 8 pineapples. If 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, then an orange’s cost is:
(1) Rs. 9
(2) Rs. 12
(3) Rs. 6
(4) Rs. 15
Ans. (1)
21. If a + b is defined as a b + b a, then consider:
I. 2 + x = 100
II. 4 + x = 45
III. 3 + x = 145
IV. 6 + x = 100
For which of the above is x smallest?
(1) 1
(2) Il
(3) 111
(4) IV
Ans. (4)
22. In a test a candidate attempted only 15 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all the questions in the test carried equal marks, the number of questions in the test is:
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 27
(4) 30
Ans. (2)
23. The grandfather’s age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. The father’s age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. The age of the grandfather is:
(1) 77 years
(2) 70 years
(3) 67 years
(4) 63 years
Ans. (3)
24. If 4 = 102m and 9 = 102n, then 0.15 equals to:
(1) 10 2m—2n
(2) 10 m + n -1
(3) 10 n-m + 1
(4) 10 n-m-1
Ans. (4)
25. Among the following four diagrams, which one illustrates the relationships among citizens, voters, and males?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans. (3)
26. The mean age of combined group of men and women is 25 years. If the mean age of group of men is 26 and that of group of women is 21, then percentage of men and women in the group respectively is :
(1) 60, 40
(2) 80, 20
(3) 30, 70
(4) 50, 50
Ans. (2)
27. Which two figures out of the following four have the same area (with same units)?
(1) l and 3
(2) l and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1 and 4
Ans. (4)
28. Three circles are concentric as in the diagram given below. If a fourth innermost circle is drawn, what will be the number to be inscribed there?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 1
Ans. (2)
29. The width of a rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length. What are the area and the perimeter of the rectangle respectively?
(1) 16 x2 sq unit and 16x unit
(2) 20 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
(3) 32 x2 sq unit and 64x unit
(4) 64 x2 sq unit and 40x unit
Ans. (4)
30. The following diagram shows a triangle with each of its sides produced both ways:
What is the sum of degree measures of the angles numbered?
(1) 720
(2) 540
(3) 1080
(4) 900
Ans. (1)
31. ‘A’ completes a work in 10 days, while ‘B’ and ‘C’ complete it in 12 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ together complete the work?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (2)
UPSC CPO Solved GK
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense Term) (Explanation)
A. Arsenal 1. An aerial duel between two or more aircrafts at a close range
B. Battery 2. Compulsory recruitment of personnel for service in the
armed force
C. Conscription 3. A unit of number of artillery guns, mobile or fixed
D. Dogfight 4. Place where arms and ammunition are manufactured and
stored.
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (2)
2. Ratan Thylam, the famous personality from Manipur, is known for his work in the field of:
(1) Sports
(2) Music
(3) Theatre
(4) Social reform
Ans. (3)
3. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the help of the code given below the dance technique referred to in the paragraph:
Originally known as the “backslide” or “walking on your toes” is a dance technique that presents the illusion of the dancer being pulled backwards while attempting to walk forward. A break dancing move, it became popular around the world after Michael Jackson executed it during a performance in 1983. It subsequently became his signature move, and is now one ‘of the best-known dance techniques in the world.
Code:
(1) Vaganova
(2) Cecchetti
(3) Moonwalk
(4) Jazz
Ans. (3)
4. Which one of the following statements about BRIC is not correct?
(1) In the year 2009 the leaders of the BRIC countries held their first summit in Yekaterinburg
(2) According to Goldman Sachs, the global 4hvestment banking and securities firm, he economic potential of BRIC is such that they may become among the four most dominant economies by the year 2050
(3) BRIC countries suggests for the Doha round to be accelerated in order to find compromise solutions for radical reductions for multibillion dollar subsidies in the agricultural sector
(4) Brazil, Russia, India and Canada are the members of BRIC
Ans. (4)
5. Which among the following was given the gold medal in the National Award for e-Governance, 2008-09 in the innovative usage of technology in e-Governance category?
(1) “Jaankari”, Government of Bihar, DAR and PG, Patna
(2) “E-C1’lY’ Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation, e-Governance Department, Ahmedabad, Gujarat
(3) “Sujala Watershed Project”, Government of Karnataka, Watershed Development Department, Bangaluru
(4) “Fire Alert and Massaging System”, Government of Madhya Pradesh, Forest
Department, Bhopal
Ans. (1)
6. There are 12 major ports in India and Port Trust Boards have been setup for the administration, control and management of 11 of these 12 ports. Which one of the following major ports has been incorporated as a company under the Indian Companies
Act, 1956 and not administered by a Port Trust Board?
(1) Haldia
(2) Paradip
(3) Ennore
(4) Kandla
Ans. (3)
7. Consider the following statements:
(J According to IFC/World Bank Doing Business Report, 2009 India is the most difficult country to enforce contracts in a court or otherwise.
(b) According to the UNIDO Report, 2009 in the Competitive Industrial Performance Index India is ahead of China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
8. Which one of the following statements about Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft is not correct?
(1) It is a twin cockpit multi-role all-weather fighter aircraft
(2) It has air-to-air refueling capability
(3) The aircraft being manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (Nasik)
(4) Pune is the latest base for these most potent combat aircraft of the Indian Air Force
Ans. (3)
9. Consider the following paragraph and using the code given below identify the state referred to in the paragraph:
The state has huge potential in carbon trading, thanks to its vast forest reserve. Nearly 88 per cent area of the’ state is covered by forest, against the national average of 33 per cent. In the North-East India, this is the first state of take initiative in carbon trading.
Code:
(1) Manipur
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Mizoram
(4) Nagaland
Ans. (2)
10. Which among the following country is ranked 1st in the Global Peace Index, 2009?
(1) Denmark
(2) Norway
(3) New Zealand
(4) Austria
Ans. (3)
11. Consider the following statements about Ustad Ali Akbar Khan, who died in June, 2009:
(a) He was a Sarod maestro.
(b) He belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
12. Which one of the following is the theme for International Day for Bio-diversity in the year 2009?
(1) Biodiversity and Poverty Alleviation
(2) Biodiversity: Food, Water and health for All
(3) Biodiversity and Climate Change
(4) Biodiversity and Invasive Allen Species
Ans. (4)
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Phone Brand) (Brand Slogan)
A. Nokia 1. Be inspired
B. Samsung 2. Next is what?
C. Panasonic 3. Connecting people
D. Siemens 4. Ideas for life
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
Ans. (3)
14. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the code given below the town with which the paragraph is associated:
It is basically a traditional centre for cotton. The town accounts for the bulk of India’s cotton knitwear exports to all over the world The Noyyal river runs all across the town, virtually dividing it into two halves.
Code:
(1) Guntur (Andhra Pradesh)
(2) Tirupur (Tamil Nadu)
(3) Erode (Tamil Nadu)
(4) Subarnpur (Orissa)
Ans. (2)
15. Who is Richard Halbrooke?
(1) Producer and Director of Hollywood movies
(2) US pecia1 envoy on Afghanistan and Pakistan
(3) Us ambassador to India
(4) UN observer for overseeing the rehabilitation process of displaced Tamils in Sri Lanka
Ans. (2)
16. Sometimes, the consumption of local made alcoholic beverages may cause blindness or even death. This may be because of contamination of the beverages with:
(1) Vinegar
(2) Carbolic acid
(3) Methyl alcohol
(4) Formic acid
Ans. (3)
17. Which one of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading very small letters printed on a label?
(1) Convex lens of large focal length
(2) Concave lens of large focal length
(3) Convex lens of small focal length
(4) Concave lens of small focal length
Ans. (3)
18. The explanation of, why we get thrown back with a jerk when the stationary bus we are sitting in starts moving forward is
‘given by:
(1) Zeroth law of gravity
(2) Newton’s first law
(3) Newton’s second law
(4) Newton’s third law
Ans. (2)
19. Which among the following is not true about the Swadeshi movement?
(1) It had a wider popular appeal than any other political agitation that preceded it
(2) It enlisted the support of the Muslim masses
(3) It had an economic character
(4) The Swadeshi movement was supported by a section of the radical press in England
Ans. (2)
20. Which Reformer does the following passage relate to?
“He insisted on the cooperation of the Muslims with the British Government arid looked at the all political movements with distrust. Thus, when the Indian National Congress was formed, he opposed it. He regarded education and education alone as, the means of national progress.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) Keshab Chandra Sen
(2) Lord Macaulay
(3) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
(4) Badruddin Tyabji
Ans. (3)
21. Consider the following statements about the press and literature in Colonial India:
(a) The print media enabled the nationalists living in different parts of the country to exchange views with one another.
(b) The British rulers were prepared to tolerate the nationalist criticism of their rule.
(c) The Vernacular Press Act (1878) evoked a nationwide protest against the encroachment on freedom of expression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) b only
(4) a and b
Ans. (1)
22. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Indian cities like Dacca, Murshidabad and Surat were known all over the world as centers of trade and industry in the pre-colonial period.
(b) Such centers of trade and industry went down in the face of foreign competition in the colonial period.
(c) Indian artisans, manufacturers and weavers were ‘provided alternative, employment by the British Indian government after the decline of these center& of trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c only
(4) a only
Ans. (3)
23. Consider the following statements relating to the Bhakti Movement:
(a) The Bhakti and Sufi Saints gradually brought about a better understanding of the fundamental tenets of Hinduism, and Islam underlining the fact that they had a great deal of similarity.
(b) The Bhakti and Sufi Saints also brought-about important changes in the approach to religion, laying greater emphasis on formal Observances and rituals.
(c) They also contributed to the growth of regional languages and literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(1) a and b
(2) b only
(3) b and c
(4) c only
Ans. (2)
24. Consider the following observations relating to the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar:
(a) Akbar strengthened his control on the nobility and the army by introducing the mansabdari system.
(b) Under the mansabdari system, every officer was assigned a rank (mansab)
(c) The ranks were divided into three: zat, sawar and chehra.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) a and c
Ans. (3)
25. Which among the following was not a demand of Mahatma Gandhi to the Government as a condition of settlement before he launched the Non-cooperation movement?
(1) The Government should withdraw the Rowlatt Act
(2) The Government should express regret for the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
(3) The British government should behave leniently with Turkey
(4) The Government should put a better scheme of reforms than that of the Act of 1919
Ans. (4)
26. The ‘Motorana’ and the ‘hathianna’ referred to:
(1) markets where peasants brought their produce
(2) taxes levied by zamindars on their peasants
(3) rent paid by peasants for the use of the motorcar or the elephant of the zamindar
(4) the nickname for those zamindars that possessed a motorcar or an elephant
Ans. (3)
27. Which of the following ideas was/were shared by Raja Rammohan Roy and Rabindranath Tagore?
(1) Internationalism
(2) Opposition to idol worship
(3) Faith in rational and scientific approach
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
28. The Hindustan Republican Association was founded to:
(1) Set up a republican government in Hindustan
(2) Organize armed rebellion in India
(3) Persuade the Indian people to participate in elections
(4) Encourage the Indian youth onto the path of socialism
Ans. (1)
29. Consider the following statements about Indian trade and commerce in the medieval period:
(a) India exported cotton piece goods to the wider world in the medieval period.
(b) India received gold and silver from the wider world in lieu of her cotton goods.
(c) India also supplied raw materials to the European industries in the medieval period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a and b
(2) a only
(3) b and c
(4) c only
Ans. (1)
30. Which of the following statements about Bhadrabahu is/are correct?
(a) He was a Jain Saint.
(b) He was a spiritual teacher of Chandragupta Maurya.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (3)
31. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA) set up by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India in 2006 to undertake a complete health checkup of the country’s financial sector?
(1) Shri Ashok Chawla
(2) Shri Ashok Jha
(3) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
(4) Dr. D. Subba Rao
Ans. (3)
32. Which one of the following causes rainfall in the north-western parts of India during Winter Season?
(1) Cyclonic depression
(2) Retreating monsoon
(3) Western disturbances
(4) South West monsoon
Ans. (3)
33. Tidal range denotes the:
(1) rise of sea water and its movement toward the coast
(2) fall of sea water and its movement toward the sea
(3) rise and fall of sea water due to gravitational forces
(4) difference between high and low tide
Ans. (4)
34. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Damuda series of rock system contain all the metallurgical coal in India.
(b) Tamil Nadu is the chief producer of lignite coal in India.
(c) Tertiary coal is mainly confined to the peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b and c
Ans. (3)
35. Which one of the following states of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Tripura
(4) West Bengal
Ans. (3)
36. Through which one of the following continents, do the equator, the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn pass through?
(1) Africa
(2) South America
(3) North America
(4) Australia
Ans. (1)
37. The laboratory from where car bon dioxide measurements have been taken since 1958 AD., which form the basis of present global warming data base is:
(1) Maragheh observatory
(2) Mauna Loa observatory
(3) Griffith observatory
(4) Sydney observatory
Ans. (2)
38. What happens to the soil, where soil water freezes and it tends to form ice layers parallel with the ground surface?
(1) It heaves the soil upward in an uneven manner
(2) It heaves the soil downward in an uneven manner
(3) It heaves the soil both upward and downward in an even manner
(4) Ii remains unaffected
Ans. (1)
39. What happens to the water depth as the Tsunami waves approach the coast?
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Increases and decreases alternatively
(4) Neither increases nor decreases
Ans. (2)
40. Consider the following statements:
(a) The Earth receives the Sun’s energy at the infrared end of the spectrum.
(b) The Earth re-radiates the Sun’s heat as ultraviolet energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) Both a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Ans. (4)
41. Which one of the following is a planetary wind?
(1) Monsoon
(2) Trade
(3) Chinook
(4) Mistral
Ans. (2)
42. Which one of the following does not control climate?
(1) Latitude
(2) Altitude
(3) Longitude
(4) Forest cover
Ans. (3)
Online free resource for SEBI exams
1. Four-fifths of three-eighths of a number is 24. What is 250 per cent of that number?
1)100
2)160
3)120
4)200
5)None of these
2. The average of 17 numbers is 45. The average of first 9 of these numbers is 51 and the last 9 of these numbers is 36. What is the ninth number?
1)14
2)16
3)22
4) 20
5) None of these
3. Amri borrowed a sum of money from Jayant at the rate of 8% per annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next six years and 12% per
annum for the period beyond ten years. If he pays a total of Rs 12,160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much money did he borrow?
1) Rs 8000
2) Rs 10,000
3) Rs 12,000
4) Rs 9,000
5) None of these
4. The average age of 24 students and the class teacher is 16 years. If the class teacher’s age is excluded, the average reduces by one year. What is the age of the class
teacher?
1) 50 years
2) 45 years
3) 40 years
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
5679+1438-2015=?
1)5192
2)5012
3)5102
4)5002
5)None of these
6. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 7: 5. If the perimeter of the plot is 144 metres, what is its area?
1)1320 sq. metres
2)1260 sq. metres
3)1280 sq. metres
4)1380 sq. metres
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-11): In each of the following questions, a question is asked followed by three statements. While answering the question, you may or may not require the data provided in the statements. you have to read the question and the three statements and then decide whether the question can be answered with any one or two of the statements or all the three statements are required to answer the question, The answer number bearing the combination of statements or single statement which is necessary to answer the question is your answer.
7. What is the perimeter of a rectangular garden?
A. The area of the garden is 2400 sq. metres.
B. The diagonal of the gardenia 50 metres.
C. The ratio between the length and the breadth of the garden is3 :2.
1) All A, B and C together are required
2) Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
3) Only A and B are required
4) Only B and C are required
5) None of these
8. What was the rate of compound interest on an amount of money?
A. The amount fetches a total of Rs 945.75 as compound interest at the end of three years.
B. The difference between the total simple interest and the total compound interest at the end of two years with the seine rate of interest was Rs 15.
C. The ratio between the principal amount and the total Simple interest at the end of three years is 20: 3.
1) Only A and are required
2) Only B and C are required
3) All A, B and C together are required
4) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be determined
5) None of these
9. What is the difference between two numbers. X and Y?
A. X is 20 per cent more than another number Z.
B. Y is 20 per cent less than Z.
C. The sum of Y and Z is 72.
1) Only A and B are required
2) Only A and C are required
3) All A, B and C together are required
4) Any two of A, B and C are required
5) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be arrived at
10. What is the monthly salary of Pravin?
A. Pravin earns Rs 1,200 more than Amal.
B. The ratio between Amal and Vimal’s monthly salary is 5 : 3.
C. Vimal earns Rs 1,000 less than Amal.
1) Any two of A, B and C are required
2) Only A and B are required
3) Only B and C are required
4) All A, B and C together are required
5) None of these
11. How much marks was obtained by Mukesh in Geography?
A. The average marks obtained by Mukesh in English, History and Geography was 65.
B. The difference between the marks obtained by Mukesh in English and History was 15.
C. The total marks obtained by Mukesh in Geography and Mathematics was 140.
1) All A, B and C together are required
2) Only A and C are required
3) Only B and C are required
4) Even with all A, B and C together the answer cannot be determined
5) Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
Directions (Q. 12-16): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(In thousand tonnes)
12. In which of the following years was the total of the exports and domestic consumption highest among the given years?
1)1991
2)1993
3)1994
4)1992
5) None of these
13. The difference between the domestic consumption between 1990 and 1991 was exactly equal to the difference in exports between which of the following pairs of years?
1)1991 & 1992
2)1989 & 1991
3)1988 & 1990
4)1991 & 1993
5)1992 & 1993
14. If there was 40 per cent increase in the domestic consumption from 1994 to 1995, what would have been the difference between the domestic consumption and ex ports in 1995 (in tonnes)?
1) 5,000
2) 7,000
3) 8,500
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
15. In which of the following years was the percentage fluctuation (increase/decrease) in exports the maxi mum from the previous years?
1)1989
2)1991
3)1994
4)1992
5)1990
16. What was the difference between the average domestic consumption and the average exports during the given years?
1) 2,000 tonnes
2) 3,000 tonnes
3) 2,500 tonnes
4) 4,000 tonnes
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-21): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Marks obtained in six subjects by six students
In the above table shown St. = Students,
Sub = Subjects,
T Marks = Total Marks,
H= History,
S =Science,
G = Geography,
E = English,
Hn = Hindi,
M = Maths.
17. What was the difference between the percentage of marks obtained by student B in History and the percent age of marks obtained by student C in Hindi?
1)25
2)20
3)35
4)30
5)None of these
18. The marks obtained by student A in Maths was how many times the percentage of marks obtained by student F in Science?
1)2.5
2)4.125
3)1.125
4)2.125
5)None of these
19. What was the difference between the percentage of marks obtained by student C in English and average percentage of marks of all the six subjects?
1) 82
2)38.33
3)7
4)14
5) None of these
20. In how many of the given subjects did student D get marks more than seventy per cent?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
21. Approximately, what was the average percentage of marks obtained by the six students in English?
1)67
2) 72
3)80
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
22. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 14 less than one-fourth of 176. What is the middle number?
1) 8
2)10
3) 6
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
23. When 35 per cent of a number is added to another number, the second number increases by its 20 per cent. What is the ratio between the second number and the first number?
1)4:7
2)7:4
3)8:5
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
24. The difference between the digits of a two-digit number is one-ninth of the difference between the original number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits. What definitely is the sum of the digits of that number?
1)5
2)14
3)12
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Answers :
Sl no Answer
1 4
2 5
3 1
4 3
5 3
6 2
7 2
8 5
9 3
10 4
11 4
12 4
13 4
14 4
15 5
16 5
17 2
18 4
19 3
20 1
21 1
22 2
23 2
24 4